Trivia Quiz On 3d052 Vol 2

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 6,720

Questions: 100 | Attempts: 218 | Updated: Mar 19, 2023

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3D052 VOL 2

Questions and Answers

1.

Which original components were very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?
- A.
  
  Read only memory (ROM).
- B.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS).
- C.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
- D.
  
  Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

Explanation
CMOS components are very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge. CMOS technology uses very small transistors and delicate circuitry, which can be easily damaged by the high voltage and current generated during an electrostatic discharge event. The other components mentioned, such as ROM, BIOS, and EEPROM, are not as vulnerable to electrostatic discharge as CMOS.

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2.

What is considered to be a computer’s main storage?
- A.
  
  Random access memory (RAM).
- B.
  
  Read only memory (ROM).
- C.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS).
- D.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
Correct Answer
A. Random access memory (RAM).

Explanation
RAM is considered to be a computer's main storage because it is a volatile memory that allows the computer to store and access data quickly. It is used to temporarily store data that the computer is actively using, such as running programs and open files. Unlike other storage options like ROM, BIOS, and CMOS, RAM can be read from and written to, making it ideal for fast data access and manipulation.

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3.

What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?
- A.
  
  Read only memory (ROM).
- B.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS).
- C.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
- D.
  
  Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
A. Read only memory (ROM).

Explanation
ROM is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its data even when the power is turned off. It is a type of memory that is pre-programmed during manufacturing and cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations. ROM is commonly used to store firmware or software instructions that are essential for the computer to start up and perform basic functions. Unlike other types of memory, such as RAM, ROM does not require constant power to maintain its data, making it nonvolatile and permanent.

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4.

What is a form of firmware that contains the computer’s startup instructions?
- A.
  
  Cache.
- B.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS).
- C.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
- D.
  
  Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
B. Basic input/output system (BIOS).

Explanation
The correct answer is Basic input/output system (BIOS). BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components, loading the operating system, and providing basic input/output services for the computer. It is stored on a chip on the motherboard and is the first software that runs when the computer is powered on.

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5.

What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating theneed for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?
- A.
  
  Cache.
- B.
  
  Buffer.
- C.
  
  Interface.
- D.
  
  Interrupt.
Correct Answer
D. Interrupt.

Explanation
An interrupt is a signal from a hardware device to the CPU, indicating that it requires attention. This interruption can be asynchronous, meaning it can occur at any time, or it can be triggered by a synchronous event. Interrupts allow the CPU to handle multiple tasks efficiently by temporarily suspending the current task and switching to a higher-priority task. Therefore, an interrupt is the correct answer as it best describes the given definition.

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6.

Which controller component interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests theattention of the central processing unit (CPU)?
- A.
  
  Disk request.
- B.
  
  Utility resource.
- C.
  
  Priority interrupt.
- D.
  
  Integrated resource.
Correct Answer
C. Priority interrupt.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Priority interrupt." A priority interrupt is a controller component that interprets an electronic signal and prioritizes it. It then requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU). This interrupt is used to handle time-sensitive tasks or events that require immediate attention from the CPU. It allows the CPU to temporarily suspend its current task and handle the higher-priority task.

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7.

Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?
- A.
  
  2
- B.
  
  4
- C.
  
  6
- D.
  
  8
Correct Answer
C. 6

Explanation
IRQ line 6 is typically used for the floppy disk controller. This interrupt request line is responsible for signaling the CPU when the controller needs attention or when data transfer is complete. By using IRQ line 6, the floppy disk controller can effectively communicate with the CPU and perform necessary operations such as reading and writing data to the floppy disk.

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8.

Which is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete?
- A.
  
  Driver.
- B.
  
  Parity bit.
- C.
  
  Data integrity.
- D.
  
  Error correction.
Correct Answer
C. Data integrity.

Explanation
Data integrity is the term used to describe that data is whole or complete. It refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data over its entire lifecycle. When data has integrity, it means that it is accurate, consistent, and free from errors or corruption. This ensures that the data can be trusted and relied upon for making informed decisions or performing operations.

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9.

What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?
- A.
  
  Fault.
- B.
  
  Parity.
- C.
  
  Interrupt.
- D.
  
  Asynchronous.
Correct Answer
B. Parity.

Explanation
Parity is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity. Parity is a simple error detection method that involves adding an extra bit to a binary code. This extra bit, known as the parity bit, is set to either 0 or 1 depending on the number of 1s in the data. When the data is received, the parity bit is checked to ensure that the number of 1s is correct. If the parity bit does not match the number of 1s, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission. Therefore, parity is used to verify the accuracy of data transmission and ensure data integrity.

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10.

Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
- A.
  
  Interrupt.
- B.
  
  Parity bit.
- C.
  
  Asynchronous.
- D.
  
  Data integrity.
Correct Answer
B. Parity bit.

Explanation
A parity bit is a simple error detecting code that is commonly used in data transmission. It is a single bit added to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is either even or odd. By checking the parity bit at the receiving end, errors in the transmission can be detected. This makes the parity bit a very simple and effective method for error detection in data communication.

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11.

What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected toa server when they are not?
- A.
  
  Network attached storage (NAS).
- B.
  
  Storage area network (SAN).
- C.
  
  Redundant array of independent disks (RAID).
- D.
  
  Array storage.
Correct Answer
B. Storage area network (SAN).

Explanation
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not. SANs provide block-level storage that can be accessed by multiple servers over a high-speed network. This allows for centralized storage management and enables servers to access the storage devices as if they were directly attached. NAS, on the other hand, provides file-level storage and is accessed over a network. RAID and Array storage, while related to storage, do not specifically address the question of utilizing storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server.

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12.

What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?
- A.
  
  Ease of replacing the hard drive.
- B.
  
  Ease of replacing network connectivity.
- C.
  
  Ease of replacing server.
- D.
  
  Multiple users can access the server at once.
Correct Answer
C. Ease of replacing server.

Explanation
An advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture is the ease of replacing servers. In a SAN, the storage resources are separate from the servers, allowing for seamless replacement or upgrade of servers without impacting the storage infrastructure. This provides flexibility and reduces downtime as new servers can be easily integrated into the SAN environment without disrupting data access or requiring data migration.

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13.

What is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN)?
- A.
  
  Fibre channel.
- B.
  
  ATA over Ethernet (AoE).
- C.
  
  Small computer system interface (SCSI).
- D.
  
  Internet small computer system interface (iSCSI).
Correct Answer
A. Fibre channel.

Explanation
The correct answer is Fibre channel. Fibre channel is the preferred connection type for storage area networks (SAN) due to its high performance, reliability, and scalability. It provides a dedicated and high-speed connection between servers and storage devices, allowing for fast data transfer and efficient storage management. Fibre channel also offers features like zoning and multipathing, which enhance the security and availability of data in SAN environments.

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14.

Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive?
- A.
  
  Storage area network (SAN).
- B.
  
  Redundant array of independent disks (RAID).
- C.
  
  Network attached storage (NAS).
- D.
  
  RHD.
Correct Answer
C. Network attached storage (NAS).

Explanation
Network attached storage (NAS) is a storage device that can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive. It provides a centralized storage solution that allows multiple users to access and share files over a network. NAS devices are designed to be simple to set up and manage, making them an ideal choice for small businesses or home networks. They offer features such as data backup, remote access, and file synchronization, making them a versatile and convenient storage solution for network environments.

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15.

Which storage device has the means of providing data storage reliability using multiple harddrives?
- A.
  
  Storage area network (SAN).
- B.
  
  Network attached storage (NAS).
- C.
  
  Small computer system interface (SCSI).
- D.
  
  Redundant array of independent disks (RAID).
Correct Answer
D. Redundant array of independent disks (RAID).

Explanation
RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks and is a storage technology that combines multiple hard drives into a single logical unit. It provides data storage reliability by using techniques such as mirroring (data is duplicated on multiple drives) and striping (data is divided into blocks and distributed across multiple drives). This redundancy ensures that if one drive fails, the data can still be accessed from the remaining drives, increasing overall reliability and fault tolerance. Therefore, RAID is the storage device that provides data storage reliability using multiple hard drives.

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16.

The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to theserver as
- A.
  
  One single hard drive.
- B.
  
  A collection of hard drives.
- C.
  
  A single RAID array.
- D.
  
  A remote storage device.
Correct Answer
A. One single hard drive.

Explanation
In a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array, the hard drives are combined and presented to the server as one single hard drive. This means that the server sees the multiple physical hard drives as a single logical drive, providing improved performance, fault tolerance, or both. This allows for better data storage and retrieval efficiency, as well as redundancy in case of drive failure.

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17.

Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array thatcan be daisy chained?
- A.
  
  Small computer system interface (SCSI).
- B.
  
  Serial attached (SAS) SCSI.
- C.
  
  Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA).
- D.
  
  Peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe).
Correct Answer
B. Serial attached (SAS) SCSI.

Explanation
Serial attached (SAS) SCSI is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) arrays that can be daisy chained. SAS is a high-speed data transfer technology that allows multiple devices to be connected in a chain or "daisy chain" configuration. This allows for easy expansion and scalability of the RAID array. Additionally, SAS offers better performance and reliability compared to other technologies like SATA or PCIe, making it a preferred choice for RAID implementations.

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1
18.

Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?
- A.
  
  They are nearly self-documenting.
- B.
  
  They use English-like statements.
- C.
  
  Source codes that are written closest to machine language.
- D.
  
  Programs are transportable between computers with few changes.
Correct Answer
C. Source codes that are written closest to machine language.

Explanation
High-order languages are known for being nearly self-documenting, using English-like statements, and being portable between computers with few changes. However, they are not characterized by source codes that are written closest to machine language. High-order languages are designed to be more abstract and user-friendly, allowing programmers to write code that is easier to understand and maintain. The closer a language is to machine language, the lower-level and more difficult it is to read and write.

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19.

What best describes programming machine code?
- A.
  
  Another term for firmware.
- B.
  
  Statements that correspond to complex actions.
- C.
  
  Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer.
- D.
  
  Source code that, when compiled, is appropriate for the computer.
Correct Answer
C. Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer.

Explanation
Programming machine code refers to the set of instructions that are written in a specific format that can be understood and executed by a computer. These instructions are written in a low-level language that directly corresponds to the architecture and hardware of the computer. Machine code is not human-readable and is usually represented as a sequence of binary numbers. It is the most basic level of instructions that a computer can understand and execute.

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20.

Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for displayon a Web browser page?
- A.
  
  Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML).
- B.
  
  Extensible Markup Language (XML).
- C.
  
  HyperText Markup Language (HTML).
- D.
  
  Dynamic HTML (DHTML).
Correct Answer
C. HyperText Markup Language (HTML).

Explanation
HTML is a set of markup symbols or codes that are inserted in a file intended for display on a web browser page. It is the standard markup language for creating web pages and is used to structure content and define the layout and appearance of a webpage. SGML, XML, and DHTML are also markup languages, but they are not specifically designed for display on a web browser page.

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21.

Which Web application is most likely to succeed Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)?
- A.
  
  Dynamic HTML (DHTML).
- B.
  
  Extensible Markup Language (XML).
- C.
  
  Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML).
- D.
  
  Extensible HTML (XHTML).
Correct Answer
D. Extensible HTML (XHTML).

Explanation
XHTML is the most likely web application to succeed HTML because it is a stricter and cleaner version of HTML. It combines the syntax of HTML with the stricter rules of XML, making it more compatible with future web technologies. XHTML also allows for better integration with other markup languages and is more easily parsed by web browsers and search engines. Therefore, it is the logical choice for the evolution of HTML.

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22.

A standard Web application used to pass a Web user’s request to a server’s applicationprogram and to exchange data back to the user is called a
- A.
  
  Transport layer security (TLS).
- B.
  
  Common gateway interface (CGI).
- C.
  
  Data encryption standard (DES).
- D.
  
  Public key infrastructure (PKI).
Correct Answer
B. Common gateway interface (CGI).

Explanation
A standard Web application used to pass a Web user's request to a server's application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a common gateway interface (CGI). CGI is a protocol that allows the server to communicate with the application program and pass user requests to it. It enables the exchange of data between the user and the server, making it the correct answer for this question. TLS, DES, and PKI are not directly related to the process of passing user requests to a server's application program.

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23.

Which protocol is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission onthe Internet?
- A.
  
  Secure socket layer (SSL).
- B.
  
  Public key infrastructure (PKI).
- C.
  
  Data encryption standard (DES).
- D.
  
  Transport layer security (TLS).
Correct Answer
A. Secure socket layer (SSL).

Explanation
SSL (Secure Socket Layer) is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet. SSL is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over a network. It ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data transmitted between a client and a server. SSL uses encryption algorithms to encrypt the data, preventing unauthorized access or interception. It also uses digital certificates to verify the identity of the communicating parties. TLS (Transport Layer Security) is an updated version of SSL and is often used interchangeably with SSL.

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24.

Which program can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule?
- A.
  
  Check disk.
- B.
  
  Disk quotas.
- C.
  
  Disk defragmenter.
- D.
  
  Task scheduler.
Correct Answer
D. Task scheduler.

Explanation
Task scheduler is a program that allows users to automate the launching of programs on a predetermined schedule. It enables users to set specific times for programs to start, making it convenient for tasks that need to be performed regularly or at specific intervals. Check disk, disk quotas, and disk defragmenter are not programs used for launching other programs, but rather for disk management and maintenance purposes.

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25.

Which error-checking tool allows you to monitor the file system for errors?
- A.
  
  Check disk.
- B.
  
  Disk quotas.
- C.
  
  Task scheduler.
- D.
  
  Disk defragmenter.
Correct Answer
A. Check disk.

Explanation
Check disk is an error-checking tool that allows you to monitor the file system for errors. It scans the hard drive for any issues or inconsistencies in the file system and fixes them if possible. By running Check disk regularly, you can ensure the integrity and stability of your file system, preventing potential data loss or corruption. Disk quotas, task scheduler, and disk defragmenter are not error-checking tools and do not specifically monitor the file system for errors.

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26.

Which numbering system characteristic is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?
- A.
  
  Least significant digit (LSD).
- B.
  
  Most significant digit (MSD).
- C.
  
  Exponent.
- D.
  
  Radix.
Correct Answer
B. Most significant digit (MSD).

Explanation
The leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value represents the most significant digit (MSD) in a numbering system. The MSD carries the most weight and contributes the most to the value of the number. It determines the magnitude and scale of the number. In contrast, the least significant digit (LSD) represents the rightmost non-zero digit and contributes the least to the value of the number. The exponent is a separate component used in scientific notation to represent the power of 10, and the radix refers to the base of the numbering system (e.g., 10 for decimal, 2 for binary).

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27.

What should each organization have that spells out which systems are prioritized in whatorder for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters?
- A.
  
  Preventive controls.
- B.
  
  List of critical devices.
- C.
  
  Recovery strategies.
- D.
  
  Emergency action plans.
Correct Answer
B. List of critical devices.

Explanation
Each organization should have a list of critical devices that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters. This list helps identify the most important devices and systems that need to be protected and ensures that resources and efforts are focused on them first during a disaster. By having a clear understanding of the critical devices, organizations can develop effective preventive controls, recovery strategies, and emergency action plans to mitigate the impact of disasters and ensure business continuity.

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28.

Which type of backup would you use at the end of the week to save all data that you selecton your systems?
- A.
  
  Incremental.
- B.
  
  Differential.
- C.
  
  Daily.
- D.
  
  Normal.
Correct Answer
D. Normal.

Explanation
The normal type of backup is typically used at the end of the week to save all selected data. Unlike incremental or differential backups, which only save changes made since the last backup, a normal backup saves all selected data regardless of whether it has changed or not. Daily backups, on the other hand, are performed on a daily basis and may not capture all the data selected at the end of the week. Therefore, a normal backup is the most suitable option for saving all selected data at the end of the week.

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29.

Which type of backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours?
- A.
  
  Daily.
- B.
  
  Normal.
- C.
  
  Incremental.
- D.
  
  Differential.
Correct Answer
D. Differential.

Explanation
A differential backup is a type of backup that only backs up files that have been altered since the last full backup. In this case, since the question specifies that it needs to backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours, a differential backup is the correct choice. Daily backups would backup all files every day, regardless of whether they have been altered or not. Normal backups would backup all files, but not just the ones that have been altered in the last 24 hours. Incremental backups would only backup files that have been altered since the last backup, which may not cover all files altered in the last 24 hours.

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1
30.

What is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network?
- A.
  
  Active directory.
- B.
  
  Domains manager.
- C.
  
  Domain name service (DNS).
- D.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
Correct Answer
A. Active directory.

Explanation
Active Directory is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network. It is a service provided by Microsoft Windows that helps manage and organize network resources, such as users, computers, and other devices, in a hierarchical structure. It allows for centralized authentication, authorization, and administration of network resources, making it easier to manage and control access to resources in a network environment.

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31.

What is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information?
- A.
  
  Domain
- B.
  
  Forest
- C.
  
  Schema
- D.
  
  Tree
Correct Answer
A. Domain

Explanation
A domain is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information. Within a domain, administrators can manage and control access to resources, set security policies, and authenticate users. This centralized system allows for efficient management and organization of resources within a network.

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32.

Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) servers.
- B.
  
  Domain name service (DNS) servers.
- C.
  
  Domain controllers.
- D.
  
  Global catalog servers.
Correct Answer
C. Domain controllers.

Explanation
A copy of the active directory database resides on domain controllers. Domain controllers are servers that store a replica of the active directory database, which contains information about the network's users, groups, computers, and other objects. This database is essential for managing and authenticating users and resources within a Windows domain. By having multiple domain controllers, organizations ensure redundancy and fault tolerance, as changes made to the active directory database are automatically replicated across all domain controllers in the domain.

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33.

What kind of server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
- B.
  
  Domain controller.
- C.
  
  Global catalog
- D.
  
  Member
Correct Answer
C. Global catalog

Explanation
The global catalog is a type of server in Active Directory that contains a master listing of all active directory objects in the forest. It stores a subset of attributes for every object in the directory, making it easier and faster to search for objects across multiple domains. The global catalog is essential for tasks such as logon authentication, searching for objects, and locating domain controllers. It helps in improving the efficiency and performance of the Active Directory system.

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34.

What is a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be done by a user?
- A.
  
  Access control lists
- B.
  
  Access policy objects
- C.
  
  Group policy objects.
- D.
  
  Group rules sets.
Correct Answer
C. Group policy objects.

Explanation
Group policy objects are a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be done by a user. These objects are used to manage and enforce security settings, software installations, and other configurations across a network. By applying group policy objects, administrators can control user access, define application restrictions, and enforce password policies, among other things. Therefore, group policy objects are the correct answer as they provide a way to control and manage user actions in an active directory environment.

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35.

Which type of interface is friendlier for the average user to use?
- A.
  
  Command line interface.
- B.
  
  Graphical user interface.
- C.
  
  Menu driven interface.
- D.
  
  Palo Alto Research Center user interface.
Correct Answer
B. GrapHical user interface.

Explanation
A graphical user interface (GUI) is friendlier for the average user to use compared to a command line interface or a menu-driven interface. GUIs use visual elements such as icons, buttons, and menus to interact with the system, making it easier for users to navigate and perform tasks. This type of interface provides a more intuitive and user-friendly experience, allowing users to interact with the system by simply clicking and dragging objects on the screen, rather than having to remember and type complex commands or navigate through a hierarchical menu structure.

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36.

Which of the following is not one of the elements that most graphical user interfaces are composed of?
- A.
  
  Windows
- B.
  
  Icons
- C.
  
  Menus
- D.
  
  Programs
Correct Answer
D. Programs

Explanation
Most graphical user interfaces are composed of windows, icons, and menus. However, programs are not considered one of the elements of a graphical user interface. Programs are the software applications that run on the interface, allowing users to perform various tasks and functions. While programs may be accessed and interacted with through the graphical user interface, they are not inherent components of the interface itself.

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37.

Sitting at a computer and loading a software patch onto it is an example of what type of software patch?
- A.
  
  Automatic
- B.
  
  Attended
- C.
  
  Unattended
- D.
  
  Remote
Correct Answer
B. Attended

Explanation
Loading a software patch onto a computer while sitting at the computer implies that the user is actively present and involved in the process. This type of software patch is known as an "attended" patch, where the user manually initiates and oversees the installation of the patch onto the computer.

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38.

Which type of patch would utilize a remote installation services (RIS)?
- A.
  
  Automatic
- B.
  
  Local
- C.
  
  Manual
- D.
  
  Unattended
Correct Answer
D. Unattended

Explanation
Unattended patches would utilize a remote installation services (RIS) because RIS allows for the installation of software or patches on remote computers without any user intervention. Unattended patches can be deployed remotely and installed on multiple computers simultaneously, saving time and effort. This type of patching is particularly useful for large-scale deployments or when the patches need to be installed on computers located in different locations.

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39.

Which components of domain name service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses?
- A.
  
  Name servers.
- B.
  
  Resolvers
- C.
  
  Resource records.
- D.
  
  Forward lookup zone.
Correct Answer
A. Name servers.

Explanation
Name servers in the Domain Name System (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses. Name servers are responsible for storing and managing the DNS records, which include information about domain names and their corresponding IP addresses. When a user queries a domain name, the name servers are responsible for providing the correct IP address associated with that domain name. This allows for the translation of human-readable domain names into machine-readable IP addresses, enabling communication between devices on the internet.

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40.

Which query is made by one name server to another name server?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) query.
- B.
  
  Domain name service (DNS) query.
- C.
  
  Recursive query.
- D.
  
  Non-recursive query.
Correct Answer
D. Non-recursive query.

Explanation
A non-recursive query is made by one name server to another name server. In a non-recursive query, the requesting name server asks the other name server for the information it needs, and if the queried name server does not have the answer, it will provide a referral to another name server. This process continues until the requested information is found or until there are no more referrals. Unlike a recursive query, a non-recursive query requires the requesting name server to do the additional work of finding the answer by following the referrals.

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41.

Which software program manages an IP address allocation for a network?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
- B.
  
  Domain name service (DNS)
- C.
  
  Active directory (AD)
- D.
  
  DHCP server.
Correct Answer
A. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)

Explanation
The correct answer is Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP). DHCP is a software program that manages the allocation of IP addresses for a network. It automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on the network, eliminating the need for manual configuration. DHCP ensures that each device on the network has a unique IP address and helps in efficient management of IP address allocation.

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42.

The group of IP addresses that a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server manages is known as a
- A.
  
  Pool
- B.
  
  Range
- C.
  
  Scope
- D.
  
  Zone
Correct Answer
C. Scope

Explanation
A DHCP server manages a group of IP addresses known as a "scope". This scope represents a range of IP addresses that the server can assign to client devices on a network. The DHCP server is responsible for dynamically allocating and managing these IP addresses to ensure that each device on the network has a unique address. The scope can be configured with various settings such as lease duration, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server information.

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43.

What is the minimum number of scopes a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server can have?
- A.
  
  One
- B.
  
  Two
- C.
  
  Three
- D.
  
  Five
Correct Answer
A. One

Explanation
A DHCP server can have a minimum of one scope. A scope is a range of IP addresses that the DHCP server can assign to clients. With only one scope, the DHCP server can allocate IP addresses to devices on a single network. This is the minimum requirement for a DHCP server to function properly.

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44.

According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, how long is the lease that a noncritical workstation will have applied to them?
- A.
  
  15 days.
- B.
  
  30 days.
- C.
  
  45 days
- D.
  
  60 days
Correct Answer
B. 30 days.

Explanation
According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, a noncritical workstation will have a lease applied to them for a duration of 30 days.

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45.

What type of service allows network administrators to install upgrades on any number of client computers at one time from a centralized location?
- A.
  
  Domain name service (DNS)
- B.
  
  Internet information services (IIS).
- C.
  
  Remote installation services (RIS.
- D.
  
  Web
Correct Answer
C. Remote installation services (RIS.

Explanation
Remote installation services (RIS) is the correct answer because it allows network administrators to install upgrades on multiple client computers simultaneously from a centralized location. This service simplifies the process of deploying software updates or operating system upgrades across a network, saving time and effort for administrators. DNS, IIS, and Web services are not specifically designed for this purpose, making them incorrect options.

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46.

Which is not a component of Internet information services (IIS)?
- A.
  
  FTP server.
- B.
  
  Internet services manager.
- C.
  
  Simple mail transport protocol (SMTP).
- D.
  
  Simple network management protocol (SNMP).
Correct Answer
D. Simple network management protocol (SNMP).

Explanation
The correct answer is Simple network management protocol (SNMP). SNMP is not a component of Internet Information Services (IIS). IIS is a web server created by Microsoft that supports various internet protocols and services such as FTP, SMTP, and HTTP. SNMP, on the other hand, is a protocol used for managing and monitoring network devices and systems. It is not directly related to the functions and services provided by IIS.

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47.

What component of windows unifies and simplifies day to day system management tasks?
- A.
  
  Domain name service (DNS)
- B.
  
  Internet information services (IIS)
- C.
  
  Microsoft management console (MMC).
- D.
  
  Remote installation services (RIS).
Correct Answer
C. Microsoft management console (MMC).

Explanation
The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is a component of Windows that unifies and simplifies day-to-day system management tasks. It provides a centralized platform for managing various aspects of the system, such as configuring hardware and software settings, managing user accounts, and monitoring system performance. With its customizable interface and support for various management tools, the MMC offers a streamlined and efficient way to perform system administration tasks.

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48.

Which type of group manages user’s rights assignments and access permissions?
- A.
  
  Universal
- B.
  
  Distribution
- C.
  
  Security
- D.
  
  Access
Correct Answer
C. Security

Explanation
The correct answer is "Security." Security groups are used to manage user's rights assignments and access permissions. These groups are created to control access to resources such as files, folders, and printers on a network. By assigning users to security groups, administrators can easily manage and modify access permissions for multiple users at once.

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49.

Which special identity can represent users currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer?
- A.
  
  Anonymous logon.
- B.
  
  Everyone
- C.
  
  Network
- D.
  
  Interactive
Correct Answer
D. Interactive

Explanation
The special identity "Interactive" represents users who are currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer. This identity is used to differentiate between users who are physically present at the computer and those who are accessing it remotely.

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50.

What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?
- A.
  
  Rights
- B.
  
  Permissions
- C.
  
  Access control lists
- D.
  
  Hardware configuration.
Correct Answer
B. Permissions

Explanation
Permissions define the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource. They determine what actions can be taken on the resource, such as read, write, or execute. Permissions are typically assigned to users or groups and help ensure that only authorized individuals can access or modify the resource. Rights refer to the privileges granted to users or groups, while access control lists are a mechanism for implementing permissions. Hardware configuration, on the other hand, pertains to the physical setup and settings of the hardware device and is not directly related to defining rules for resource operations.

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Dec 13, 2016

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Trivia Quiz On 3d052 Vol 2

Which original components were very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

What is considered to be a computer’s main storage?

What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?

What is a form of firmware that contains the computer’s startup instructions?

What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating theneed for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?

Which controller component interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests theattention of the central processing unit (CPU)?

Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

Which is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete?

What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?

Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected toa server when they are not?

What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?

What is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN)?

Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive?

Which storage device has the means of providing data storage reliability using multiple harddrives?

The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to theserver as

Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array thatcan be daisy chained?

Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?

What best describes programming machine code?

Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for displayon a Web browser page?

Which Web application is most likely to succeed Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)?

A standard Web application used to pass a Web user’s request to a server’s applicationprogram and to exchange data back to the user is called a

Which protocol is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission onthe Internet?

Which program can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule?

Which error-checking tool allows you to monitor the file system for errors?

Which numbering system characteristic is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?

What should each organization have that spells out which systems are prioritized in whatorder for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters?

Which type of backup would you use at the end of the week to save all data that you selecton your systems?

Which type of backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours?

What is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network?

What is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information?

Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?

What kind of server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest?

What is a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be done by a user?

Which type of interface is friendlier for the average user to use?

Which of the following is not one of the elements that most graphical user interfaces are composed of?

Sitting at a computer and loading a software patch onto it is an example of what type of software patch?

Which type of patch would utilize a remote installation services (RIS)?

Which components of domain name service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses?

Which query is made by one name server to another name server?

Which software program manages an IP address allocation for a network?

The group of IP addresses that a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server manages is known as a

What is the minimum number of scopes a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server can have?

According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, how long is the lease that a noncritical workstation will have applied to them?

What type of service allows network administrators to install upgrades on any number of client computers at one time from a centralized location?

Which is not a component of Internet information services (IIS)?

What component of windows unifies and simplifies day to day system management tasks?

Which type of group manages user’s rights assignments and access permissions?

Which special identity can represent users currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer?

What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?