3d1x2 5 Level CDC Vol. 3
- 1.
One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to?
- A.
Line noise
- B.
Weather effects
- C.
Frequency distortion
- D.
Electromagnetic interference
Correct Answer
B. Weather effectsExplanation
Microwave wavelengths are susceptible to weather effects because they can be absorbed, scattered, or refracted by atmospheric conditions such as rain, fog, or snow. This can result in signal degradation or loss, affecting the quality and reliability of microwave communication systems.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?
- A.
Atmospheric pressure
- B.
Propagation medium
- C.
Temperature
- D.
Moisture
Correct Answer
B. Propagation mediumExplanation
The refractive index of a medium determines how much light is bent when it passes through that medium. In the case of air, the refractive index is mainly determined by factors such as atmospheric pressure, temperature, and moisture content. However, the propagation medium, which refers to the medium through which the light is traveling, is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air. The refractive index of air remains constant regardless of the propagation medium.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is?
- A.
Frequency
- B.
Power output
- C.
Bandwidth of the transmission medium
- D.
Distance between equipment and transmitter
Correct Answer
A. FrequencyExplanation
The correct size of a waveguide is determined by the frequency of the signal being transmitted. Different frequencies require different sizes of waveguides to ensure efficient transmission.Rate this question:
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- 4.
How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?
- A.
2,230
- B.
2,320
- C.
22,300
- D.
23,200
Correct Answer
C. 22,300Explanation
Satellites are placed in orbit approximately 22,300 miles above the Earth's surface. This distance is known as the geostationary orbit, where satellites rotate at the same speed as the Earth's rotation, allowing them to stay fixed in one position relative to the Earth's surface. This high orbit is necessary for satellites to have a clear line of sight and provide uninterrupted communication and observation services.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?
- A.
Milstar Communication System
- B.
Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS)
- C.
Air Force Satellite Communications (AFSATCOM)
- D.
Ground Mobile orces Satellite Communications (GMFSC)
Correct Answer
B. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS)Explanation
The Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) is used to transmit space operations. This system is specifically designed for military use and provides secure and reliable satellite communications for the Department of Defense. It enables the transmission of critical information and supports various military operations and missions. The DSCS ensures effective communication between ground stations, airborne platforms, and space-based assets, making it an essential component of satellite communications for space operations.Rate this question:
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- 6.
To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be?
- A.
Phase shifted
- B.
Transmitted
- C.
Modulated
- D.
Encoded
Correct Answer
C. ModulatedExplanation
To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be modulated. Modulation is the process of varying the characteristics of the RF signal in accordance with the audio signal. This allows the audio signal to be carried by the RF signal and transmitted wirelessly. Modulation techniques such as amplitude modulation (AM), frequency modulation (FM), or phase modulation (PM) are commonly used to achieve this.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?
- A.
Lightwave
- B.
Microwave
- C.
Soundwave
- D.
Groundwave
Correct Answer
D. GroundwaveExplanation
Groundwave is the correct answer because high frequency (HF) transmissions, which include radio waves, travel along the Earth's surface in the form of groundwaves. These groundwaves propagate by hugging the ground and following its curvature, allowing them to travel long distances. This is different from other types of waves like lightwaves, microwaves, and soundwaves, which do not follow the same path as groundwaves for long-distance transmission.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which is NOT a disadvantage of laser light transmission
- A.
No need for careful alignment of transmitter and reciever
- B.
Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper
- C.
Sensitive to atmospheric interference
- D.
Strickly line-of-sight (LOS) transmission
Correct Answer
A. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and recieverExplanation
The correct answer is "No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver." This is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission because it suggests that there is no requirement for precise alignment between the transmitter and receiver. In reality, laser light transmission does require careful alignment to ensure optimal signal transmission.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The intergrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the?
- A.
Basic rate interface (BRI)
- B.
Primary rate interface (PRI)
- C.
Trunk rate interface (TRI)
- D.
Switch rate interface (SRI)
Correct Answer
B. Primary rate interface (PRI)Explanation
The correct answer is "primary rate interface (PRI)". ISDN is a digital telecommunications standard that allows the transmission of voice, video, and data over traditional telephone lines. The primary rate interface (PRI) is the ISDN configuration typically used to connect switches together. It provides 23 bearer channels for voice and data transmission, along with one signaling channel for call setup and control. The basic rate interface (BRI) is another ISDN configuration, but it is typically used for connecting end-user devices such as telephones or fax machines to the network. The trunk rate interface (TRI) and switch rate interface (SRI) are not standard ISDN configurations.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit?
- A.
A relatively wide range of frequencies
- B.
Only high frequency information
- C.
A relatively wide range of amplitudes
- D.
Only high amplitude information
Correct Answer
A. A relatively wide range of frequenciesExplanation
Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit a relatively wide range of frequencies. This means that it is capable of transmitting signals across a broad spectrum of frequencies, allowing for the transmission of various types of information, including both high and low frequency data. This makes broadband technology versatile and capable of supporting a wide range of applications, such as internet connectivity, telecommunications, and multimedia streaming.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Broadband technology uses all of thes etransmission mediums except?
- A.
Telephone lines
- B.
Television cable lines
- C.
Satellite systems
- D.
Laser light
Correct Answer
D. Laser lightExplanation
Broadband technology utilizes various transmission mediums to provide high-speed internet access. Telephone lines, television cable lines, and satellite systems are commonly used for broadband connections. However, laser light is not typically used as a transmission medium in broadband technology. Instead, fiber optic cables are used to transmit data using laser light.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?
- A.
2, 1
- B.
30, 2
- C.
1, 24
- D.
23, 1
Correct Answer
D. 23, 1Explanation
The standard configuration in North American ISDN PRI application uses 23 B channels and 1 D channel. The B channels are used for carrying voice or data traffic, while the D channel is used for signaling and control purposes.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of telephone exchange system?
- A.
Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issue
- B.
The invention of the multi-line telephone
- C.
Military communication requirements
- D.
Radio communication requirements
Correct Answer
A. Point-to-point telepHone access caused cabling issueExplanation
The primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange system was the issue of cabling caused by point-to-point telephone access. With point-to-point access, each telephone line required a separate cable, which became impractical and expensive as the number of telephone lines increased. The telephone exchange system allowed multiple telephone lines to be connected through a central exchange, eliminating the need for separate cables for each line and making communication more efficient and cost-effective.Rate this question:
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- 14.
When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
- A.
Is broadcast over multiple paths between switches
- B.
Is packetized and transmitted in circuitous bursts
- C.
Has a dedicated circuit created by the switch
- D.
Requires a dedicated switch to make the connection
Correct Answer
C. Has a dedicated circuit created by the switchExplanation
In a circuit-switched telephone network, each call has a dedicated circuit created by the switch. This means that a specific path is established between the calling and receiving parties, and this path remains dedicated to the call for its duration. The switch sets up the circuit and ensures that the connection remains uninterrupted until the call is terminated. This dedicated circuit ensures reliable and consistent communication between the parties involved in the call.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,
- A.
Circumvention, and confidentiality
- B.
Circumvention, and disclosure
- C.
Confidentiality, and integrity
- D.
Disclosure, and integrity
Correct Answer
C. Confidentiality, and integrityExplanation
Confidentiality refers to the protection of sensitive information from unauthorized access or disclosure. In a voice network system, it is crucial to ensure that only authorized individuals can access and listen to the conversations. Integrity, on the other hand, ensures that the information transmitted over the network remains intact and unaltered. It is important to prevent any unauthorized modification or tampering of the voice data. Therefore, confidentiality and integrity are the two key cornerstones of voice network system security.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?
- A.
Subversion
- B.
Unauthorized monitoring
- C.
Inexperienced switch technicians
- D.
Inadequate maintenance practices
Correct Answer
A. SubversionExplanation
Subversion is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity because it involves intentionally undermining or sabotaging the system. This can be done by unauthorized individuals gaining access to the system and making unauthorized changes or by introducing malicious software or code that disrupts the system's functioning. Subversion poses a significant risk as it can lead to the compromise of sensitive information, disruption of services, and potential financial and reputational damage to the organization. Unauthorized monitoring, inexperienced switch technicians, and inadequate maintenance practices can also pose threats, but they are not as severe as deliberate subversion.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?
- A.
A medium scale switch that handles traffic for a small city
- B.
A very small scale switch that is also known as a key system
- C.
A large scale switch that handles the traffic for a metropolitan area
- D.
A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization
Correct Answer
D. A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organizationExplanation
A Private Branch Exchange (PBX) is a small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization. It allows for internal communication within the organization by routing calls between internal extensions. This system is commonly used in businesses to manage and streamline their internal telephony needs.Rate this question:
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- 18.
How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?
- A.
32
- B.
12
- C.
3
- D.
1
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
The Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller has 3 serial data interface ports.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?
- A.
DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100
- B.
DMS-100/200 and MSL-100
- C.
DMS-100/200 and DMS-200
- D.
DMS-200 and MSL-100
Correct Answer
A. DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100Explanation
DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100 are commonly used models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the Maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system-100 (DMS-100) supports?
- A.
10,000
- B.
30,000
- C.
100,000
- D.
300,000
Correct Answer
C. 100,000Explanation
The maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system-100 (DMS-100) supports is 100,000.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?
- A.
Computing mode (CM) and message switches (MS)
- B.
CM and system load module (SLM)
- C.
Central processing unit (CPU) and control monitor unit (CMU)
- D.
CPU, digital signal (DS), and peripheral module (PM)
Correct Answer
B. CM and system load module (SLM)Explanation
The control component of the SuperNode central control consists of the computing mode (CM) and the system load module (SLM). These elements are responsible for managing and controlling the overall operation of the SuperNode system. The computing mode determines the mode of operation, while the system load module monitors and manages the system's workload to ensure efficient performance. Together, CM and SLM play a crucial role in maintaining control and optimizing the functioning of the SuperNode central control.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?
- A.
DS-1
- B.
DS-30
- C.
DS-30A
- D.
DS-512
Correct Answer
D. DS-512Explanation
The link used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus is DS-512.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interface line and trunk subscribers?
- A.
Central control
- B.
Input/output (I/O)
- C.
Peripheral module (PM)
- D.
Peripheral subsystem (PS)
Correct Answer
C. PeripHeral module (PM)Explanation
The correct answer is peripheral module (PM). In the NorTel digital switching system (DSS), the peripheral module is a major component that is responsible for interfacing with both the line and trunk subscribers. It handles the communication between the subscribers and the central control of the system. The peripheral module plays a crucial role in ensuring smooth and efficient communication within the NorTel digital switching system.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?
- A.
Printers, visual display unit (VDC), and tape drives
- B.
A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers
- C.
A maintenance and administration position (MAP)
- D.
The central processing unit (CPU) and keyboard
Correct Answer
A. Printers, visual display unit (VDC), and tape drivesExplanation
The components directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC) are printers, visual display unit (VDC), and tape drives. These components are connected to the IOC to facilitate input and output operations. The IOC acts as an interface between the CPU and these peripheral devices, allowing data to be transferred between them. By connecting printers, VDCs, and tape drives to the IOC, these devices can communicate with the CPU and perform their respective functions efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a
- A.
Cable manhole
- B.
Telecommunicatinos cable closet
- C.
Building cable raceway
- D.
Cable vault
Correct Answer
D. Cable vaultExplanation
The correct answer is cable vault. A cable vault is a structure or room where cables are stored and managed. It is designed to provide protection and organization for the cables entering the central office facility. This is typically a secure and controlled environment to ensure the proper functioning of the cables and to prevent any damage or interference. The other options, such as cable manhole, telecommunications cable closet, and building cable raceway, do not specifically refer to the location where cables enter the central office facility.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to
- A.
Verify the circuit is not in use
- B.
Prevent interruptions to critical circuits
- C.
Ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line
- D.
Avoid activating alarm circuits
Correct Answer
C. Ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the lineExplanation
Measuring the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them ensures that dangerous voltages are not present on the line. This is important for the safety of the person working on the circuit, as it helps to prevent electric shocks or other accidents that could occur if high voltages are present. It is a precautionary measure to ensure that the circuit is de-energized and safe to work on.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9S35A cross-point card matrix?
- A.
Vertical bus
- B.
Horizontal bus
- C.
Clock/message card
- D.
Enhanced network (ENET) processor
Correct Answer
A. Vertical busExplanation
The incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9S35A cross-point card matrix through the vertical bus.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to any available
- A.
Computing mode channel
- B.
Peripheral channel
- C.
H-bus channel
- D.
Output channel
Correct Answer
D. Output channelExplanation
The enhanced network (ENET) being a matrix means that any input channel can connect to any available output channel. This allows for flexibility and efficient communication between different channels, enabling data to be transmitted from input channels to output channels as needed.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner
- A.
Journal file
- B.
Table control
- C.
Dump/restore
- D.
Pending order file
Correct Answer
B. Table controlExplanation
The DMS-100 database facility responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner is the Table control. This facility ensures that the tables are created and managed properly, ensuring data integrity and consistency. It allows for the creation, modification, and deletion of tables, as well as enforcing rules and constraints on the data stored in the tables. The Table control facility plays a crucial role in managing the database and ensuring its proper functioning.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for storing data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?
- A.
Journal file
- B.
Table control
- C.
Dump/restore
- D.
Pending order file
Correct Answer
D. Pending order fileExplanation
The correct answer is "Pending order file." The pending order file in the DMS-100 database facility is used to store data modification orders (DMO) and retrieve them at a specified time for execution. This facility allows for the efficient management of data modifications and ensures that they are executed in a timely manner. Other options such as journal file, table control, and dump/restore are not specifically designed for storing and retrieving data modification orders.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system should fail?
- A.
Journal file
- B.
Table control
- C.
Dump/restore
- D.
Pending order file
Correct Answer
A. Journal fileExplanation
The correct answer is Journal file. The journal file facility in the DMS-100 database system allows for the preservation of data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk. This means that any changes made to the data tables can be recorded in the journal file, and in the event of a system failure, the data tables can be restored using the information stored in the journal file. This ensures data integrity and allows for easy recovery in case of system failures.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence gretting (TAG) feature?
- A.
Administration and maintenance interface
- B.
Voice Messaging User Interface Forum
- C.
Meridian mail user interface
- D.
Message service interface
Correct Answer
C. Meridian mail user interfaceExplanation
The Meridian mail user interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature. This means that users can set up a temporary greeting to play for callers when they are away or unavailable. The Meridian mail user interface allows users to easily customize their greetings and manage their voicemail settings.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes?
- A.
Administration and maintenance interface
- B.
Voice Messaging User Interface Forum
- C.
Meridian mail user interface
- D.
Message service interface
Correct Answer
B. Voice Messaging User Interface ForumExplanation
The Voice Messaging User Interface Forum allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes. This interface provides the necessary tools and options for managing and organizing voice messages in a user-friendly manner. It allows users to easily access and navigate through their main mailbox and submailboxes, ensuring efficient communication and organization of messages.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Why are the R-Y and B-Y signals shifted 33 degrees counterclockwise?
- A.
To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective primary colors
- B.
To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective complementary colors
- C.
R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to maximum color acuity, respectively for human vision
- D.
R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum oclor acuity, respectiely for human vision
Correct Answer
D. R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum oclor acuity, respectiely for human visionExplanation
The R-Y and B-Y signals are shifted 33 degrees counterclockwise in order to maximize the color acuity for human vision. By shifting the R-Y signal to maximum and the B-Y signal to minimum color acuity, it helps align these signals with the way humans perceive colors. This adjustment ensures that the R-Y and B-Y signals accurately represent their respective primary colors in a way that is most visually pleasing and natural to human observers.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The red,gree, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the?
- A.
Encoder
- B.
Decoder
- C.
Multiplexer
- D.
Demultiplexer
Correct Answer
A. EncoderExplanation
The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera are sent to an encoder. An encoder is a device that converts analog signals into digital signals. In this case, the RGB outputs from the camera, which are analog signals, need to be converted into digital signals for further processing or transmission. Therefore, an encoder is required to perform this conversion.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system
- A.
4-quardraplex sideband (4-QSB)
- B.
8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB)
- C.
4-vestigial modulation (4-VM)
- D.
8-quadrature modulation (8-QM)
Correct Answer
B. 8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB)Explanation
The Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system uses 8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB) modulation technique. This modulation technique is used for transmitting digital television signals over the airwaves. The 8-VSB modulation technique allows for efficient use of bandwidth and provides robust transmission, allowing for better reception in challenging signal environments. It is specifically designed for the transmission of digital television signals and is the standard modulation technique used in the ATSC system.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?
- A.
Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)-1
- B.
MPEG-2
- C.
MPEG-3
- D.
MPEG-4
Correct Answer
B. MPEG-2Explanation
MPEG-2 is the modulation technique used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission. MPEG-2 is a standard for encoding and decoding audio and video signals. It is widely used for broadcasting digital television signals and is specifically designed for cable transmission. It provides efficient compression and high-quality video and audio transmission, making it suitable for delivering digital content over cable networks.Rate this question:
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- 38.
How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920X1088 pixel frames prior to display?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
D. 8Explanation
In high-definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920X1088 pixel frames, 8 lines of video are discarded prior to display. This means that out of the 1088 lines in each frame, 8 lines are not shown on the screen.Rate this question:
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- 39.
How is information recorded or sotred on the videotape?
- A.
Series of magnetic patterns
- B.
Series of edited electrical patterns
- C.
Transferred current indents
- D.
Transferred voltage indents
Correct Answer
A. Series of magnetic patternsExplanation
Information is recorded or stored on a videotape through a series of magnetic patterns. These magnetic patterns are created and manipulated to represent the audio and video signals that make up the recorded information. The tape is passed over a magnetic head, which magnetizes the particles on the tape according to the patterns, allowing the information to be stored and retrieved when needed.Rate this question:
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- 40.
You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an
- A.
Magnet
- B.
Conductor
- C.
Electromagnet
- D.
Charged capacitor
Correct Answer
C. ElectromagnetExplanation
An electromagnet is the most suitable comparison to a video tape recorder (VTR) head. Both the VTR head and an electromagnet use magnetic fields to function. The VTR head uses a magnetic field to read and write data on a video tape, while an electromagnet uses a magnetic field created by an electric current to attract or repel objects. Therefore, the electromagnet is the best choice for comparison to a VTR head.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?
- A.
Fast Forward
- B.
Playback
- C.
Erasure
- D.
Rewind
Correct Answer
B. PlaybackExplanation
The function in a video tape recorder (VTR) that is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded is Playback. During playback, the VTR reads the recorded video signal from the tape and displays it on the screen or outputs it to another device for viewing. This allows the user to watch the previously recorded content at the original speed it was recorded.Rate this question:
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- 42.
An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for?
- A.
Minimizing video loss
- B.
Carring a video waveform
- C.
Minimizined signal dropout
- D.
Transmitting an analog waveform
Correct Answer
B. Carring a video waveformExplanation
Digital video is not primarily used for minimizing video loss or minimizing signal dropout. Instead, it is mainly used for carrying a video waveform. This means that digital video is a method of transmitting video signals in a digital format, allowing for more efficient and reliable transmission compared to analog methods. By converting the video waveform into digital data, it can be easily transmitted, stored, and processed without significant loss of quality.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording
- A.
Material can be edited generation after generation without noticable degradation in quality
- B.
Material can be regenerated when the signal is converted to a different digital domain
- C.
The material recorded can be cloned with noticeable loss of quality
- D.
The recorded material can be converted to a different digital domain
Correct Answer
A. Material can be edited generation after generation without noticable degradation in qualityExplanation
A major advantage of digital recording over analog recording is that material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality. This means that digital recordings can be manipulated and modified without any loss in the original audio quality. In contrast, analog recordings tend to degrade over time with each generation of copying or editing, resulting in a loss of fidelity and clarity. Therefore, the ability to edit digital recordings without degradation makes digital recording a preferred choice in many professional and creative industries.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19 mm wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?
- A.
D1
- B.
D2
- C.
D3
- D.
D4
Correct Answer
A. D1Explanation
D1 is the correct answer because it is the only digital video tape format that matches all the given specifications. D1 uses a 4:2:2 standard, has an 8 bit sampling rate, and uses a 19 mm wide tape. Additionally, D1 has a recording time of 94 minutes, which is the same as the one mentioned in the question. Therefore, D1 is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What is the means of measureing the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)
- A.
Tape meter
- B.
Tracker
- C.
Counter
- D.
Display clock
Correct Answer
C. CounterExplanation
A counter is a means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR). It keeps track of the duration of the recorded content, allowing users to easily navigate to specific points in the video. The counter displays the elapsed time in hours, minutes, and seconds, providing a convenient way to monitor the progress of the recording or playback.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?
- A.
Effects keyer
- B.
Effects preview multiplier
- C.
Effects program multiplier
- D.
Transition pattern generator
Correct Answer
A. Effects keyerExplanation
The effects keyer is the part of the video switcher that allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background. It is responsible for overlaying or superimposing these elements onto the main video feed.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with
- A.
Linear signal and chroma signal from the effects keyer
- B.
Key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal
- C.
Key bus keying signal or an internally-generated color matte signal
- D.
Luminance signal and chroma key signal from the effects keyer
Correct Answer
B. Key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signalExplanation
The GVG-110 video switcher can fill key effects with either a key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal. This means that the switcher can either use an external video source from the key bus or generate its own solid color background for the key effects.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The purpose of the GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow
- A.
Remote control of switcher transitions
- B.
Remote programming of all switcher functions
- C.
Parallel interface with the switcher effects memory
- D.
Serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory
Correct Answer
A. Remote control of switcher transitionsExplanation
The GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is designed to enable remote control of switcher transitions. This means that it allows users to control the switching between different sources or inputs on a switcher remotely, without having to physically operate the switcher itself. This can be useful in various applications such as live broadcasting, where the switcher transitions need to be controlled from a distance or automated for efficient workflow.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows?
- A.
Remote control of switcher transitions
- B.
Remote programming of all switcher functions
- C.
Serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory
- D.
Remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator
Correct Answer
D. Remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulatorExplanation
The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator. This means that users can control the switcher's functions and transitions from a computer or digital picture manipulator without needing to physically interact with the switcher itself. This provides convenience and flexibility in operating the switcher and allows for seamless integration with other digital systems.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?
- A.
60 Hz and 15,750 Hz
- B.
60 Hz and 5.5 Mhz
- C.
15,750 Hz and 4.5 Mhz
- D.
15,750 Hz and 5.5 Mhz
Correct Answer
B. 60 Hz and 5.5 MhzExplanation
The two common mode nulling adjustments in the video distribution amplifier are set at 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 02, 2011Quiz Created by
Woodjh
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