1.
Regarding Software management, which phrase best defines software lifecycle methodology?
Correct Answer
D. Standards and procedures affecting the design, implementation, and disposal of software systems
Explanation
The phrase "Standards and procedures affecting the design, implementation, and disposal of software systems" best defines software lifecycle methodology. This answer choice encompasses the entire lifecycle of software, including the design, implementation, and disposal stages. It emphasizes the importance of following standards and procedures throughout each stage of the software development process.
2.
What function in the software lifecycle development is recognized by more advanced software producing organizations?
Correct Answer
B. Software quality assurance
Explanation
Software quality assurance is recognized by more advanced software producing organizations in the software lifecycle development. This function is responsible for ensuring that the software being developed meets the required quality standards. It involves activities such as defining quality metrics, conducting audits, and implementing processes to improve the overall quality of the software. By focusing on quality assurance, organizations can minimize defects, improve customer satisfaction, and enhance the overall success of their software projects.
3.
The ability to learn, operate, prepare input, and interpret output is the definition of which software quality attribute?
Correct Answer
A. Usability
Explanation
Usability refers to the ease of use and understandability of software. It encompasses the ability to learn how to use the software, operate it efficiently, prepare input for it, and interpret the output it provides. This attribute focuses on making the software user-friendly and accessible to a wide range of users, ensuring that they can easily interact with the software and achieve their desired tasks without confusion or frustration.
4.
The effort required to transfer a program from one hardware configuration to another is the definition of which software quality attribute?
Correct Answer
B. Portability
Explanation
Portability is the software quality attribute that refers to the ease with which a program can be transferred from one hardware configuration to another. This means that the effort required to move a program from one system to another is minimized, allowing for greater flexibility and adaptability. Portability is important in ensuring that software can be used on different platforms and devices without significant modifications or rework.
5.
Which statement is correct of applying quality assurance to the software lifecycle?
Correct Answer
A. The coding pHase is checked to see if what was specified during the design pHase is accomplished
Explanation
During the software lifecycle, quality assurance is applied to ensure that the software meets the specified requirements and standards. The coding phase is an important part of this process, where the actual implementation of the software takes place. In order to ensure quality, the coding phase is checked to verify if what was specified during the design phase is accomplished. This involves reviewing the code to ensure that it aligns with the design specifications and meets the desired functionality. By checking the coding phase, quality assurance helps in identifying any deviations or errors in the implementation, allowing for necessary corrections to be made.
6.
When applying software quality assurance practices, in which phase do you verify that the implemented system achieves the goals specified during the design phase?
Correct Answer
C. Testing
Explanation
In the testing phase of software quality assurance practices, the implemented system is verified to ensure that it achieves the goals specified during the design phase. This phase involves executing various tests to identify any defects or issues in the system and to validate that it meets the desired requirements. By conducting thorough testing, the quality and functionality of the software can be assessed, ensuring that it aligns with the initial design goals.
7.
Which quality assurance software engineering principle requires the developer to understand the scope of the development effort?
Correct Answer
B. Use capable software processes
Explanation
The correct answer is "Use capable software processes" because this principle emphasizes the importance of having effective and efficient processes in place for software development. By using capable software processes, developers can better understand the scope of the development effort, ensuring that all requirements and constraints are properly analyzed and addressed. This principle helps in ensuring that the software development is carried out in a systematic and organized manner, leading to higher quality and more reliable software products.
8.
Which quality assurance software engineering principle recommends modeling or prototyping?
Correct Answer
D. Explore alternative concepts
Explanation
The quality assurance software engineering principle of "Explore alternative concepts" recommends modeling or prototyping as a way to explore different ideas and concepts. By creating models or prototypes, software engineers can test and evaluate different approaches to find the most efficient and effective solution. This principle helps in identifying potential issues and refining the requirements before moving forward with the development process.
9.
Which procedure involves looking at an existing software process and breaking it down into steps or areas?
Correct Answer
D. Software process improvements
Explanation
The procedure that involves looking at an existing software process and breaking it down into steps or areas is software process improvements. This procedure focuses on analyzing and evaluating the current software process in order to identify areas for improvement and make necessary changes to enhance the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the process.
10.
Which capability maturity model level is defined as repeatable?
Correct Answer
B. Level 2
Explanation
Level 2 is defined as repeatable in the capability maturity model. This level indicates that the organization has established basic project management processes that are consistent and repeatable. It means that the processes are documented and followed consistently across projects, ensuring a level of predictability and control. At this level, the organization has achieved a higher level of maturity compared to Level 1, where processes are ad hoc and unpredictable. However, Level 2 is still considered a relatively low level of maturity, as it does not yet focus on process optimization and continuous improvement, which are addressed in higher levels of the model.
11.
Which capability maturity model level are processes and products quantitatively measured, understood, and controlled?
Correct Answer
D. Level 4
Explanation
At Capability Maturity Model (CMM) Level 4, processes and products are quantitatively measured, understood, and controlled. This means that organizations at this level have established a quantitative understanding of their processes and products, and they use this data to make informed decisions and control their processes effectively. This level signifies a high level of maturity in terms of process management and the ability to make data-driven improvements.
12.
Which function best provides early indications of potential software development problems?
Correct Answer
A. Software metrics
Explanation
Software metrics provide early indications of potential software development problems by quantitatively measuring various aspects of the software development process. These metrics can include code complexity, code coverage, defect density, and other relevant factors. By analyzing these metrics, developers and project managers can identify potential issues and take corrective actions before they escalate into major problems. This helps in improving the overall quality of the software and ensuring that it meets the desired standards and requirements.
13.
Having only one way to interpret the metric describes which attribute?
Correct Answer
B. Unambiguously defined
Explanation
The correct answer is "Unambiguously defined." Having only one way to interpret the metric means that it is clearly and precisely defined, leaving no room for confusion or multiple interpretations. This attribute is important as it ensures that everyone involved understands the metric in the same way, leading to more accurate and reliable data analysis.
14.
Which metric attribute specifies that data needs to be collected on a schedule?
Correct Answer
A. Timely
Explanation
The metric attribute "Timely" specifies that data needs to be collected on a schedule. This means that the data should be collected at specific intervals or at specific times to ensure that it is up to date and relevant. Collecting data in a timely manner allows for accurate analysis and decision-making based on current information.
15.
Which question would a quality metric ask?
Correct Answer
D. How good is the product?
Explanation
A quality metric would ask "How good is the product?" because a quality metric is used to measure the overall quality and performance of a product. It evaluates various aspects such as functionality, reliability, usability, and effectiveness. By asking how good the product is, the quality metric aims to assess its overall quality and determine if it meets the desired standards and requirements.
16.
Which quality metric is enhanced with simplified design, simpler data structures, and comments?
Correct Answer
D. Maintainability
Explanation
Maintainability is enhanced with simplified design, simpler data structures, and comments because these practices make the code easier to understand, modify, and debug. Simplified design reduces complexity and makes it easier to identify and fix issues. Simpler data structures improve readability and make it easier to maintain and update the code. Comments provide additional explanations and documentation, making it easier for future developers to understand the code and make changes if needed. Overall, these practices contribute to the maintainability of the codebase.
17.
Which quality metric includes measuring likelihood of unexpected behavior?
Correct Answer
B. Reliability
Explanation
Reliability is the quality metric that includes measuring the likelihood of unexpected behavior. This is because reliability refers to the ability of a system to consistently perform its intended functions without failure or errors. In other words, a reliable system is one that can be trusted to behave as expected and not exhibit any unexpected or unpredictable behavior. Therefore, measuring the likelihood of unexpected behavior falls under the purview of reliability.
18.
Regarding designing automated data systems, in which phase do we analyze the current system in order to understand its deficiencies?
Correct Answer
D. Conduct system studies
Explanation
Conducting system studies is the phase where we analyze the current system to understand its deficiencies. This involves examining the existing system, identifying its strengths and weaknesses, and determining areas that need improvement. By conducting system studies, we can gather information about the current system's functionality, performance, and limitations, which helps in designing an automated data system that addresses these deficiencies and meets user requirements effectively.
19.
When conducting a system study, which statement best describes something you look for?
Correct Answer
A. Where and how current system fails to meet the present objective
Explanation
During a system study, the focus is on evaluating the current system and identifying its shortcomings in meeting the present objective. This involves analyzing where and how the current system fails to meet the desired goals and objectives. By understanding the areas of weakness or inefficiency, improvements can be made to enhance the system's performance and align it with the present objectives. The other options provided in the question, such as the time taken to perform the process, the amount of redundant processes, or the total number of processes, may be relevant but do not directly address the main purpose of identifying the current system's failures.
20.
During document flow analysis, what can you use to show particular items in a system that personal interviews cannot achieve?
Correct Answer
B. GrapHical representation
Explanation
Graphical representation can be used during document flow analysis to show particular items in a system that personal interviews cannot achieve. Graphical representation, such as flow charts, can visually depict the flow of documents and information within a system, making it easier to understand and analyze. This visual representation can provide a clear and concise overview of the document flow, highlighting any bottlenecks, inefficiencies, or areas for improvement. Personal interviews may not be able to achieve this level of clarity and understanding, as they rely on verbal communication and may not capture the full complexity of the document flow.
21.
When designing automated data systems, at what point do you evaluate the user requirements?
Correct Answer
B. After the document flow analysis
Explanation
When designing automated data systems, evaluating user requirements after the document flow analysis is the correct approach. Document flow analysis involves understanding the flow of documents and information within an organization. By conducting this analysis first, designers can gain insights into how data is currently being managed and identify any inefficiencies or areas for improvement. Once this analysis is complete, they can then assess the specific requirements and needs of the users to ensure that the automated data system effectively addresses their needs and aligns with the organization's goals.
22.
When evaluating user requirements separately, which statement do you consider when determining how each requirement will fit into the overall system?
Correct Answer
D. How well each requirement interacts with each other
Explanation
When determining how each requirement will fit into the overall system, the statement that needs to be considered is how well each requirement interacts with each other. This means that the requirements should be evaluated based on how they work together and complement each other in order to achieve the desired outcome. The focus is on the integration and synergy between the requirements rather than their individual characteristics or coding considerations.
23.
When planning and designing automated data systems, what is the next step after evaluating user requirements?
Correct Answer
C. System studies brief
Explanation
After evaluating user requirements, the next step would be to conduct system studies. This involves analyzing the current system and identifying any gaps or areas for improvement. It helps in understanding the existing processes and technology infrastructure. Once the system studies are conducted, a system studies brief can be prepared, which summarizes the findings and recommendations from the studies. This brief serves as a guide for further planning and designing of the automated data systems. Feasibility studies and document flow analysis may be conducted as part of the system studies process.
24.
What phase of the planning and designing process can expose areas of development process that might present problems during the design and implementation phase?
Correct Answer
D. Feasibility studies
Explanation
Feasibility studies in the planning and designing process can expose areas of the development process that might present problems during the design and implementation phase. These studies assess the practicality and viability of a proposed project, helping to identify potential challenges, risks, and limitations. By analyzing factors such as technical feasibility, economic viability, and operational feasibility, feasibility studies provide valuable insights that can inform decision-making and help mitigate potential issues during the subsequent phases of design and implementation.
25.
A composite of subsystems, assemblies, skills, and techniques capable of performing or supporting an operational role best defines a
Correct Answer
A. System
Explanation
A system is a composite of subsystems, assemblies, skills, and techniques capable of performing or supporting an operational role. This definition implies that a system is made up of various components that work together to achieve a specific purpose or function. It can include hardware, software, people, processes, and other elements necessary for its operation. A system is not limited to a specific domain or industry and can be applied in various contexts.
26.
Which component is a distinct part of a Computer Software Configuration Item (CSCI) and may be further broken down?
Correct Answer
C. Computer Software Component(CSC)
Explanation
A Computer Software Component (CSC) is a distinct part of a Computer Software Configuration Item (CSCI) that can be further broken down. This means that within a CSCI, there are individual CSCs that make up the overall software configuration. These CSCs can be separated and analyzed individually, allowing for easier management and understanding of the software.
27.
Which purpose is not a function of software configuration management?
Correct Answer
C. To solicit bids for contracts under configuration control
Explanation
The purpose of software configuration management is to identify the functional and physical characteristics of selected system components, record/report change processing and implementation status, and control changes to those characteristics. Soliciting bids for contracts under configuration control is not a function of software configuration management.
28.
What is the purpose of configuration management during acquisition?
Correct Answer
A. Assist program managers in achieving the required system performance
Explanation
The purpose of configuration management during acquisition is to assist program managers in achieving the required system performance. Configuration management helps in ensuring that the system is properly configured and meets the desired performance standards. It helps in identifying and resolving any configuration issues that may affect the system's performance. By managing the configuration, program managers can ensure that the system is optimized for its intended purpose and can perform as expected.
29.
What is the purpose of configuration management during deployment and operation?
Correct Answer
C. Control and account for the functional and pHysical characteristics
Explanation
Configuration management is essential during deployment and operation to control and account for the functional and physical characteristics of a system. This involves keeping track of the various components, versions, and configurations of the system to ensure that it is operating correctly and in line with the desired specifications. By having proper configuration management in place, organizations can effectively monitor and manage changes, identify and resolve issues, and maintain the integrity and reliability of the system throughout its lifecycle.
30.
Which configuration management goal is based on "Time is Money"
Correct Answer
C. Maximize productivity by minimizing mistakes
Explanation
The goal of maximizing productivity by minimizing mistakes in configuration management is based on the principle that time is money. By reducing errors and ensuring that the software development process runs smoothly, productivity can be increased, leading to cost savings and efficient use of resources. This goal emphasizes the importance of error prevention and quality control in order to optimize productivity and ultimately save time and money.
31.
What can programmers do to prevent wasting time looking for the right version of a program?
Correct Answer
D. Avoid multiple copies
Explanation
Programmers can prevent wasting time looking for the right version of a program by avoiding multiple copies. This means that they should ensure that there is only one version of the program available, rather than having multiple copies stored in different locations. By doing so, programmers can easily locate and access the correct version of the program, saving time and avoiding confusion.
32.
Which configuration management function is defined as both the selection of the documents which identify and define the configuration baseline characteristics of an item, and as the documents themselves?
Correct Answer
B. Configuration identification
Explanation
Configuration identification is the correct answer because it refers to the process of selecting the documents that identify and define the configuration baseline characteristics of an item. It also includes the actual documents themselves that serve as the baseline for the configuration management process. This function is crucial in ensuring that the correct configuration of an item is documented and maintained throughout its lifecycle.
33.
In which configuration management function will you find Engineering Change Proposals (ECP)?
Correct Answer
C. Configuration control
Explanation
In the configuration control function, Engineering Change Proposals (ECP) can be found. This function is responsible for evaluating and approving any proposed changes to the configuration of a system or product. ECPs are used to document and track proposed changes, ensuring that they are reviewed, evaluated, and implemented in a controlled manner.
34.
Which baseline is the initially approved allocated configuration identification, describing functional characteristics allocated to a configuration item?
Correct Answer
D. Functional
Explanation
The initially approved allocated configuration identification refers to the functional characteristics allocated to a configuration item. This means that it is the baseline that describes how the configuration item should function and what its specific characteristics are. It is not related to the product, the allocated configuration, or any specific document.
35.
An open system architecture means the software is
Correct Answer
D. Transferable and not dependent on other hardware platforms or operating systems
Explanation
An open system architecture refers to software that can be transferred and used on different hardware platforms or operating systems without being dependent on any specific one. This means that the software is not tied closely to any particular operating system and can be easily ported to different memory configurations. It is designed to be easily changed and accommodated to work with other hardware platforms, making it transferable and adaptable to various systems.
36.
What still needs to be the Air Force's major goal to improve flexibility over the life of the system and comply with standards?
Correct Answer
B. Open Architecture
Explanation
Open Architecture needs to be the Air Force's major goal to improve flexibility over the life of the system and comply with standards. Open Architecture refers to a system design that allows for interoperability, modularity, and the ability to easily integrate new technologies. By adopting an open architecture approach, the Air Force can ensure that its systems can adapt and evolve over time, keeping up with changing requirements and advancements in technology. This will also enable the Air Force to comply with industry standards and facilitate collaboration with other organizations.
37.
Which statement is not considered useful for a standards-based software infrastructure?
Correct Answer
D. Must provide for enhancements at predetermined pHases in the lifeccycle
Explanation
This statement is not considered useful for a standards-based software infrastructure because it implies that enhancements can only be made at predetermined phases in the lifecycle. In a standards-based software infrastructure, it is important to have flexibility and the ability to make enhancements and improvements as needed, rather than being restricted to predetermined phases.
38.
The focus of the tri-service open systems architecture is to
Correct Answer
D. Adopt a paradigm for the development of all warfare and warfare support systems among the services
Explanation
The focus of the tri-service open systems architecture is to adopt a paradigm for the development of all warfare and warfare support systems among the services. This means that the architecture aims to establish a common framework or approach for designing and building these systems, ensuring interoperability and compatibility across the different services. By adopting a unified paradigm, the services can work together more effectively and efficiently in developing and implementing their warfare and warfare support systems.
39.
What impact does open systems architecture have on a re-engineering effort, if any?
Correct Answer
C. It will be cheaper, as will hardware maintenance and support
Explanation
Open systems architecture refers to a design approach that allows for interoperability and compatibility between different systems and components. In the context of a re-engineering effort, implementing open systems architecture can have a positive impact on cost reduction. By adopting open standards and protocols, organizations can avoid vendor lock-in and have the flexibility to choose from a wider range of hardware and software options. This increased competition can lead to lower prices for both hardware and ongoing maintenance and support. Therefore, the correct answer is that it will be cheaper, as will hardware maintenance and support.
40.
Which is not one of the advantages of implementing an open system?
Correct Answer
D. Reduce the need for standards
Explanation
Implementing an open system does not reduce the need for standards. In fact, open systems often require more standards to ensure interoperability and compatibility between different components and technologies. The advantages of implementing an open system include reducing system costs, reducing acquisition costs, and improving information sharing.
41.
The warfare and warfare support systems technical reference model (WWSS TRM) is
Correct Answer
C. A living document that will be periodically updated
Explanation
The correct answer is a living document that will be periodically updated. This means that the warfare and warfare support systems technical reference model (WWSS TRM) is not a static document but rather a dynamic one that will be revised and updated regularly to keep up with the changing needs and advancements in warfare and warfare support systems. This ensures that the document remains relevant and useful over time.
42.
Which open system standard does the Air Force use for network protocol?
Correct Answer
B. Government Open Systems Interconnect Profile (GOSIP)
Explanation
The Air Force uses the Government Open Systems Interconnect Profile (GOSIP) for network protocol. GOSIP is an open system standard that ensures interoperability and compatibility among different computer systems. It provides guidelines and specifications for networking protocols, allowing different systems to communicate and share information effectively. By using GOSIP, the Air Force can establish a standardized and secure network infrastructure that supports their operations and communication needs.
43.
What Open system standard does the Air Force specify for user interfaces?
Correct Answer
D. X-Windows
Explanation
The Air Force specifies X-Windows as the open system standard for user interfaces. X-Windows is a widely used standard for graphical user interfaces in Unix-like operating systems. It provides a framework for creating and managing windows, menus, and other graphical elements. By specifying X-Windows, the Air Force ensures compatibility and interoperability among different systems and software applications used within their organization.
44.
Regarding acquisition processes and procedures, the definition "uses parts and design practice solid enough to stand up to typical civilian duty, but probably would not stand up on the battlefield" is the best example of
Correct Answer
B. Best commercial practice
Explanation
The given definition, "uses parts and design practice solid enough to stand up to typical civilian duty, but probably would not stand up on the battlefield," best exemplifies the concept of "best commercial practice." This term refers to the use of industry-standard methods, techniques, and practices that are widely accepted and proven to be effective in commercial settings. In this context, it means that the acquisition processes and procedures follow the best practices commonly used in civilian applications but may not meet the rigorous requirements of military or battlefield conditions.
45.
In the Acquisition process, what is the first step in conducting a market investigation?
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a general survey of market place to determine availability of potential sources
Explanation
The first step in conducting a market investigation in the Acquisition process is to conduct a general survey of the market place to determine the availability of potential sources. This step involves gathering information about the market, such as the number of suppliers, their capabilities, and the availability of the desired equipment or function. By conducting this survey, the organization can gain insights into the market dynamics and make informed decisions about potential suppliers for the acquisition process.
46.
In the acquisition process, when is the market analysis started?
Correct Answer
B. After the Concept Exploration pHase is completed
Explanation
The market analysis is started after the Concept Exploration phase is completed. This is because the Concept Exploration phase involves generating and evaluating different ideas and concepts for the acquisition. Once this phase is completed, the market analysis can begin, which involves researching and analyzing the market conditions, competitors, and customer needs to determine the feasibility and potential success of the acquisition.
47.
What is considered to be the heart of the Visual Basic language?
Correct Answer
D. Integrated development environment
Explanation
The integrated development environment (IDE) is considered to be the heart of the Visual Basic language. An IDE is a software application that provides a comprehensive set of tools for software development. In the case of Visual Basic, the IDE includes features such as a code editor, a debugger, and a graphical user interface designer. It allows developers to write, test, and debug their code in a single environment, making the development process more efficient and streamlined. The IDE is essential for creating Visual Basic applications and is therefore considered the heart of the language.
48.
What consists of Visual Basic menu bars, toolbars, and form windows?
Correct Answer
B. GrapHical user Interface
Explanation
The correct answer is Graphical user Interface. This is because the question is asking about what consists of Visual Basic menu bars, toolbars, and form windows, which are all components of a graphical user interface (GUI). The GUI allows users to interact with the software through visual elements such as menus, buttons, and windows, making it easier to navigate and use the program.
49.
What are Visual Basic forms and controls called?
Correct Answer
A. Objects
Explanation
Visual Basic forms and controls are referred to as objects. In Visual Basic, an object is a self-contained entity that encapsulates data and behavior. Forms and controls are objects because they have properties, methods, and events associated with them. They can be manipulated and interacted with programmatically to create user interfaces and perform various tasks. Therefore, the correct answer is "Objects".
50.
Which Visual basic window is used to control an objects characteristics?
Correct Answer
C. Properties
Explanation
The Properties window in Visual Basic is used to control an object's characteristics. This window allows the user to view and modify various properties of an object, such as its size, color, font, and behavior. By selecting an object and accessing its properties in the Properties window, the user can customize the appearance and functionality of the object according to their requirements.