3D152 Ure Volume 2

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  • 1/124 Questions

    (206) Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses are represented by

    • 8 groups of dotted decimal numbers.
    • 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers.
    • 4 dotted decimal numbers.
    • 128 decimal numbers.
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '3D152 URE Volume 2', tests knowledge on OSI layers, video compression standards, and data communication protocols. It's designed for learners in the Air Force communications sector, focusing on essential IT and networking skills.

Communication Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    (210) Which topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?

    • Bus.

    • Ring.

    • Star.

    • Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ring.
    Explanation
    The stations connected in the form of a circle refers to a ring topology. In a ring topology, each station is connected to two neighboring stations, forming a closed loop. Data is transmitted in one direction around the ring, with each station receiving and forwarding the data until it reaches its destination. This topology is commonly used in token ring networks, where a token is passed around the ring to control access to the network.

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  • 3. 

    (210) Which topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

    • Bus.

    • Ring.

    • Star.

    • Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hybrid.
    Explanation
    A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This means that the network can have elements of different topologies such as bus, ring, and star. The hybrid topology allows for flexibility and scalability as it can adapt to different network requirements. It combines the advantages of multiple topologies while minimizing their limitations, making it a versatile choice for complex networks.

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  • 4. 

    (211) What allows transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?

    • VLAN trunks.

    • VLAN frames.

    • VLAN links.

    • VLAN ports.

    Correct Answer
    A. VLAN trunks.
    Explanation
    VLAN trunks allow for the transportation of all active VLANs between switches using a single physical link. A VLAN trunk is a network link that can carry multiple VLANs simultaneously, allowing for efficient and flexible network design. By using VLAN trunks, multiple VLANs can be transmitted over a single physical connection, eliminating the need for separate links for each VLAN. This enables the consolidation of network traffic and simplifies network management.

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  • 5. 

    (239) The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,

    • Circumvention, and confidentiality.

    • Circumvention, and disclosure.

    • Confidentiality, and integrity.

    • Disclosure, and integrity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Confidentiality, and integrity.
    Explanation
    The three cornerstones of voice network system security are confidentiality and integrity. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals can access and view sensitive information, preventing unauthorized disclosure. Integrity ensures that the data and information within the system remains accurate, complete, and unaltered, protecting against unauthorized modifications or tampering. Availability and circumvention are not mentioned as cornerstones of voice network system security in this context.

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  • 6. 

    (240) What should security policies encompass to help mitigate the threat of convergence?

    • Data networks only.

    • Voice networks only.

    • Both voice and data networks.

    • Neither voice and data networks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both voice and data networks.
    Explanation
    Security policies should encompass both voice and data networks to help mitigate the threat of convergence. Convergence refers to the integration of voice and data networks, which can introduce new vulnerabilities and risks. By including both voice and data networks in security policies, organizations can ensure that comprehensive measures are in place to protect against potential threats and attacks. This approach acknowledges the interconnected nature of these networks and the need for a holistic approach to security.

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  • 7. 

    (249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what is the main purpose of a boundary fence?

    • Facilitate the detection of intruders.

    • Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone.

    • Provide security forces personnel a safe place to work.

    • To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.

    Correct Answer
    A. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
    Explanation
    The main purpose of a boundary fence in an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is to present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry. The fence acts as a barrier that makes it difficult for intruders to enter the protected area, thereby discouraging unauthorized access. Additionally, the presence of a boundary fence can create a psychological deterrent by signaling that the area is protected and increasing the perception of risk for potential intruders. This helps to enhance the overall security of the IDS by reducing the likelihood of unauthorized entry.

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  • 8. 

    (201) Which of the following is an example of a video compression standard?

    • Motion Picture Experts Group-4 (MPEG-4).

    • Joint Photographic Expert Group (JPEG).

    • File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

    • G.711.

    Correct Answer
    A. Motion Picture Experts Group-4 (MPEG-4).
    Explanation
    MPEG-4 is a video compression standard developed by the Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG). It is widely used for compressing and transmitting video files over the internet. JPEG, on the other hand, is a standard for compressing still images, not videos. FTP is a protocol used for transferring files, not for video compression. G.711 is a standard for compressing audio, not video. Therefore, the correct answer is Motion Picture Experts Group-4 (MPEG-4).

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  • 9. 

    (203) Which data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?

    • Character-oriented.

    • Bit-oriented.

    • Network.

    • Routing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bit-oriented.
    Explanation
    Bit-oriented data communication protocol is based on the individual bits and their positions within a data stream. This protocol focuses on the manipulation and interpretation of the bits themselves, rather than treating them as part of larger characters or data units. It is commonly used in applications where precise control and synchronization of individual bits are required, such as in telecommunication systems or error detection and correction algorithms.

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  • 10. 

    (204) Which Application layer protocol is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?

    • Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).

    • Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).

    • Network Time Protocol (NTP).

    • Packet Internet Groper (PING).

    Correct Answer
    A. Network Time Protocol (NTP).
    Explanation
    Network Time Protocol (NTP) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network. NTP allows computers to accurately maintain time by synchronizing with a reference time source, such as an atomic clock or a time server. It ensures that all devices on the network have consistent and accurate time, which is crucial for various network operations, including authentication, logging, and coordination of distributed systems. SNMP, DHCP, and PING are not used for clock synchronization purposes.

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  • 11. 

    (208) Which router port is used for initial configuration?

    • Auxiliary.

    • Console.

    • Ethernet.

    • Telnet.

    Correct Answer
    A. Console.
    Explanation
    The console port is used for the initial configuration of a router. This port allows direct access to the router's command-line interface (CLI) through a console cable. By connecting a computer to the console port using a console cable, network administrators can configure the router using terminal emulation software. This port is typically used for initial setup, troubleshooting, and password recovery purposes. The auxiliary port, on the other hand, is used for remote access to the router. Ethernet and Telnet are not used for the initial configuration process.

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  • 12. 

    (211) Which device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?

    • Switch.

    • Firewall.

    • Gateway.

    • Repeater.

    Correct Answer
    A. Switch.
    Explanation
    A switch is a device that subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces or segments. It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model and is responsible for forwarding data packets between devices within a local area network (LAN). A switch learns the MAC addresses of connected devices and uses this information to efficiently transmit data to the appropriate destination. By dividing a network into segments, a switch improves network performance, reduces collisions, and increases overall network efficiency.

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  • 13. 

    (212) What identifier differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from anther?

    • Host name.

    • Network name.

    • Service Set Identifier (SSID).

    • Virtual LAN Identifier (VLAN ID).

    Correct Answer
    A. Service Set Identifier (SSID).
    Explanation
    The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the correct answer because it is a unique identifier that differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another. It is a case-sensitive alphanumeric string that is assigned to a WLAN and is used by wireless devices to connect to a specific network. The SSID allows devices to identify and connect to the correct network among multiple available networks in the vicinity.

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  • 14. 

    (218) Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?

    • The information is transmitted in three different voltage levels.

    • A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative.

    • The level always returns to zero for 50 percent of the bit cycle after every transition.

    • Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.
    Explanation
    A B8ZS signal is a type of line encoding used in telecommunications. It is designed to break up long strings of zeros in the data signal by intentionally inserting bipolar violations. This helps to ensure that the receiver can accurately detect the boundaries between bits and maintain synchronization. The other statements in the question do not accurately describe the characteristics of a B8ZS signal.

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  • 15. 

    (229) Which agency is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video and/or data services on DOD networks?

    • Commercial providers.

    • National Security Agency (NSA).

    • Air Force Space Command (AFPC).

    • Defense information System Agency (DISA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense information System Agency (DISA).
    Explanation
    The Defense Information System Agency (DISA) is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video, and/or data services on DOD networks. DISA is responsible for providing secure and reliable communication and information technology services to the Department of Defense. They work with commercial providers to ensure that DOD networks have the necessary connectivity for their communication needs. The National Security Agency (NSA) is primarily responsible for intelligence and cybersecurity, while the Air Force Space Command (AFPC) focuses on space operations. Therefore, DISA is the most appropriate choice for this role.

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  • 16. 

    (240) What are attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user?

    • Toll fraud.

    • War dialing.

    • Masquerades.

    • Denial of service.

    Correct Answer
    A. Masquerades.
    Explanation
    Masquerades refer to attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user. This involves impersonating someone with legitimate access privileges in order to bypass security measures and gain unauthorized entry. It is a form of social engineering where the attacker disguises their identity to deceive the system and gain unauthorized access.

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  • 17. 

    (251) Which interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?

    • Ultrasonic.

    • Microwave.

    • Passive infrared.

    • Dual-phenomenology.

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive infrared.
    Explanation
    Passive infrared sensors use heat radiation to detect intruders. These sensors detect the infrared energy emitted by living beings and objects in their surroundings. When an intruder enters the range of the sensor, the heat radiation emitted by their body triggers the sensor, alerting the system of the intrusion. Ultrasonic sensors use sound waves, microwave sensors use microwave radiation, and dual-phenomenology sensors combine multiple detection methods, but neither of them specifically use heat radiation to detect intruders.

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  • 18. 

    (204) Which network layer protocol matches a known Internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?

    • IP.

    • Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

    • Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).

    • Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
    Explanation
    The network layer protocol that matches a known IP address to a MAC address is the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). ARP is responsible for mapping an IP address to its corresponding MAC address in order to establish communication between devices on a local network.

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  • 19. 

    (204) Which Transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

    • Internet Protocol (IP).

    • User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

    • Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

    • Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).
    Explanation
    Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) provides reliable data delivery services. Unlike User Datagram Protocol (UDP), TCP ensures that data is delivered in the correct order and without errors. TCP uses acknowledgments and retransmissions to guarantee that all data packets are successfully received by the recipient. This makes TCP suitable for applications that require accurate and complete data transmission, such as file transfer and web browsing. Internet Protocol (IP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) do not provide the same level of reliability as TCP.

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  • 20. 

    (209) Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

    • Department of Defense Network.

    • Air Force Network.

    • Local Area Network.

    • A Public Network.

    Correct Answer
    A. A Public Network.
    Explanation
    Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. This means that the AF can securely access and utilize network resources from remote locations using the internet or any other public network. VPNs provide a secure connection by encrypting the data transmitted over the public network, ensuring confidentiality and integrity of the information being transmitted. This allows the AF to connect to and utilize resources on a public network as if they were directly connected to it, without compromising security.

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  • 21. 

    (210) Which topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network?

    • Physical.

    • Logical.

    • Hybrid.

    • Star.

    Correct Answer
    A. Logical.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is logical because logical topology refers to the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network, regardless of the physical layout or connections. It defines how devices are logically connected and how data flows between them, such as through a bus, ring, or mesh network. Physical topology, on the other hand, refers to the physical layout and connections of devices in the network, such as star, bus, or ring. Hybrid topology is a combination of different physical topologies, while star topology is a specific type of physical topology where all devices are connected to a central hub.

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  • 22. 

    (211) The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its

    • Lag.

    • Hop.

    • Latency.

    • Time zone.

    Correct Answer
    A. Latency.
    Explanation
    Latency refers to the time it takes for a switch to determine the appropriate destination for a data unit. It is the delay caused by processing and forwarding the data. The other options, such as lag, hop, and time zone, are not relevant to the process of forwarding data in a switch.

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  • 23. 

    (213) A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized

    • Alphabetically.

    • Hierarchically.

    • Numerically.

    • Objectively.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hierarchically.
    Explanation
    A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized hierarchically. This means that the information is structured in a hierarchical manner, with parent-child relationships between different levels of information. This organization allows for easier management and navigation of the information within the MIB, as it provides a clear structure and allows for efficient retrieval of specific data.

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  • 24. 

    (215) What is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed? 

    • Baud rate.

    • Interface speed.

    • Bits per second.

    • Baud per second.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bits per second.
    Explanation
    In data systems, the most commonly used term to express signaling speed is "bits per second." This refers to the number of bits that can be transmitted or processed in one second. Baud rate, interface speed, and baud per second are not as commonly used terminologies in this context.

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  • 25. 

    (217) In what type of digital signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?

    • Non-return-to-zero (NRZ) level.

    • NRZ mark.

    • NRZ space.

    • Return-to-zero

    Correct Answer
    A. Return-to-zero
    Explanation
    Return-to-zero is a type of digital signal where the signal level moves to one of the discrete signal levels and then returns to the zero level after a predetermined time. This means that the signal alternates between positive and negative levels, with a period of zero in between each level change. Unlike non-return-to-zero (NRZ) signals, which maintain a constant level until the next signal change, return-to-zero signals have a built-in mechanism to ensure that the signal returns to the zero level, providing synchronization and preventing signal distortion.

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  • 26. 

    (202) In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?

    • Layer above.

    • Layer below.

    • Lowest layer.

    • Peer layer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lowest layer.
    Explanation
    In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, each layer communicates with the layer directly above and below it, as well as with its peer layer in another system. The lowest layer, also known as the physical layer, is responsible for the actual transmission of data over the physical medium, such as cables or wireless signals. It does not communicate with any other layers below it since it is the lowest layer in the hierarchy.

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  • 27. 

    (203) In binary-synchronous protocol, which characters establishes and maintains character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?

    • SEQ.

    • SYN.

    • STX.

    • EST.

    Correct Answer
    A. SYN.
    Explanation
    In binary-synchronous protocol, the character "SYN" is used to establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission. This character is responsible for ensuring that both the sender and receiver are in sync and ready to transmit and receive data. It helps to prevent any data corruption or loss during the transmission process.

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  • 28. 

    (215) Individual pulses within a digital signal are

    • Bits.

    • Bytes.

    • Codes.

    • Blocks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bits.
    Explanation
    Individual pulses within a digital signal are referred to as bits. In digital communication, information is represented using binary digits or bits, which can have a value of either 0 or 1. These bits are transmitted as pulses, where each pulse represents a single bit of data. Therefore, the correct answer is bits.

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  • 29. 

    (217) How many voltage levels does a binary signal have?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.
    Explanation
    A binary signal has two voltage levels, typically represented as 0 and 1. These voltage levels correspond to the two possible states of a binary signal, indicating either the absence or presence of a signal. This is the fundamental characteristic of a binary signal, allowing for the representation and transmission of digital information.

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  • 30. 

    (222) The signal components that occur as bands above and below a carrier are called

    • Sidebands.

    • Sine waves.

    • Frequency translators.

    • Modulating frequencies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sidebands.
    Explanation
    When a carrier signal is modulated, it results in the creation of additional signal components called sidebands. These sidebands occur above and below the carrier frequency and carry the modulating information. They are responsible for encoding the variations in the amplitude, frequency, or phase of the carrier signal. Therefore, the correct answer is sidebands.

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  • 31. 

    (242) The primary reason you should measure the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is to

    • Verify the circuit is not in use.

    • Prevent interruptions to critical circuits.

    • Ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.

    • Avoid activating alarm circuits on the voice network system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
    Explanation
    The primary reason for measuring the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is to ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line. This is important for safety reasons as working with live circuits can be hazardous. By measuring the voltage, one can determine if there are any dangerous levels present and take appropriate precautions before proceeding with the replacement.

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  • 32. 

    (249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what must a line of detection detect?

    • Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection.

    • Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping outside the line of detection.

    • Potential for intruder to bypass the system.

    • Possibility of equipment failures.

    Correct Answer
    A. Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection." In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), the line of detection refers to the boundary or area that the system is monitoring. The purpose of the IDS is to detect any unauthorized or suspicious activities within this line of detection. Therefore, the line of detection must be able to detect various types of movement such as walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping, indicating potential intruders trying to breach the system.

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  • 33. 

    (252) What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?

    • None.

    • Tamper.

    • Intruder.

    • Equipment fault.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tamper.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Tamper." In a vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS), if the sensor post cover is removed, it indicates tampering. This alarm is triggered to alert that someone has tampered with the sensor, potentially compromising its functionality or security.

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  • 34. 

    (204) Which Network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?

    • Internet Protocol (IP).

    • Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

    • Reserve Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).

    • Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
    Explanation
    ICMP is a network layer protocol that provides messaging capabilities to help with troubleshooting. It is used by network devices to send error messages and operational information, allowing network administrators to identify and diagnose network problems. ICMP messages include error reporting, echo requests, and echo replies, which can be used to test connectivity and measure network performance. Therefore, ICMP is the correct answer as it assists in troubleshooting network issues.

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  • 35. 

    (205) Which network Class has the most addresses for hosts?

    • A.

    • B.

    • C.

    • D.

    Correct Answer
    A. A.
    Explanation
    Network Class A has the most addresses for hosts because it uses a 32-bit address space, allowing for a maximum of 2^24 (16,777,216) host addresses. This class is typically assigned to large organizations and internet service providers, which require a large number of host addresses. Network Class B and C have progressively smaller address spaces, with Class B allowing for a maximum of 2^16 (65,536) host addresses and Class C allowing for a maximum of 2^8 (256) host addresses.

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  • 36. 

    (207) Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

    • Bridge.

    • Router.

    • Gateway.

    • Repeater.

    Correct Answer
    A. Router.
    Explanation
    A router is a device that has multiport connectivity and is responsible for directing data between nodes on a network. It determines the most efficient path for data packets to travel and forwards them accordingly. Unlike a bridge, which connects two separate networks, a router can connect multiple networks together. A gateway, on the other hand, is a device that connects a network to another network using different protocols. A repeater is a device that amplifies or regenerates signals to extend the reach of a network.

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  • 37. 

    (214) Which physical security action can you take to ensure network equipment supports the widest range of security services?

    • Configure the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible.

    • Configure the equipment to use a line console password.

    • Power cycle the equipment at the end of the duty day.

    • Configure the equipment using setup mode.

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible.
    Explanation
    By configuring the network equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible, it can support a wider range of security services. Memory plays a crucial role in the performance and functionality of network equipment. With more memory, the equipment can handle and store more data, allowing it to support various security services effectively. This includes features like encryption, firewall, intrusion detection systems, and other security measures that require additional memory resources. Therefore, by maximizing the equipment's memory capacity, it can provide a stronger and more comprehensive security infrastructure for the network.

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  • 38. 

    (250) The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a

    • Gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment and vehicle entrapment area.

    • Security forces entry gate, inspection equipment, backup generator and gatehouse.

    • Location for security personnel to perform shift change and receive their weapon.

    • Gatehouse, vehicle parking area and personnel entry gate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment and vehicle entrapment area.
    Explanation
    The basic configuration of an entry control facility includes a gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and a vehicle entrapment area. This setup ensures that there is a designated area for security personnel to monitor and control access to the facility. The gatehouse serves as a central point for security operations, while the personnel entry gate allows authorized individuals to enter. The inspection equipment is used to screen individuals and their belongings for any prohibited items. Lastly, the vehicle entrapment area provides a secure space for vehicles to be inspected before entering the facility.

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  • 39. 

    (213) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems and help plan for

    • Future growth.

    • Network security.

    • Remote monitoring.

    • Network contingencies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Future growth.
    Explanation
    SNMP is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for future growth. It allows administrators to monitor and gather information about network devices and their performance, which can be used to identify potential bottlenecks or areas that need improvement. By analyzing this data, administrators can make informed decisions about network upgrades or expansions to accommodate future growth and ensure the network remains efficient and reliable.

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  • 40. 

    (207) Which routing protocol do internet backbones use?

    • Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).

    • Open Shortest Path First (OSPF).

    • Routing Information Protocol (RIP).

    • Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).
    Explanation
    Internet backbones use Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) as the routing protocol. BGP is designed to exchange routing and reachability information between different autonomous systems (AS) on the internet. It allows internet service providers (ISPs) to determine the most efficient paths for data traffic and enables the exchange of routing information between different networks. BGP is widely used in large-scale networks and is known for its scalability and ability to handle complex routing policies.

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  • 41. 

    (229) What web application is used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information System Agency (DISA)?

    • DISA Direct Order Entry (DDOE).

    • Facility Circuit Information Tracking (FaCIT).

    • Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).

    • Telecommunication Certifications Office Support System (TCOSS).

    Correct Answer
    A. DISA Direct Order Entry (DDOE).
    Explanation
    DISA Direct Order Entry (DDOE) is the correct answer because it is the web application used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information System Agency (DISA). The other options, FaCIT, CIPS, and TCOSS, are not mentioned as the web applications used for this purpose.

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  • 42. 

    (230) If the circuit files are lost or destroyed, what document are Technical Control Facilities required to obtain?

    • The latest telecommunication service order (TSO) that reflects the current end-to-end circuit configuration.

    • The original TSO and the original circuit test data.

    • The latest TSO and the latest circuit test data.

    • The original TSO that established the circuit.

    Correct Answer
    A. The latest telecommunication service order (TSO) that reflects the current end-to-end circuit configuration.
    Explanation
    Technical Control Facilities are required to obtain the latest telecommunication service order (TSO) that reflects the current end-to-end circuit configuration if the circuit files are lost or destroyed. This document will provide the necessary information about the circuit configuration and help in restoring the circuit to its previous state. The original TSO and the original circuit test data may not be sufficient as they might not reflect any changes or updates made after their creation. The latest TSO and the latest circuit test data ensure that the circuit is restored accurately.

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  • 43. 

    (232) Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds on what basis?

    • Daily.

    • Weekly.

    • Monthly.

    • Annual.

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly.
    Explanation
    Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds on a monthly basis. This means that the program analyzes data and tracks trends over a period of one month to determine if circuits are meeting the required thresholds set by management. It is not done on a daily, weekly, or annual basis, but specifically on a monthly basis.

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  • 44. 

    (236) Who determines if Preventative Maintenance Inspection (PMI) are accomplished when commercial manuals or publications are not available?

    • Flight commander.

    • Manufacturer.

    • Technician.

    • NCOIC.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight commander.
    Explanation
    The flight commander is responsible for determining if Preventative Maintenance Inspections (PMI) are accomplished when commercial manuals or publications are not available. This is because the flight commander has the authority and knowledge to make decisions regarding maintenance procedures and inspections in the absence of specific guidelines from manuals or publications. They are responsible for ensuring the overall maintenance and safety of the aircraft, and therefore have the authority to determine if PMIs should be carried out in such situations.

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  • 45. 

    (208) When configuring a router, you control access to privileged EXEC mode by configuring which password?

    • Line console.

    • Line vty.

    • Enable.

    • Secret.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enable.
    Explanation
    When configuring a router, the access to privileged EXEC mode is controlled by configuring the "enable" password. This password is used to authenticate users and grant them access to the privileged EXEC mode, which allows them to make configuration changes and access sensitive information on the router. The "line console" and "line vty" passwords are used to control access to the console and virtual terminal lines respectively, while the "secret" password is used to encrypt the enable password.

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  • 46. 

    How many broadcast domains forms a Virtual LAN (VLAN)?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
    Explanation
    A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logical division of a network into separate broadcast domains. By creating VLANs, network administrators can segment a network into smaller, isolated groups, allowing for better control and management of network traffic. Each VLAN forms its own broadcast domain, meaning that broadcast traffic is isolated within each VLAN and does not propagate to other VLANs. Therefore, only one broadcast domain is formed by a single VLAN.

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  • 47. 

    (211) Which of the following will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems?

    • Disable all the interfaces after creating the EtherChannel.

    • Configure all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode.

    • Configure all interfaces for the same parameters as the last port configured.

    • Assign all interfaces in the EtherChannel to a different Virtual LAN (VLAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode.
    Explanation
    Configuring all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems. This ensures that all interfaces in the EtherChannel have consistent settings, preventing any mismatch or compatibility issues. By having the same speed and duplex mode, the interfaces can communicate effectively and efficiently, reducing the chances of errors or performance degradation. This configuration also simplifies troubleshooting as any issues related to speed or duplex mismatch can be eliminated.

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  • 48. 

    (212) Which wireless design phase accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users and security and integrity requirements of the network data?

    • Planning.

    • Securing.

    • Deployment.

    • Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning.
    Explanation
    The wireless design phase that accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users, and security and integrity requirements of the network data is planning. During the planning phase, the network designers analyze the requirements and constraints of the wireless network, including the number of users, their training needs, and the security measures needed to protect the network data. This phase helps in creating a solid foundation for the wireless network design and ensures that it meets the specific needs of the users and the organization.

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  • 49. 

    (214) In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling which port?

    • Console.

    • Auxiliary.

    • Interface.

    • Virtual terminal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Auxiliary.
    Explanation
    Denying direct dial-in access to a network device can be achieved by disabling the auxiliary port. The auxiliary port is typically used for out-of-band management, allowing remote access to the device. By disabling this port, unauthorized users cannot directly dial into the network device, enhancing security. The console port is used for local management, the interface ports are used for network connectivity, and virtual terminal ports are used for remote access via telnet or SSH.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 18, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Marcus Zhou
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