1.
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (officer and Enlisted)?
Correct Answer
D. Duty Position Task
Explanation
The correct answer is Duty Position Task. According to AFI 36-2201, Duty Position Tasks are assigned by the supervisor in accordance with the Classifying Military Personnel guidelines. These tasks are specific to the duties and responsibilities of a particular position and are used to evaluate the performance of individuals in that position.
2.
Which enlisted training element defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
Correct Answer
C. Core Competency
Explanation
A core competency is an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills that are specific to a particular career field. It encompasses the essential skills and expertise that individuals in that career field need to possess in order to perform their duties effectively.
3.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?
Correct Answer
D. Cyber Systems Operations
Explanation
Cyber Systems Operations is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) specifically deals with the administration of servers and server farms across Air Force installations globally. This role focuses on managing and maintaining the functionality and security of these systems, ensuring smooth operations and efficient communication within the Air Force network.
4.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?
Correct Answer
B. Client Systems
Explanation
The correct answer is Client Systems. Client Systems AFS responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions. This means that individuals in this role are responsible for providing technical support to users on the base, assisting with any issues or problems they may have with their computer systems, and performing maintenance tasks on these systems.
5.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of -sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
Correct Answer
D. Radio Frequency Transmission
Explanation
The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for tasks such as deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with various RF equipment to ensure proper transmission and reception of signals, and they play a crucial role in maintaining communication systems within the Air Force.
6.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?
Correct Answer
B. Ground Radar Systems
Explanation
Ground Radar Systems is the correct answer because this specialty is responsible for the installation, maintenance, and repair of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems. This includes ensuring the proper functioning of these radar systems, which are crucial for monitoring and controlling air traffic and providing weather information. Spectrum Operations deals with managing the electromagnetic spectrum, Cable and Antenna Systems involves the installation and maintenance of communication systems, and Radio Frequency Transmission focuses on transmitting and receiving radio signals.
7.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
Correct Answer
C. Cable and Antenna Systems
Explanation
The correct answer is Cable and Antenna Systems. Cable and Antenna Systems specialists are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. They ensure that the network wiring is properly installed and functioning, and they also troubleshoot and repair any issues that may arise. This role is crucial in ensuring that communication systems are operational and reliable for both fixed and deployed operations.
8.
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
Explanation
The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for advising on all matters affecting the career field. They have the authority and expertise to provide guidance and support to individuals within the career field, ensuring that they are on the right track and making informed decisions. The AFCFM is knowledgeable about the specific requirements, opportunities, and challenges within the career field and can provide valuable insights and recommendations to help individuals navigate their career paths effectively. They play a crucial role in shaping the development and success of individuals within the career field.
9.
Who is the finally authority to waive Career Field Education Training Plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) Career Development Course (CDC)?
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
Explanation
The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive Career Field Education Training Plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) Career Development Course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from certain training requirements based on their specific circumstances or qualifications. The Unit Training Manager (UTM), Base Functional Manager (BFM), and Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) may have some authority in training and career development matters, but the AFCFM has the ultimate decision-making authority in waiving CFETP requirements.
10.
Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
Correct Answer
C. Major Command functional Manager (MFM)
Explanation
The Major Command functional Manager (MFM) is responsible for assisting with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of specialty knowledge tests (SKT) and career development courses (CDC). The MFM is in a position of authority within the Air Force and has the knowledge and expertise to select individuals who are highly qualified and knowledgeable in the specific field or career area. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the SKTs and CDCs are developed by individuals who have the necessary expertise and can provide accurate and up-to-date information.
11.
What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
Correct Answer
B. Base Functional Manager (BFM)
Explanation
The correct answer is Base Functional Manager (BFM). This title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO). This suggests that the BFM is responsible for managing the functional aspects of the base, specifically in the realm of cyberspace. The BFM is likely in charge of overseeing and coordinating the various cyber-related activities and operations within the base, ensuring that they are carried out effectively and efficiently.
12.
What is the main goal of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
Correct Answer
B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
Explanation
The main goal of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to develop a comprehensive plan that outlines the education and training requirements for a specific career field. The CFETP helps to ensure that individuals in the career field receive the necessary training and education to perform their job effectively. By establishing a CFETP, the workshop helps to standardize and improve the training and development opportunities available to individuals in the career field.
13.
Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment?"
Correct Answer
A. 91-46
Explanation
The correct answer is 91-46. This Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard specifically pertains to safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment." Therefore, if you need to reference safety information related to this topic, you would consult AFOSH 91-46.
14.
Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?"
Correct Answer
B. 91-50
Explanation
The correct answer is 91-50. This Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would provide safety information specifically related to "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems."
15.
The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard
Correct Answer
C. 91-64
Explanation
The correct answer is 91-64. This is the AFOSH standard that provides safety information specifically for data processing facilities in the Air Force. It is important to reference this standard to ensure the safety and health of personnel working in these facilities.
16.
From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?
Correct Answer
D. Nonionizing Radiation
Explanation
Nonionizing radiation is the correct answer because it refers to radiation that does not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, causing damage to the DNA and other cellular structures. Unlike ionizing radiation, which includes X-rays and gamma rays, nonionizing radiation does not have sufficient energy to penetrate deep into tissues or cause immediate heating of the skin, resulting in little or no sensation of skin heating. However, prolonged exposure to nonionizing radiation can still cause harm to deep tissues and organs without the person realizing it.
17.
What Occupational Risk Management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resource to the lowest acceptable risk?
Correct Answer
A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
Explanation
The principle that states that the most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk is "Accept no unnecessary risk." This principle emphasizes the importance of minimizing risk to the extent possible while still achieving mission objectives. It highlights the need to carefully assess and evaluate risks, and to only accept risks that are necessary and essential for mission success. By following this principle, organizations can prioritize safety and minimize potential harm to personnel and resources.
18.
Which Occupation Risk Management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capablility?
Correct Answer
C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
Explanation
This principle of Occupation Risk Management (ORM) suggests that it is acceptable to take on risk when the benefits or advantages of doing so outweigh the costs or disadvantages. This means that before making a decision, one should carefully assess the potential risks and compare them to the potential benefits or opportunities. If the benefits are greater than the costs, it is reasonable to accept the risk.
19.
Which Occupational Risk Management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?
Correct Answer
D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
Explanation
The principle of integrating ORM into operations and planning at all levels means that risk assessments are conducted as a normal part of mission operations, rather than being seen as an additional step or process. This principle emphasizes the importance of considering and managing risks throughout the entire mission, ensuring that ORM is integrated into all aspects of planning and decision-making. By doing so, organizations can effectively identify and mitigate risks, making risk assessments a routine and integral part of mission operations.
20.
Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by
Correct Answer
C. Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace.
Explanation
Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying, or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace. This means that the aim is to prevent or hinder the adversary from effectively utilizing cyberspace for their own purposes, such as launching cyberattacks or gathering sensitive information. By taking offensive measures, the United States can weaken the adversary's capabilities and protect its own cyberspace infrastructure and sensitive data.
21.
Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
Correct Answer
D. Supervisory control and data acquisition.
Explanation
Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. SCADA systems are used in various industries such as energy, water, and transportation to gather real-time data, control and automate processes, and provide remote access and control capabilities. These systems play a crucial role in ensuring the efficient and safe operation of industrial sites by monitoring and managing various processes and equipment.
22.
Which center has overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)
Explanation
The Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) is the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks. This center is responsible for monitoring and managing the Air Force's network infrastructure, ensuring its security and availability. It serves as a central hub for network operations and provides support to other centers and units within the Air Force. The AFNOC plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and functionality of Air Force networks, making it the correct answer to the question.
23.
Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?
Correct Answer
B. Network Control Center (NCC)
Explanation
The Network Control Center (NCC) is typically aligned under the base communications squadron and provides Tier 3 on-site support. It is responsible for implementing technical and physical network changes. The NCC is the central hub for monitoring, managing, and controlling the network infrastructure at the local level. It ensures the smooth operation of the network and addresses any issues or changes that need to be made.
24.
Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?
Correct Answer
C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)
Explanation
The Combat Communications Squadron (CCS) is the correct answer because its mission varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages. This implies that the CCS is responsible for both smaller, portable communication setups as well as larger, more complex communication systems for air bases in expeditionary settings. The other options, Enterprise Service Units (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS), do not mention this specific variation in their mission.
25.
Which function or organization was established to operate with an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)?
Correct Answer
D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)
Explanation
The Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) was established to operate with an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF). An AETF is a rapidly deployable unit that provides command and control, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance capabilities in support of military operations. The ECS is responsible for setting up and maintaining communication networks in deployed locations, ensuring that vital information can be transmitted and received effectively. This function is crucial for the success of AETF missions, as it enables coordination and communication between different units and allows for real-time situational awareness.
26.
Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?
Correct Answer
A. Enterprise Service Units (ESU)
Explanation
The correct answer is Enterprise Service Units (ESU). ESUs are responsible for managing AF core services within the AFNetOps community. Their goal is to reduce training and maintenance costs, increase operational flexibility, and enhance capacity for the warfighter. They play a crucial role in ensuring efficient and effective service delivery, ultimately supporting the mission of the Air Force.
27.
What document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?
Correct Answer
A. Constitution
Explanation
The Constitution is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States. It is the supreme law of the land and outlines the structure of the government, the powers and limitations of each branch, and the rights and freedoms of the people. It serves as a framework for the legal system and provides the foundation for the rule of law in the country. The Bill of Rights, United States Title Code 10, and Uniform Code of Military Justice are all important legal documents, but they are not the primary basis for all federal laws.
28.
Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of the government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
Correct Answer
C. United States Title Code 10
Explanation
The correct answer is United States Title Code 10. This document, also known as the United States Code Title 10, is a federal law that outlines the organization and structure of the Department of Defense (DOD) and its subordinate agencies, including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. It authorizes the creation of the DOD as the executive component of the government and provides the legal framework for its operations and responsibilities.
29.
Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?
Correct Answer
D. Uniform Code of Military Justice
Explanation
The Uniform Code of Military Justice serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breaches in binding instruction and law. It is a federal law that applies to all members of the United States military and outlines the legal system for the military. It covers a wide range of offenses, including criminal behavior, disciplinary actions, and administrative procedures. The UCMJ ensures that military members are held to a high standard of conduct and provides a framework for maintaining discipline and order within the military.
30.
In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?
Correct Answer
B. 1995
Explanation
In 1995, the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD. This suggests that it was during this year that the two organizations came together to finalize their ideas and distribute them within the Department of Defense.
31.
In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?
Correct Answer
D. 1998
Explanation
The correct answer is 1998. This is because in August of 1998, the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine, while the Joint Staff also published its doctrine.
32.
Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulated actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Policy Directives
Explanation
Air Force Policy Directives are directive policy statements of the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF that initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct within their specified areas of responsibility. These directives provide clear and specific guidance on how certain actions should be carried out and are binding for all personnel within the Air Force. They serve as a means of ensuring consistency and standardization in the implementation of policies and procedures throughout the Air Force.
33.
Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents?
Correct Answer
A. Air Force PampHlets
Explanation
Air Force Pamphlets are the correct answer because they are informational publications that provide instructions on how to do something. Pamphlets are typically shorter and more concise than other types of publications, making them suitable for providing step-by-step guidance and practical advice on various topics. Air Force Instructions, Air Force Publications, and Air Force Policy Directives may contain information and instructions as well, but they are not specifically categorized as "how to" documents like Air Force Pamphlets.
34.
What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?
Correct Answer
C. Telecommunications
Explanation
Telecommunications is the correct answer because it refers to the technology and process of transmitting information over long distances using various means such as wires, cables, or wireless signals. This includes both analog and digital transmission of data, allowing us to communicate over significant geographical distances. Broadcasts, transmissions, and Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) are all related to telecommunications, but they do not encompass the entire concept.
35.
What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Portal
Explanation
The Air Force Portal is the correct answer because it is a tool that offers essential online resources for the Air Force and its users in one central location. It provides access to a variety of information and services that are crucial for Air Force personnel, such as training materials, news updates, forms, and communication tools. By using the Air Force Portal, users can easily access the resources they need without having to search through multiple platforms or websites.
36.
What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Portal
Explanation
The Air Force Portal is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces. This is because the Air Force Portal provides a centralized platform for accessing information, resources, and tools that are essential for the Air Force's information technology operations. It allows personnel to securely access and share information, collaborate on projects, and streamline administrative processes. Additionally, the Air Force Portal serves as a foundation program for other transformation task forces by providing a framework and infrastructure for implementing new technologies and initiatives across the Air Force.
37.
Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirements?
Correct Answer
B. Single-sign-on
Explanation
Single-sign-on is a feature that allows authorized users to enter their passwords once and gain access to all applications without the need for further log-in requirements. This feature enhances user convenience and efficiency by eliminating the need to remember multiple passwords for different applications. With single-sign-on, users can seamlessly navigate between various applications within the Air Force Portal without the hassle of repeated log-ins.
38.
Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?
Correct Answer
D. Virtual Military Personnel Flight
Explanation
The Virtual Military Personnel Flight is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal because it allows Air Force personnel to access their personnel records and perform various administrative tasks online. This feature saves time and effort by eliminating the need for personnel to physically visit the Military Personnel Flight office for routine tasks such as updating personal information, requesting leave, or accessing their service records. It provides a convenient and efficient way for Air Force members to manage their personnel-related tasks from anywhere with internet access.
39.
Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?
Correct Answer
C. Community of practice
Explanation
A community of practice is a feature on the Air Force Portal that provides a secure, web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic. It allows members of a group to share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and solve group problems. This feature fosters collaboration and knowledge sharing among individuals who have a common interest or expertise in a particular area, allowing them to learn from each other and collectively improve their skills and understanding.
40.
Which document would you refernce for guidance on "Web management and Internet use?"
Correct Answer
D. AFI 33-129
Explanation
AFI 33-129 would be the correct document to reference for guidance on "Web management and Internet use." This document likely contains specific guidelines, policies, and procedures that pertain to managing and using the web and the internet within a certain context or organization.
41.
Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?
Correct Answer
C. AFI 35-101
Explanation
AFI 35-101 is the correct document to reference for compliance with local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites. This document specifically addresses the procedures and guidelines for Air Force public web pages and provides the necessary information to ensure compliance with clearance and approval procedures.
42.
When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?
Correct Answer
C. Consistently use the "Reply-to-All" feature.
Explanation
Using the "Reply-to-All" feature consistently would not follow proper email etiquette. This feature should only be used when it is necessary for everyone in the email thread to receive the response. Using it unnecessarily can lead to cluttered inboxes and unnecessary notifications for recipients who do not need to be involved in the conversation. It is important to consider who needs to be included in the email and use the "Reply-to-All" feature sparingly to avoid unnecessary emails and confusion.
43.
Which document is not considered an official government record?
Correct Answer
D. Library reference or museum exhibitions
Explanation
Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by government agencies for the purpose of documenting official activities or transactions. While they may contain valuable information, they are typically curated by libraries or museums for educational or cultural purposes rather than serving as official records of government actions.
44.
Records that are considered to be in draft format
Correct Answer
A. Can be altered and are not officially released.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Can be altered and are not officially released." This means that records in draft format can be changed or modified and have not yet been officially released. These records are still in a preliminary stage and may undergo revisions before being finalized and officially released.
45.
Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?
Correct Answer
B. Officially signed and Officially released.
Explanation
Records that are considered to be in final format have the characteristic of being officially signed and officially released. This means that the records have been approved and authorized by the appropriate authority, and they have been made available to the intended recipients or the public. This ensures that the records are complete, accurate, and ready for use without any further modifications or changes.
46.
Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
Correct Answer
C. Command records manager
Explanation
The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role ensures that the base records managers are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively manage records within their respective bases. They play a crucial role in ensuring that records management processes and procedures are followed correctly and consistently throughout the organization.
47.
Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
Correct Answer
A. Base records manager
Explanation
The duties of a base records manager include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training. This role is responsible for ensuring that records are properly organized and maintained within a military base or organization. They assist in managing staging areas where records are stored and accessed when needed. Additionally, they provide training to personnel on how to properly handle and maintain records.
48.
Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
Correct Answer
D. Functional area records manager
Explanation
A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. They are responsible for managing and maintaining records within their specific functional area, ensuring compliance with record-keeping policies and procedures. This role is crucial in maintaining accurate and organized records, which are essential for the efficient operation of the Air Force organization or contractor.
49.
Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
Correct Answer
B. Chief of Office of Records
Explanation
The Chief of Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within the office, including the appointment of custodians who will be responsible for specific records. They have the highest level of authority within the office and are tasked with ensuring that records are properly managed and maintained according to established guidelines and regulations.
50.
A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an
Correct Answer
B. Record
Explanation
A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a record. Records are used to store and organize data in a structured manner, allowing for efficient retrieval and manipulation of information. Unlike a file, which is a collection of related records, a record represents a single entity or unit of data. While a database is a collection of related data organized and stored in a structured format, an enterprise refers to a larger organization or business entity.