3D151 Client Systems U.R.E. Vol 2 (Edit Code 2)
Volume 2 URE practice.
- 1.
What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?
- A.
Remedy
- B.
Remedy new
- C.
Remedy user
- D.
Remedy ticket
Correct Answer
C. Remedy userExplanation
To create a new ticket, you must use the tool called "Remedy user." This tool is specifically designed for users to create and manage tickets within the Remedy system. It provides the necessary interface and functionalities to input all the required information and details for the new ticket.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Depending on the problem type, what are the two types of forms used in Remedy?
- A.
Software or hardware
- B.
Software and equipment
- C.
Application or hardware
- D.
Application and equipment
Correct Answer
A. Software or hardwareExplanation
The correct answer is "Software or hardware." In Remedy, there are two types of forms used depending on the problem type, which can either be related to software or hardware. This suggests that Remedy is a system that deals with both software and hardware issues, and provides specific forms for each type of problem.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?
- A.
A resolution group only
- B.
A specific technician only
- C.
Remedy automatically assigns tickets
- D.
A resolution group or specific technician
Correct Answer
D. A resolution group or specific technicianExplanation
In Remedy, tickets for fixing problems can be assigned to either a resolution group or a specific technician. This means that the responsibility for resolving the issues can be distributed among a group of individuals or assigned to a single technician based on the nature of the problem and the availability of resources.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System- Supply (ES-S) replaces what system throughout the maintenance complex?
- A.
Reliability and Maintainability System (REMIS)
- B.
Telephone Management System
- C.
Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)
- D.
Remedy
Correct Answer
C. Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)Explanation
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System- Supply (ES-S) replaces the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) throughout the maintenance complex.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which is not a function of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?
- A.
Automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes
- B.
Function as a common interactive interface for other systems
- C.
Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level
- D.
Provide status and inventory data
Correct Answer
C. Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force levelExplanation
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is a system that is designed to automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes. It also functions as a common interactive interface for other systems and provides status and inventory data. However, it does not roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level. This means that it does not transfer or consolidate logistics data from lower-level units to the Air Force level.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database program that is a part of the
- A.
Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS)
- B.
Telecommunications Management System (TMS)
- C.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
- D.
Automated Information System (AIS)
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS)Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). This is because the question asks for the online database program that is a part of the given systems, and AFEMS is the only system mentioned that fits this description.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage what Air Force assets?
- A.
Weapons
- B.
Support
- C.
Telephone
- D.
Communications
Correct Answer
D. CommunicationsExplanation
AIMS is an Asset Inventory Management System used by the Air Force to track and manage various assets. The correct answer, "Communications," refers to the specific type of assets that AIMS is used to track and manage. This could include equipment, devices, and systems related to communication within the Air Force, such as radios, satellites, and network infrastructure. By using AIMS, the Air Force can effectively monitor and maintain their communication assets for optimal performance and readiness.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes what type of database and is located where?
- A.
Access database at Randolph Air Force Base (AFB)
- B.
Access database at Wright-Patterson AFB
- C.
Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB
- D.
Oracle database at Randolph AFB
Correct Answer
C. Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFBExplanation
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes an Oracle database located at Wright-Patterson AFB.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?
- A.
Defense Courier Service
- B.
Protected distribution system
- C.
Communications security equipment
- D.
Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System
Correct Answer
A. Defense Courier ServiceExplanation
The Defense Courier Service is not a means for secure telecommunications because it is a physical delivery service used for transporting classified and sensitive materials, rather than transmitting information electronically. The other options, such as the protected distribution system, communications security equipment, and intrusion detection optical communications system, are all methods that are specifically designed to ensure secure telecommunications by encrypting, protecting, and detecting any unauthorized access or interception of data during transmission.Rate this question:
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- 10.
In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?
- A.
Encrypted classified
- B.
Encrypted unclassified
- C.
Unencrypted classified
- D.
Unencrypted unclassified
Correct Answer
C. Unencrypted classifiedExplanation
In the RED/BLACK concept, RED lines carry unencrypted classified traffic. This means that the information being transmitted over the RED lines is classified but is not encrypted, making it potentially vulnerable to interception or unauthorized access.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do BLACK lines carry?
- A.
Encrypted classified or unclassified
- B.
Encrypted classified only
- C.
Unencrypted classified
- D.
Unclassified only
Correct Answer
A. Encrypted classified or unclassifiedExplanation
The BLACK lines in the RED/BLACK concept carry encrypted traffic that can be either classified or unclassified. This means that the information transmitted through these lines is protected and can include sensitive or confidential data. The encryption ensures that the data remains secure and inaccessible to unauthorized individuals.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which two parts does the RED/BLACK concept have?
- A.
Physical separation and electromagnetic separation
- B.
Electromagnetic separation and electrical separation
- C.
Physical separation and electrical separation
- D.
Physical separation and emission separation
Correct Answer
C. pHysical separation and electrical separationExplanation
The RED/BLACK concept refers to the practice of physically separating networks and using electrical separation to prevent information leakage between them. Physical separation involves physically isolating the networks from each other, while electrical separation involves using techniques such as firewalls and air gaps to prevent the transfer of electrical signals between the networks. Therefore, the correct answer is physical separation and electrical separation.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program?
- A.
Eliminate all instances of radiation of electrical impulses
- B.
Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses
- C.
Improve the signal of radiation of electrical impulses
- D.
Increase the range of radiation of electrical impulses
Correct Answer
B. Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulsesExplanation
The purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program is to reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses. TEMPEST is a set of standards and guidelines that aim to prevent the unintentional electromagnetic radiation that can be emitted from electronic devices. By implementing TEMPEST measures, the risk of sensitive information being intercepted or compromised through the unintentional electromagnetic radiation is minimized.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force called?
- A.
Communications security
- B.
Transmission security
- C.
Emission security
- D.
Computer security
Correct Answer
C. Emission securityExplanation
The Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force is called "Emission security." Emission security refers to the measures taken to protect against the unintentional release of compromising emanations from electronic equipment. These emanations can be intercepted and exploited by adversaries to gather sensitive information. The TEMPEST program focuses on ensuring that electronic equipment used by the Air Force does not emit any compromising signals that could be intercepted. Therefore, emission security is the correct term for the TEMPEST program in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What area is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control where unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?
- A.
Controlled access area (CAA)
- B.
Restricted access area (RAA)
- C.
Limited control area (LCA)
- D.
Uncontrolled access area (UAA)
Correct Answer
A. Controlled access area (CAA)Explanation
A controlled access area (CAA) is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control. This means that unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance. This ensures that only authorized individuals are allowed access to the area, enhancing security and preventing unauthorized entry. Restricted access areas (RAA), limited control areas (LCA), and uncontrolled access areas (UAA) do not necessarily have the same level of security measures in place as a controlled access area.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?
- A.
Communications security
- B.
Line route or visual
- C.
Separation
- D.
Electrical
Correct Answer
B. Line route or visualExplanation
Protected distribution systems (PDS) require scheduled inspections of the line route or visual. This means that regular inspections need to be conducted to ensure that the physical route of the distribution system is secure and free from any potential vulnerabilities or threats. This includes visually inspecting the line and its surroundings to identify any signs of tampering or damage that could compromise the security of the system. These inspections help to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the PDS in protecting sensitive information and communication.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in which log?
- A.
Emission security (EMSEC)
- B.
Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST)
- C.
Inspection
- D.
Protected Distribution Systems (PDS)
Correct Answer
D. Protected Distribution Systems (PDS)Explanation
Protected Distribution Systems (PDS) is the log in which events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other relevant information related to PDS are recorded. This log is specifically designed to keep track of all activities and occurrences within the PDS, ensuring its security and functionality. It serves as a valuable resource for monitoring and managing the PDS, allowing for timely identification and resolution of any issues or concerns that may arise.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual inspection that must include the
- A.
Total surface
- B.
Visible area
- C.
Concealed area
- D.
Observable area
Correct Answer
A. Total surfaceExplanation
The correct answer is "total surface" because a line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) requires a close visual inspection of the entire surface area of the system. This includes both the visible and concealed areas, ensuring that all parts of the system are thoroughly examined for any potential issues or damages. The observable area may not cover all parts of the system, so it is important to inspect the total surface to ensure the safety and functionality of the PDS.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What are the two different types of current used for power?
- A.
100 v (volts) and 210 v
- B.
105 v and 215 v
- C.
110 v and 220 v
- D.
115 v and 225 v
Correct Answer
C. 110 v and 220 vExplanation
The two different types of current used for power are 110 volts and 220 volts. These are standard voltages used in many countries for household electrical systems. The lower voltage of 110 volts is typically used for smaller appliances and electronics, while the higher voltage of 220 volts is used for larger appliances and equipment.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What are the two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)?
- A.
Storage batteries or a power wheel
- B.
Storage batteries or a flywheel
- C.
Batteries or a power wheel
- D.
Batteries or a flywheel
Correct Answer
D. Batteries or a flywheelExplanation
The two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) are batteries or a flywheel. Batteries are commonly used in UPS systems as they can store a large amount of energy and provide power for an extended period of time. On the other hand, a flywheel is a mechanical device that stores kinetic energy and can provide short-term backup power in case of a power outage. Both options offer reliable backup power solutions for uninterrupted operation of critical systems.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for larger loads and currents?
- A.
Storage batteries
- B.
Power wheel
- C.
Flywheel
- D.
Batteries
Correct Answer
C. FlywheelExplanation
Flywheel UPS systems are generally used for larger loads and currents. Unlike storage batteries, which store electrical energy chemically, flywheel UPS systems store energy mechanically. They use a spinning flywheel to store kinetic energy, which can be converted back to electrical energy when needed. This makes flywheel UPS systems more suitable for applications that require high power and short duration backup, such as data centers or industrial facilities.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which is not a consideration when selecting storage batteries for the central office?
- A.
The office power requirements
- B.
The amount of floor space available
- C.
Future subscriber growth and reserve time required
- D.
The number of alternating current converters in the office
Correct Answer
D. The number of alternating current converters in the officeExplanation
When selecting storage batteries for the central office, the number of alternating current converters in the office is not a consideration. The other options, such as the office power requirements, the amount of floor space available, and future subscriber growth and reserve time required, are all important factors to consider when choosing storage batteries for the central office. The number of alternating current converters does not directly impact the selection of storage batteries.Rate this question:
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- 23.
In electrical power equipment, the generator can be two types, reciprocating or
- A.
Turbine batteries
- B.
A turbine engine
- C.
An engine
- D.
Batteries
Correct Answer
B. A turbine engineExplanation
The correct answer is a turbine engine. In electrical power equipment, generators can be either reciprocating or turbine engines. Reciprocating engines use pistons to convert the energy of the fuel into mechanical energy, which is then converted into electrical energy. On the other hand, turbine engines use a turbine to convert the energy of a fluid (such as steam, gas, or water) into mechanical energy, which is then converted into electrical energy. Therefore, a turbine engine is a valid type of generator in electrical power equipment.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?
- A.
Diesel
- B.
Gasoline
- C.
Fossil fuel
- D.
Liquid petroleum
Correct Answer
C. Fossil fuelExplanation
Fossil fuel is not used for reciprocating generators. Reciprocating generators typically use diesel or gasoline as fuel sources. Fossil fuel is a general term that includes coal, oil, and natural gas, which are not typically used directly as fuel for reciprocating generators. Liquid petroleum is a type of fossil fuel, so it is also not used for reciprocating generators.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Who becomes responsible for life-cycle maintenance once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete?
- A.
Production work center or communication squadron
- B.
Production work center or contractor
- C.
Communications squadron
- D.
Production work center
Correct Answer
B. Production work center or contractorExplanation
Once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete, the responsibility for life-cycle maintenance falls on the production work center or the contractor. This means that either the production work center, which is responsible for the production and maintenance of the equipment, or the contractor, who may have been hired to handle the maintenance, will be accountable for ensuring the equipment's ongoing maintenance and upkeep.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The approval or disapproval of all approved changes in the configuration is known as
- A.
Configuration
- B.
Configuration item
- C.
Configuration control
- D.
Configuration identification
Correct Answer
C. Configuration controlExplanation
Configuration control refers to the process of reviewing, approving, and managing all approved changes in the configuration. It ensures that any changes made to the configuration are properly assessed, authorized, and implemented. This helps in maintaining the integrity and consistency of the configuration, as well as ensuring that all changes align with the defined standards and requirements.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which one of these requires the use of the latest technical order (TO) information listed?
- A.
Configuration
- B.
Configuration item
- C.
Configuration control
- D.
Configuration identification
Correct Answer
B. Configuration itemExplanation
A configuration item refers to any component or element of a system that is identified and managed as a single entity. In order to effectively manage and maintain configuration items, it is necessary to have access to the latest technical order (TO) information. This information includes instructions, specifications, and guidelines for the configuration item. By using the latest TO information, organizations can ensure that they are following the most up-to-date procedures and requirements for managing and maintaining the configuration item. Therefore, the use of the latest TO information is essential for effectively managing configuration items.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of these statements pertains to configuration management?
- A.
Identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a CI
- B.
Record and report change processing and implementation status
- C.
Control changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the above statements pertain to configuration management. Configuration management involves identifying and documenting the functional and physical characteristics of a Configuration Item (CI), recording and reporting change processing and implementation status, as well as controlling changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI. These activities are essential in ensuring that the configuration of a system or product is properly managed and maintained throughout its lifecycle.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6)?
- A.
T–586 and T–586A
- B.
T–586A and T–586B
- C.
T–568 and T–568A
- D.
T–568A and T–568B
Correct Answer
D. T–568A and T–568BExplanation
The correct answer is T–568A and T–568B. These two standards refer to the wiring schemes used for terminating Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6) cables. T–568A and T–568B specify the arrangement of the individual wire pairs within the cable and determine the pin assignments for the connectors. These standards ensure that the cables are properly terminated and allow for consistent and reliable network connections.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Permanent markings can be completed by how many different methods?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
Permanent markings can be completed by two different methods. The question is asking how many different methods can be used to create permanent markings. The correct answer is 2, suggesting that there are two distinct ways to create permanent markings.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts?
- A.
Air Force Systems Security Instruction ( AFSSI) 8502, Organizational Computer Security
- B.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management
- C.
AFI 33–201, Communications Security (COMSEC)
- D.
AFSSI 7700, Emission Security
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program ManagementExplanation
The correct answer is Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management. This publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that can receive as or send as for the account?
- A.
Intercluster Lookup Service (ILS) settings
- B.
Mailbox rights
- C.
Mailbox security
- D.
Custom attributes
Correct Answer
C. Mailbox securityExplanation
Mailbox security is the correct answer because it is the tab used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that can receive as or send as for the account. This tab allows administrators to manage the security settings for a mailbox, including granting or revoking permissions for other users to access or send emails on behalf of the mailbox owner. By modifying the mailbox security settings, administrators can control and manage the user accounts that have these specific permissions for the mailbox.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account?
- A.
Intercluster Lookup Service (ILS) settings
- B.
Mailbox rights
- C.
Mailbox security
- D.
Custom attributes
Correct Answer
B. Mailbox rightsExplanation
Mailbox rights is the correct answer because it refers to the exchange tab that is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account. By accessing the mailbox rights tab, administrators can manage and control the level of access that different users have to a specific mailbox, allowing them to grant or revoke permissions as needed. This tab is essential for maintaining the security and privacy of mailbox data, as well as ensuring that the appropriate individuals have the necessary access privileges.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which is not a reason why extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account?
- A.
The user’s e-mail will be deleted from the Exchange server
- B.
Restoring deleted e-mail requires proper justification
- C.
The wrong account could be deleted
- D.
Restoring deleted e-mail is difficult
Correct Answer
C. The wrong account could be deletedExplanation
Extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account because the wrong account could be deleted. This means that if the person deleting the account is not careful, they might accidentally delete the wrong account, resulting in the loss of important emails and data. This emphasizes the need for caution and double-checking before deleting an account to prevent any irreversible mistakes.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the user’s domain account is deleted?
- A.
Changed
- B.
Deleted
- C.
Updated
- D.
Reviewed
Correct Answer
B. DeletedExplanation
When a user's domain account is deleted, their e-mail account is also deleted. This means that all the data and settings associated with the e-mail account, such as emails, contacts, and preferences, are permanently removed and cannot be accessed anymore. Deleting the domain account essentially terminates the user's access to the e-mail account as well.Rate this question:
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- 36.
How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and resource administrator (DRA)?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
In directory and resource administrator (DRA), only one object can be manipulated at a time. This means that users can perform actions on a single object, such as modifying its properties or permissions, at any given time. The system does not allow simultaneous manipulation of multiple objects in DRA.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?
- A.
The analog signal
- B.
The digital signal
- C.
The multiplexed signal
- D.
The sender’s private key
Correct Answer
B. The digital signalExplanation
When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), the digital signal is encrypted. This means that the information transmitted through the STE is encoded in a way that makes it unreadable to anyone who does not have the proper decryption key. Encrypting the digital signal ensures that sensitive information remains secure and protected from unauthorized access or interception.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What components are used in both encryption and decryption?
- A.
Algorithm and key
- B.
Certificate and key
- C.
Telephone and receiver
- D.
Algorithm and certificate
Correct Answer
A. Algorithm and keyExplanation
In both encryption and decryption processes, two main components are used: algorithm and key. The algorithm is a set of rules and procedures that determine how the encryption or decryption is performed. The key is a specific value or piece of information that is used in conjunction with the algorithm to transform the data. The algorithm provides the instructions, while the key provides the necessary information to carry out the encryption or decryption. Both components are essential for secure and effective encryption and decryption processes.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What are the two basic types of computer cryptology?
- A.
Symmetric-public key system and asymmetric-secret key system
- B.
Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-secret key system
- C.
Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system
- D.
Symmetric-public key system and asymmetric-public key system
Correct Answer
C. Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key systemExplanation
The two basic types of computer cryptology are symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system. In a symmetric-secret key system, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption. This means that both the sender and the receiver need to have the same key in order to communicate securely. In an asymmetric-public key system, there are two different keys: a public key and a private key. The public key is used for encryption, while the private key is used for decryption. This allows for secure communication without the need for both parties to have the same key.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?
- A.
Speed
- B.
Storage
- C.
Security
- D.
Standards
Correct Answer
A. SpeedExplanation
Symmetric cryptology offers the advantage of speed. This means that the encryption and decryption processes using symmetric algorithms are faster compared to asymmetric algorithms. In symmetric cryptology, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, which eliminates the need for complex mathematical operations involved in asymmetric encryption. As a result, symmetric cryptology is ideal for applications that require quick and efficient encryption and decryption, such as secure communication and data transfer.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?
- A.
Symmetric
- B.
Asymmetric
- C.
Diametric
- D.
None of the above, they are all the same
Correct Answer
B. AsymmetricExplanation
Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology system. This is because asymmetric encryption involves the use of two different keys, a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. The process of generating and managing these keys requires more computational resources and time compared to symmetric encryption, where the same key is used for both encryption and decryption.Rate this question:
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- 42.
In secure socket layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, what does the Web server give to the browser?
- A.
Its public key
- B.
Its private key
- C.
Its public certificate
- D.
Its private certificate
Correct Answer
A. Its public keyExplanation
In secure socket layer (SSL), the Web server gives the browser its public key before an encrypted transaction takes place. This public key is used by the browser to encrypt data that will be sent to the server. The server will then use its corresponding private key to decrypt the data. The public key is shared openly, while the private key is kept secure and not shared with anyone. This ensures that the data transmitted between the server and the browser remains confidential and secure.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time?
- A.
Stream algorithms and block ciphers
- B.
Secure algorithms and block ciphers
- C.
Block algorithms and stream ciphers
- D.
Block algorithms and secure ciphers
Correct Answer
C. Block algorithms and stream cipHersExplanation
Block algorithms and stream ciphers are the two major types of encryption algorithms that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time. Block algorithms divide the data into fixed-size blocks and process each block separately, while stream ciphers encrypt or decrypt the data one bit or byte at a time. These two types of algorithms provide different levels of security and are suitable for different applications.Rate this question:
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- 44.
How many bits for its key does data encryption standard (DES) use?
- A.
64
- B.
128
- C.
192
- D.
256
Correct Answer
A. 64Explanation
Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses 64 bits for its key. DES is a symmetric encryption algorithm that was widely used in the past for securing sensitive data. The 64-bit key size refers to the length of the secret key used in the encryption and decryption process. The use of a 64-bit key provides a total of 2^64 possible key combinations, which was considered secure at the time of its development. However, due to advances in computing power and security vulnerabilities, DES is now considered relatively weak and has been replaced by more robust encryption algorithms with larger key sizes.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Triple data encryption standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption. Each operation uses a different key, resulting in a total of three individual keys being used in Triple DES. This provides a higher level of security compared to regular DES, as it requires an attacker to break through three layers of encryption.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?
- A.
Narrowband
- B.
Network
- C.
Bulk
- D.
Open
Correct Answer
D. OpenExplanation
The encryption type "Open" is not a telecommunications encryption type. This is because "Open" refers to a lack of encryption, indicating that the data is transmitted without any form of encryption. In contrast, "Narrowband," "Network," and "Bulk" are all encryption types commonly used in telecommunications to secure data transmission.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which encryption handles data that can come from equipment such as computers?
- A.
Wideband
- B.
Narrowband
- C.
Network
- D.
Bulk
Correct Answer
A. WidebandExplanation
Wideband encryption is the correct answer because it is designed to handle data that can come from equipment such as computers. Wideband encryption is capable of encrypting and decrypting large amounts of data at high speeds, making it suitable for handling data from computer systems and other equipment that generate large volumes of data. Narrowband encryption, on the other hand, is designed for low-speed data transmission, while network and bulk encryption are more general terms that do not specifically refer to encryption methods suitable for handling data from computers.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which encryption handles multiplexed lines that come from combining multiple single data and voice lines into one?
- A.
Bulk
- B.
Network
- C.
Wideband
- D.
Narrowband
Correct Answer
A. BulkExplanation
Bulk encryption is the correct answer because it refers to the encryption technique that is used to handle multiplexed lines. When multiple single data and voice lines are combined into one, bulk encryption ensures that the combined line is encrypted to maintain the security and confidentiality of the transmitted information. This encryption method is specifically designed to handle the encryption needs of combined or multiplexed lines.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which encryption handles software encryption?
- A.
Narrowband
- B.
Wideband
- C.
Network
- D.
Bulk
Correct Answer
C. NetworkExplanation
Network encryption refers to the encryption of data at the network level, which ensures that data is secure during transmission over a network. This type of encryption is typically implemented in software and is used to protect sensitive information from being intercepted or accessed by unauthorized individuals. Therefore, the correct answer is Network.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Communications security (COMSEC) is defined as the measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information and to ensure
- A.
Authenticity
- B.
Compliance
- C.
Integrity
- D.
Validity
Correct Answer
A. AuthenticityExplanation
Communications security (COMSEC) refers to the protective measures and protocols implemented to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing information and to guarantee the genuineness of the communicated data. It involves safeguarding the authenticity of the information, ensuring that it has not been tampered with or altered in any way during transmission. This is crucial to maintain the trustworthiness and reliability of the communication process, as any unauthorized modifications could lead to misinformation or unauthorized access to sensitive data.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 24, 2019Quiz Created by
Dmkogot
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