3d154 Vol 1 & 2

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  • 1/133 Questions

    What is the most important criteria when selecting an antenna?

    • Size
    • Gain
    • Reciprocity.
    • Its intended use.
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '3D154 Vol 1 & 2', assesses knowledge crucial for career progression in the Air Force, focusing on training plans, career field classifications, and technical skills in communications. It is essential for those involved in or aspiring to join specific Air Force career fields.

Career Development Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    On an installation who is responsible for reporting electromagnetic interference?

    • The using activity

    • The radio technician

    • Installation spectrum manager

    • Communications squadron officer

    Correct Answer
    A. The using activity
    Explanation
    The using activity is responsible for reporting electromagnetic interference because they are the ones who are directly using the equipment or systems that may cause interference. They have firsthand knowledge of any interference issues that may arise and are in the best position to report and address them. The radio technician, installation spectrum manager, and communications squadron officer may also play a role in managing and addressing interference, but the using activity is ultimately responsible for reporting it.

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  • 3. 

    What are three of the knowledge requirements a Spectrum Operations technician should possess to be selected for the 3D1X4 career field?

    • Communications administration, information manangement, and computer components.

    • Electronic principles, transmission systems, and wireless communications

    • Plans and implementation, land mobile radio, and programming

    • Cyber surety, C4 systems, and transmission lines.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic principles, transmission systems, and wireless communications
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Electronic principles, transmission systems, and wireless communications." These three knowledge requirements are essential for a Spectrum Operations technician in the 3D1X4 career field. Electronic principles knowledge is important for understanding the fundamental principles of electronic systems. Transmission systems knowledge is necessary for managing and maintaining communication systems. Wireless communications knowledge is crucial for working with wireless technologies and networks.

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  • 4. 

    The main objective of risk analysis is to

    • Identify, control, and minimize the impact of uncertain events

    • Ensure wires carrying classified information are properly shieled

    • Ensure the enemy does not intercept any our sensitive unclassified conversations

    • Determine if the person receiving classified information has the proper security clearance

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify, control, and minimize the impact of uncertain events
    Explanation
    The main objective of risk analysis is to identify, control, and minimize the impact of uncertain events. Risk analysis involves assessing potential risks and their potential impact on a project, organization, or system. By identifying and understanding these risks, measures can be put in place to control and mitigate them, reducing the likelihood and impact of negative events. This helps in making informed decisions and taking proactive steps to manage and minimize risks effectively.

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  • 5. 

    Personnel not on the Entry Authorization List must be signed in on a/an

    • Standard Form (SF) 700, Security Container Information

    • Air Force (AF) Form 1109, Visitor Register Log

    • Standard Form (SF) 702, Security Container Check Sheet

    • Air Force (AF) Form 1875, Controlled Documents Log

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force (AF) Form 1109, Visitor Register Log
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force (AF) Form 1109, Visitor Register Log. This form is used to record the entry and exit of visitors who are not on the Entry Authorization List. It helps to track and monitor the presence of unauthorized personnel in a secure area. The form includes important information such as the visitor's name, organization, purpose of visit, and the date and time of entry and exit. By using this form, security personnel can ensure that only authorized individuals have access to the area and maintain a record of all visitors for security purposes.

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  • 6. 

    Bandwidth is measured in what unit of measurement?

    • Amperes

    • Hertz.

    • Volts.

    • Watts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hertz.
    Explanation
    Bandwidth is a measure of the data transfer rate or the amount of information that can be transmitted over a network or communication channel in a given period of time. It is typically measured in hertz (Hz), which represents the number of cycles per second that can be transmitted. Amperes, volts, and watts are units of measurement for electric current, voltage, and power respectively, and are not directly related to bandwidth. Therefore, the correct answer is Hertz.

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  • 7. 

    The Spectrum Operations technicians supply which organization with radio frequency information to conduct an electromagnetic radiation survey?

    • Base Safety

    • Ground Radio

    • Wing OPSEC

    • Civil Engineering

    Correct Answer
    A. Base Safety
    Explanation
    Spectrum Operations technicians supply Base Safety with radio frequency information to conduct an electromagnetic radiation survey. This is because Base Safety is responsible for ensuring the safety of personnel and equipment on the base, including monitoring and managing potential hazards such as electromagnetic radiation. By providing radio frequency information, Spectrum Operations technicians assist Base Safety in conducting thorough surveys and implementing appropriate safety measures.

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  • 8. 

    Without complying with Emissions Security procedures, processing what type of information would be a reportable security incident?

    • Classified

    • Unclassified

    • Unenvrypted

    • For Official Use Only

    Correct Answer
    A. Classified
    Explanation
    Without complying with Emissions Security procedures, processing classified information would be a reportable security incident. Classified information refers to sensitive data that is designated by the government as requiring protection against unauthorized disclosure. Processing classified information without following the necessary security procedures could lead to the compromise of national security and potentially harm individuals or organizations. Therefore, any incident involving the mishandling or unauthorized processing of classified information would be considered a serious security breach and must be reported.

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  • 9. 

    Which word-processing feature causes data to be temporarily stored on the hard disk causing a security concern to classified data processing?

    • Backup files

    • Personal dictionary

    • Cut-and-paste buffer

    • Buffer overflow files

    Correct Answer
    A. Cut-and-paste buffer
    Explanation
    The cut-and-paste buffer is a word-processing feature that temporarily stores data on the hard disk. This can pose a security concern for classified data processing because if the data is not properly deleted or overwritten, it can potentially be accessed by unauthorized individuals. This is especially true if the hard disk is not properly secured or if the data is not encrypted. Therefore, the cut-and-paste buffer feature should be used with caution when dealing with classified data to ensure the security and confidentiality of the information.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is not considered a violation of physical security?

    • Open and ungaurded safes

    • Improper password protection

    • Unattended classified documents

    • Misplaced or misfiled documents

    Correct Answer
    A. Improper password protection
    Explanation
    Improper password protection is not considered a violation of physical security because it pertains to the security of digital systems and not physical assets. Physical security focuses on protecting physical objects, facilities, and information from unauthorized access, theft, or damage. While improper password protection may pose a security risk to digital systems, it does not directly involve physical security measures such as guarding safes, protecting classified documents, or properly handling physical documents.

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  • 11. 

    The letter D in the third symbol slot of an emission designator represents

    • Telegraphy—for aural reception.

    • Telegraphy—for automatic reception.

    • Telephony (includes sound broadcasting).

    • Data transmission, telemetry, telecommand.

    Correct Answer
    A. Data transmission, telemetry, telecommand.
    Explanation
    The letter D in the third symbol slot of an emission designator represents data transmission, telemetry, and telecommand. This means that the signal being transmitted is used for sending data, collecting and transmitting measurements, and controlling remote devices or systems. It does not represent telegraphy or telephony, which are related to different forms of communication.

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  • 12. 

    What is used to reduce dielectric breakdown within waveguides?

    • Freon.

    • Silver.

    • Inert gases.

    • Brass coating.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inert gases.
    Explanation
    Inert gases are used to reduce dielectric breakdown within waveguides. Dielectric breakdown occurs when the electric field within a waveguide becomes too strong, causing the insulating material to break down and conduct electricity. Inert gases, such as nitrogen or argon, are used to fill the waveguide because they have high dielectric strength, meaning they can withstand high electric fields without breaking down. This helps to prevent the breakdown of the insulating material and maintain the proper functioning of the waveguide.

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  • 13. 

    What document ensures that individuals receive required training as their career progresses?

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • On-The Job training Records.

    • Career Development Course (CDC)

    • Job Qualification Standard (JQS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) ensures that individuals receive the required training as their career progresses. This document outlines the training and education requirements for each career field, providing a roadmap for individuals to follow in order to advance in their careers. It ensures that individuals receive the necessary training to develop their skills and knowledge in their specific career field, allowing them to meet job performance requirements and excel in their roles. The CFETP serves as a guide for both individuals and their supervisors to track and document the training received throughout their career progression.

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  • 14. 

    Which statement best meets the requirements for transporting communications security (COMSEC) material?

    • On installations, COMSEC material need not to be sealed

    • During convoys, position COMSEC material in the lead vehicle.

    • During convoys, position COMSEC material in the middle of the convoy.

    • Off installations, enclose material in a sealed package or within a sealed briefcase.

    Correct Answer
    A. During convoys, position COMSEC material in the middle of the convoy.
  • 15. 

    The communications Act of 1934 established which two spectrum management organizations to control the federal and non-federal spectrum respectively?

    • National Telecommunications and Inforamation Administration and the Federal Communications Commission.

    • National Telecommunications and Information Administration and the Federal Aviation Administration

    • Department of Commerce and the Federal Communications Commission

    • Defense Spectrum Office and the Federal Aviation Administration

    Correct Answer
    A. National Telecommunications and Inforamation Administration and the Federal Communications Commission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is National Telecommunications and Information Administration and the Federal Communications Commission. The Communications Act of 1934 established these two organizations to control the federal and non-federal spectrum respectively. The National Telecommunications and Information Administration is responsible for managing the federal spectrum, while the Federal Communications Commission is responsible for managing the non-federal spectrum.

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  • 16. 

    What page of the DD Form 1494, Application for Equipment Frequency Allocation, is used to indicate whether the antenna will be used for reception, transmission, or both?

    • Antenna Equipment Characteristics.

    • Receiver Equipment Characteristics.

    • Transmitter Equipment Characteristics.

    • Rectifier Equipment Characteristics.

    Correct Answer
    A. Antenna Equipment Characteristics.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Antenna Equipment Characteristics. This is because the page of the DD Form 1494 that is used to indicate whether the antenna will be used for reception, transmission, or both is the Antenna Equipment Characteristics page. This page contains information about the antenna's specifications, capabilities, and intended use. It allows the applicant to specify whether the antenna will be used for reception, transmission, or both, ensuring accurate frequency allocation for the equipment.

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  • 17. 

    With a necessary bandwidth of 450 KHz, which letter is used in place of the decimal point when the bandwidth is used as part of an emission designator?

    • G

    • H

    • K

    • M

    Correct Answer
    A. K
    Explanation
    When the bandwidth is used as part of an emission designator, the letter "K" is used in place of the decimal point. This is because the letter "K" represents kilohertz, which is the unit of measurement for bandwidth. In this case, the necessary bandwidth is specified as 450 KHz, so the letter "K" is used to indicate that the bandwidth is in kilohertz.

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  • 18. 

    When is ordnance most affected by electromagnetic radiation?

    • During flight

    • While in storage

    • During disassembly

    • Upon contact with target

    Correct Answer
    A. During disassembly
    Explanation
    During disassembly, ordnance is most affected by electromagnetic radiation. This is because during this process, the components of the ordnance are being taken apart, exposing sensitive electronics and circuitry. Electromagnetic radiation can interfere with these components and cause malfunctions or damage. It is crucial to handle ordnance carefully during disassembly to minimize the risk of electromagnetic interference.

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  • 19. 

    An unauthorized disclosure of what type of information can cause exceptionally grave damage to national security?

    • North Atlantic Treaty Organization Restricted

    • Confidential communications security

    • Secret

    • Top Secret

    Correct Answer
    A. Top Secret
    Explanation
    Top Secret information refers to highly sensitive information that, if disclosed without authorization, can cause exceptionally grave damage to national security. This level of classification is reserved for information that, if accessed by unauthorized individuals, could potentially jeopardize ongoing military operations, intelligence sources, or national defense plans. It is the highest level of classification and requires strict control and protection to prevent unauthorized disclosure.

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  • 20. 

    At what interval must Entry Authorization Lists be reviewed to ensure they are current?

    • 5 days

    • 10 days

    • 30 days

    • 90 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days
    Explanation
    Entry Authorization Lists must be reviewed at a 30-day interval to ensure that they are current. This regular review is necessary to keep the lists up to date and accurate, as changes in personnel or access permissions may occur within this timeframe. By conducting reviews every 30 days, organizations can maintain the security and integrity of their entry authorization processes and ensure that only authorized individuals have access to the necessary resources.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is no longer a subordinate command of HQ Pacific Command (PACOM)?

    • US Forces Japan (USFJ)—JFMO Japan.

    • US Forces Korea (USFK)—JFMO Korea

    • Alaskan Command (ALCOM)—JFMO Alaska.

    • Joint Frequency Management Office-GUAM (JFMO Guam).

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Frequency Management Office-GUAM (JFMO Guam).
  • 22. 

    What does the letter A in the first symbol slot of an emission designator represent?

    • Pulse coding.

    • Double sideband amplitude modulation.

    • Two-condition code with elements of differing numbers and/or durations.

    • Four-condition code in which each condition represents a signal element (of one or more bits).

    Correct Answer
    A. Double sideband amplitude modulation.
    Explanation
    The letter A in the first symbol slot of an emission designator represents double sideband amplitude modulation. This means that the modulation scheme used in the transmission is double sideband amplitude modulation, where the carrier wave is modulated by varying the amplitude of the signal.

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  • 23. 

    In general, which agencies would you coordinate frequency requirements?

    • Private, federal, and military spectrum manangement

    • Military, federal, and civil spectrum management

    • Military and civil spectrum management only

    • Comercial and federal only

    Correct Answer
    A. Military, federal, and civil spectrum management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Military, federal, and civil spectrum management. These three agencies are responsible for coordinating frequency requirements. The military needs to ensure that their communication systems are not interfered with, while the federal government has the authority to regulate and allocate spectrum usage. Civil spectrum management is necessary to coordinate frequencies for various non-military and non-federal purposes such as commercial, public safety, and other civilian uses.

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  • 24. 

    Which career field performs system hardware and software operations, management, and administration?

    • Client systems technician (3D1X1)

    • Cyber transport technician (3D1X2)

    • Computer systems programmer (3D0X4)

    • Knowledge operations management (3D0X1)

    Correct Answer
    A. Client systems technician (3D1X1)
    Explanation
    The career field that performs system hardware and software operations, management, and administration is the Client systems technician (3D1X1). This career involves working with computer systems and networks, troubleshooting issues, installing software and hardware, and providing technical support to users. Client systems technicians are responsible for ensuring that computer systems are running smoothly and efficiently, and they play a crucial role in maintaining the functionality of an organization's IT infrastructure.

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  • 25. 

    What database contains approved DD Form 1494s, Application for Frequency Allocation, and host nation comments?

    • Government Master File (GMF).

    • International Frequency List (IFL).

    • Frequency Resource Record System (FRRS).

    • Host Nation Spectrum Worldwide Database (HNSWD).

    Correct Answer
    A. Host Nation Spectrum Worldwide Database (HNSWD).
    Explanation
    The Host Nation Spectrum Worldwide Database (HNSWD) contains approved DD Form 1494s, Application for Frequency Allocation, and host nation comments.

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  • 26. 

    The bandwidth authorized to ensure the transmission at the rate and quality specified is

    • Received.

    • Occupied

    • Necessary.

    • Modulated.

    Correct Answer
    A. Necessary.
    Explanation
    The term "bandwidth" refers to the amount of data that can be transmitted over a network in a given amount of time. In this context, the question is asking about the bandwidth that is required to ensure that the transmission is done at the specified rate and quality. The word "authorized" implies that there is a specific amount of bandwidth that has been allocated or approved for this purpose. Therefore, the correct answer is "necessary," as it suggests that the required amount of bandwidth is essential for achieving the desired transmission rate and quality.

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  • 27. 

    When the radio frequency (RF) carrier is varied with the intelligence signal, it is called

    • Oscillation

    • Modulation.

    • Propagation.

    • Amplification.

    Correct Answer
    A. Modulation.
    Explanation
    When the radio frequency (RF) carrier is varied with the intelligence signal, it is called modulation. Modulation is the process of modifying a carrier signal to transmit information. In this case, the intelligence signal is imposed on the carrier signal by varying its amplitude, frequency, or phase. This modulation technique allows for efficient transmission and reception of signals, enabling the communication of information over long distances.

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  • 28. 

    Normally, which ratio is considered a good voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR)?

    • 1.5:1.

    • 15:1.

    • 150:1.

    • 1,500:1.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.5:1.
    Explanation
    A voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR) measures the efficiency of power transfer between a source and a load. A lower VSWR indicates better power transfer. A VSWR of 1.5:1 is considered good because it means that the reflected power is only 4% of the incident power, indicating minimal power loss. Higher ratios like 15:1, 150:1, or 1,500:1 indicate a higher degree of power loss and inefficiency in the power transfer.

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  • 29. 

    Which type of precipitation attenuates radio frequency (RF) energy just like rain?

    • Ice

    • Fog

    • Hail

    • Snow

    Correct Answer
    A. Fog
    Explanation
    Fog is a type of precipitation that consists of water droplets suspended in the air. These droplets can attenuate radio frequency (RF) energy, just like rain. When RF waves encounter the water droplets in fog, they are scattered and absorbed, resulting in a decrease in signal strength. This attenuation can affect communication systems that rely on RF energy, such as radio and television broadcasts, cellular networks, and satellite communications. Therefore, fog can have a similar impact on RF energy as rain does.

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  • 30. 

    During which step of the communications security (COMSEC) process must individual pages of COMSEC material be accounted for?

    • Storing

    • Receiving

    • Destroying

    • Inventorying

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiving
    Explanation
    Individual pages of COMSEC material must be accounted for during the receiving step of the communications security (COMSEC) process. This is because when the material is received, it is important to ensure that all pages are present and accounted for to maintain the security and integrity of the information. By carefully checking and documenting the receipt of each page, any discrepancies or missing pages can be identified and addressed promptly. This helps to prevent unauthorized access or compromise of sensitive information.

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  • 31. 

    When and how do you report a suspected COMSEC insecurity?

    • Immediately after the occurrence of the incident, and report it to the COMSEC responsible officer (CRO) or COMSEC manager.

    • Immediately after the occurrence of the incident, and report it to the group commander and security manager.

    • Within 12 hours of the occurrence of the incident, and report it to the CRO or COMSEC manager

    • Within 12 hours of the occurrence of the incident, and report it to the unit commander and security manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately after the occurrence of the incident, and report it to the COMSEC responsible officer (CRO) or COMSEC manager.
    Explanation
    In order to ensure the security of communications, any suspected COMSEC insecurity should be reported immediately after the incident occurs. The correct protocol is to report it to the COMSEC responsible officer (CRO) or COMSEC manager. This ensures that the appropriate personnel are informed promptly and can take the necessary actions to address the potential security breach. Reporting the incident to the CRO or COMSEC manager is the most effective way to handle suspected COMSEC insecurities.

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  • 32. 

    Which organization coordinates frequency requests in areas that lie within or are adjacent to national test ranges or designated areas?

    • Federal Aviation Administration.

    • Federal Communications Commission.

    • Department of Defense (DOD) Area Frequency Coordinator.

    • Aerospace and Flight Test Radio Coordinating Council.

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of Defense (DOD) Area Frequency Coordinator.
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense (DOD) Area Frequency Coordinator is responsible for coordinating frequency requests in areas that are within or adjacent to national test ranges or designated areas. This organization ensures that frequency usage is properly managed and coordinated to avoid interference and maintain efficient communication within these areas.

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  • 33. 

    In amplitude modulation (AM) operation, at 100 percent modulation, what percentage of the transmitter’s power is contained in the lower sideband (LSB)?

    • 25

    • 50

    • 75

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 25
    Explanation
    At 100 percent modulation in AM operation, the power is equally divided between the upper sideband (USB) and the lower sideband (LSB). Therefore, each sideband carries 50 percent of the transmitter's power. Since the question specifically asks for the percentage of power contained in the LSB, the correct answer is 25 percent.

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  • 34. 

    What is generated by the collision of electrons through a conductor and considered the main noise factor when computing receiver sensitivity?

    • Electron.

    • Thermal

    • Sensitivity.

    • Frequency threshold.

    Correct Answer
    A. Thermal
    Explanation
    The collision of electrons through a conductor generates thermal noise, which is considered the main noise factor when computing receiver sensitivity. Thermal noise is caused by the random motion of electrons due to their thermal energy, resulting in variations in the electrical signal. This noise can interfere with the desired signal and reduce the sensitivity of the receiver.

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  • 35. 

    Which action would not be considered a cryptographinc COMSEC incident?

    • Using a compromised, superseded, or defective COMSEC key

    • Finding an electronic surveillance device in or near a COMSEC facility

    • Using COMSEC equipment without completing a required alarm-check test.

    • Discussing the details of a COMSEC equipment failure over an unsecured phone.

    Correct Answer
    A. Finding an electronic surveillance device in or near a COMSEC facility
    Explanation
    Finding an electronic surveillance device in or near a COMSEC facility would not be considered a cryptographic COMSEC incident because it indicates a potential security breach or threat to the facility's security. This action would actually be considered a positive outcome as it helps to identify and address potential vulnerabilities in the facility's security measures.

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  • 36. 

    Which security program protects against the enemy's interception of compromising emanations from information systems?

    • Communications security

    • Transmission security

    • Computer security

    • Emissions security

    Correct Answer
    A. Emissions security
    Explanation
    Emissions security is the security program that protects against the enemy's interception of compromising emanations from information systems. This program focuses on preventing the leakage of sensitive information through unintentional electromagnetic emissions. It involves measures such as shielding, filtering, and encryption to protect against eavesdropping and interception of these emissions.

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  • 37. 

    Who manages, coordinates, and schedules the use of frequencies at specified ranges or areas of responsibility?

    • Joint Spectrum Center personnel

    • Installation spectrum management office personnel.

    • Major command spectrum management personnel.

    • Air Force-sponsored DOD Area Frequency Coordinator personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force-sponsored DOD Area Frequency Coordinator personnel.
    Explanation
    Air Force-sponsored DOD Area Frequency Coordinator personnel are responsible for managing, coordinating, and scheduling the use of frequencies at specified ranges or areas of responsibility. They ensure that frequencies are allocated efficiently and effectively, avoiding interference and maximizing the utilization of available resources. This role is crucial in maintaining effective communication and ensuring that different users can operate their equipment without conflicts or disruptions.

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  • 38. 

    Which organization is the receiving point for all Air Force frequency and equipment allocation requests in the Pacific Command (PACOM) theater?

    • Alaskan Command (ALCOM)—JFMO Alaska.

    • Air Force Frequency Management Agency (AFFMA).

    • Headquarters Pacific Air Forces (HQ PACAF/SCCS).

    • Joint Frequency Management Office-GUAM (JFMO Guam).

    Correct Answer
    A. Headquarters Pacific Air Forces (HQ PACAF/SCCS).
    Explanation
    Headquarters Pacific Air Forces (HQ PACAF/SCCS) is the correct answer because it is the organization responsible for receiving all Air Force frequency and equipment allocation requests in the Pacific Command (PACOM) theater. The other options, Alaskan Command (ALCOM)—JFMO Alaska, Air Force Frequency Management Agency (AFFMA), and Joint Frequency Management Office-GUAM (JFMO Guam), are not the designated receiving points for these requests.

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  • 39. 

    Which organization provides frequency and equipment allocation support for all services deploying to the Southern Command area of responsibility?

    • AFSOUTH/A6X (12AF).

    • Air Force Spectrum Management Office (AFSMO).

    • Headquarters, US Southern Command (HQ USSOUTHCOM)/J6.

    • Headquarters, Southern Special Operations Command (HQ SOCSOUTH).

    Correct Answer
    A. Headquarters, US Southern Command (HQ USSOUTHCOM)/J6.
  • 40. 

    Which transmission line can exhibit low radio frequency (RF) signal attenuation, but is subject to noise and high radiation losses due to its lack of shielding?

    • Waveguides.

    • Coaxial cables.

    • Two-wire open line.

    • Fiber optic transmission lines.

    Correct Answer
    A. Two-wire open line.
    Explanation
    A two-wire open line can exhibit low RF signal attenuation because it uses parallel wires to transmit the signal, which helps to minimize loss. However, it is not shielded, which makes it susceptible to noise interference and high radiation losses. This lack of shielding allows external signals to interfere with the transmission and also causes the line to radiate its own signals, leading to higher losses.

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  • 41. 

    What is the disadvantage of waveguides when used at frequencies below 1,000 MHz?

    • Only expensive elliptical waveguides work.

    • The large physical size makes the waveguide impractical.

    • Massive copper losses cause excessive signal attenuation.

    • To prevent arcing, the waveguide has to be pressurized with inert gas.

    Correct Answer
    A. The large physical size makes the waveguide impractical.
    Explanation
    The disadvantage of waveguides when used at frequencies below 1,000 MHz is that their large physical size makes them impractical.

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  • 42. 

    Normally, what kind of large bandwidth antenna is designed to impedance match waveguides to free space?

    • Horn

    • Dipole

    • Helical.

    • Marconi.

    Correct Answer
    A. Horn
    Explanation
    A horn antenna is designed to impedance match waveguides to free space. It is a type of large bandwidth antenna that is commonly used for high-frequency applications. The shape of the horn antenna allows for efficient transfer of electromagnetic energy between the waveguide and free space, ensuring minimal loss and maximum power transfer. This makes it an ideal choice for impedance matching in this scenario.

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  • 43. 

    What career group is specific to Chaplain Support functions?

    • One

    • Two

    • Four

    • Five

    Correct Answer
    A. Five
    Explanation
    The career group specific to Chaplain Support functions is represented by option Five.

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  • 44. 

    What is required for spectrum managers to initiate, review, or change frequency dependent equipment?

    • Equipment manual

    • Spectrum XXI database

    • Standard Frequency Action Format (SFAF)

    • DD Form 1494, Application for Equipment Frequency Allocation

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 1494, Application for Equipment Frequency Allocation
    Explanation
    To initiate, review, or change frequency dependent equipment, spectrum managers require DD Form 1494, Application for Equipment Frequency Allocation. This form is used to request frequency allocation for specific equipment and must be submitted to the appropriate authorities for approval. It ensures that the equipment operates within the allocated frequency spectrum and prevents interference with other systems. The form provides essential information about the equipment and its intended use, allowing spectrum managers to effectively manage and allocate frequencies. The Equipment manual, Spectrum XXI database, and Standard Frequency Action Format (SFAF) may be useful for other aspects of spectrum management but are not specifically required for initiating, reviewing, or changing frequency dependent equipment.

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  • 45. 

    Which Security discipline outlines security features needed to protect hardware, software, or data associated with any automated information system?

    • Communications security

    • Transmission security

    • Computer security

    • Emissions security

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer security
    Explanation
    Computer security is the discipline that outlines security features needed to protect hardware, software, or data associated with any automated information system. This includes measures such as access control, encryption, authentication, and backup systems to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the system and its data. Communications security focuses on securing the transmission of information, transmission security specifically deals with protecting the integrity and confidentiality of information during transmission, and emissions security involves preventing unauthorized access to information through electromagnetic emissions.

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  • 46. 

    In the prevention and detection of unauthorized users to our computer systems, what should be used as a last line of defense?

    • Government-owned software

    • Authentication procedures

    • Access controls

    • Security checks

    Correct Answer
    A. Access controls
    Explanation
    Access controls should be used as a last line of defense in the prevention and detection of unauthorized users to computer systems. Access controls refer to mechanisms that restrict and regulate access to resources, data, and functionalities within a computer system. By implementing access controls, organizations can enforce authentication and authorization procedures, limit user privileges, and monitor and audit user activities. This helps in preventing unauthorized access and ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems. Government-owned software, authentication procedures, and security checks are important components of overall security measures, but access controls serve as the final layer of defense against unauthorized users.

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  • 47. 

    Which emission designator represents a single-channel, unencrypted voice transmission?

    • 1K24F1B.

    • 3K00J3C.

    • 6K00A3E.

    • 45K00F2D.

    Correct Answer
    A. 6K00A3E.
    Explanation
    The emission designator 6K00A3E represents a single-channel, unencrypted voice transmission. The "6K" indicates a bandwidth of 6 kHz, which is suitable for voice transmission. The "A" signifies that the modulation type is amplitude modulation (AM). The "3E" indicates that the type of information being transmitted is voice or sound, and there is no encryption applied. Therefore, 6K00A3E is the correct emission designator for a single-channel, unencrypted voice transmission.

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  • 48. 

    What component of a frequency modulation (FM) receiver removes the original signal from the sidebands and re-creates the audio intelligence?

    • Limiter.

    • Detector.

    • Amplifier.

    • Discriminator

    Correct Answer
    A. Discriminator
    Explanation
    The discriminator in a frequency modulation (FM) receiver is responsible for removing the original signal from the sidebands and re-creating the audio intelligence. It does this by converting the frequency variations in the FM signal back into the original audio signal. The discriminator essentially demodulates the FM signal, extracting the audio information from the carrier wave.

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  • 49. 

    An advantage of horizontal polarization is that signals

    • Travel over considerable distances

    • Transmit great distances over bodies of water

    • Experience less attenuation due to buildings and dense forests.

    • Experience less interference from Television and frequency modulation stations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Experience less attenuation due to buildings and dense forests.
    Explanation
    Horizontal polarization refers to the orientation of the electromagnetic waves in a signal. When signals are horizontally polarized, they are less affected by obstacles such as buildings and dense forests. This is because the waves can more easily pass through or around these obstacles without significant loss of signal strength, resulting in less attenuation. In contrast, vertically polarized signals may encounter more obstacles and experience greater attenuation in such environments. Therefore, horizontal polarization is advantageous in reducing signal loss and maintaining signal strength in areas with buildings and dense forests.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 11, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Juney329
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