3e951 Vol 2 Edit Code 8
- 1.
(201) The Air Force atomic, biological, chemical (ABC) warfare program in was formed in 1951 in response to proliferation of
- A.
Nuclear weapons after World War II by the Middle East.
- B.
Nuclear weapons after World War II by the Soviet Union.
- C.
Chemical weapons after World War II by the Middle East.
- D.
Chemical weapons after World War II by the Soviet Union.
Correct Answer
B. Nuclear weapons after World War II by the Soviet Union.Explanation
The correct answer is "nuclear weapons after World War II by the Soviet Union." This answer is supported by the information provided in the question, which states that the Air Force ABC warfare program was formed in response to the proliferation of nuclear weapons after World War II. The mention of the Soviet Union indicates that it was the Soviet Union, not the Middle East, that was responsible for this proliferation.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(201) What emergency management (EM) career field emblem was approved for use in 1966 by the US Army Institute of Heraldry, graphically symbolizes the components that make up the response elements, and is still in use today?
- A.
The base civil engineer (BCE) emblem.
- B.
The disaster control group (DCG) emblem.
- C.
The disaster response force (DRF) emblem.
- D.
The EM emblem.
Correct Answer
C. The disaster response force (DRF) emblem.Explanation
The correct answer is the disaster response force (DRF) emblem. This emblem was approved for use in 1966 by the US Army Institute of Heraldry and is still in use today. It graphically symbolizes the components that make up the response elements in emergency management (EM) career field.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(201) What career field award recognizes the best Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flights annually?
- A.
The 1Lt Joseph Terry award.
- B.
The SrA John L. Levitow award.
- C.
The General Eugene Lupia award.
- D.
The Colonel Fredrick J. Riemer award.
Correct Answer
D. The Colonel Fredrick J. Riemer award.Explanation
The Colonel Fredrick J. Riemer award recognizes the best Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flights annually.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(202) After the terrorist attacks on 11 September 2001, a significant change to emergency management and response was the implementation of the
- A.
Joint Task Force-Civil Support (JTF-CS).
- B.
Full Spectrum Threat Response (FSTR).24
- C.
National Incident Management System (NIMS).
- D.
Chemical Biological Incident Response Force (CBIRF).
Correct Answer
C. National Incident Management System (NIMS).Explanation
After the terrorist attacks on 11 September 2001, the implementation of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) was a significant change to emergency management and response. NIMS provides a comprehensive framework for managing incidents, including terrorism-related incidents, in a coordinated and effective manner. It establishes standardized procedures, protocols, and organizational structures to ensure seamless coordination between different agencies and jurisdictions involved in emergency response. NIMS also emphasizes the importance of interoperability and communication among responders, enabling a more efficient and effective response to emergencies.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(202) The Air Force complied with the directive to adopt the National Incident Management system (NIMS) by
- A.
Modifying installation plans.
- B.
Reorganizing emergency response agencies.
- C.
Modifying installation command and control operations.
- D.
Implementing the Air Force Incident Management System.
Correct Answer
D. Implementing the Air Force Incident Management System.Explanation
The correct answer is implementing the Air Force Incident Management System. This is because the question states that the Air Force complied with the directive to adopt the National Incident Management System (NIMS), and the most appropriate way to comply with this directive would be to implement their own incident management system, specifically designed for the Air Force. The other options, such as modifying installation plans or reorganizing emergency response agencies, do not directly address the adoption of the NIMS.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(202) The Air Force Chief of Staff (CSAF) approved the emergency management (EM) career field occupational badge in
- A.
2001.
- B.
2003.
- C.
2005.
- D.
2006.
Correct Answer
D. 2006.Explanation
In 2006, the Air Force Chief of Staff (CSAF) approved the emergency management (EM) career field occupational badge. This indicates that the badge was officially recognized and established within the Air Force during that year.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(202) What does the career field education and training plan (CFETP) state about wearing the emergency management (EM) occupational badge?
- A.
There is no stipulation.
- B.
Only active duty personnel must wear the CE and EM occupational badges.
- C.
You may wear the CE occupational badge with the EM occupational badge.
- D.
You must wear the Civil Engineering (CE) occupational badge with the EM occupational badge.
Correct Answer
D. You must wear the Civil Engineering (CE) occupational badge with the EM occupational badge.Explanation
The career field education and training plan (CFETP) states that you must wear the Civil Engineering (CE) occupational badge with the emergency management (EM) occupational badge.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(203) Which activities should include training and education as well as exercises, personnel qualifications, equipment certification, and the integration of planning and procedures?
- A.
Planning.
- B.
Prevention.
- C.
Operations.
- D.
Preparedness.
Correct Answer
D. Preparedness.Explanation
Preparedness activities should include training and education to ensure that personnel are equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills. It also involves conducting exercises to test and improve response capabilities. Personnel qualifications and equipment certification are essential components of preparedness to ensure that individuals are qualified to perform their roles and that equipment is reliable and functional. Additionally, preparedness involves the integration of planning and procedures to establish effective response strategies and protocols. Therefore, preparedness encompasses all the mentioned activities.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(203) Providing support in the emergency operations center (EOC), chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center, and unit control center (UCC) fall into what readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight mission set?
- A.
Planning.
- B.
Prevention.
- C.
Operations.
- D.
Preparedness.
Correct Answer
C. Operations.Explanation
Providing support in the emergency operations center (EOC), chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center, and unit control center (UCC) involves actively carrying out tasks and actions during an emergency situation. This aligns with the operations aspect of readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight mission set, where the focus is on executing plans, coordinating resources, and managing the response to emergencies.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(204) What determines the number of 3E9s assigned to a flight?
- A.
MAJCOM.
- B.
Size of the installation.
- C.
Manpower authorizations.
- D.
Installation threats/hazards.
Correct Answer
C. Manpower authorizations.Explanation
Manpower authorizations determine the number of 3E9s assigned to a flight. This means that the number of personnel authorized to work on a flight determines the number of 3E9s that will be assigned. The size of the installation, MAJCOM, and installation threats/hazards do not directly determine the number of 3E9s assigned to a flight.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(204) Who supervises the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight and analyzes the local threat of natural, technological, or man-made hazards?
- A.
Flight chief.
- B.
Superintendent.
- C.
The highest ranking 3E9.
- D.
Civil engineering squadron (CES) commander.
Correct Answer
A. Flight chief.Explanation
The flight chief is responsible for supervising the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight. They also analyze the local threat of natural, technological, or man-made hazards.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(204) Who is the key emergency management (EM) representative for the senior AF authority and will perform the duties necessary to properly train and educate airmen on AF specific requirements such as chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) passive defense?
- A.
EM section.
- B.
Operations element.
- C.
Civil Engineer squadron.
- D.
Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight.
Correct Answer
A. EM section.Explanation
The EM section is responsible for serving as the key emergency management representative for the senior AF authority. They are also tasked with training and educating airmen on AF specific requirements related to chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) passive defense.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(204) Which section is responsible for ensuring the civil engineer squadron accomplishes all Prime BEEF program requirements in accordance with AFI 10–210, Prime BEEF Program, and Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM) 10–219, Volume 8, Prime BEEF Management?
- A.
Planning section.
- B.
Operations section.
- C.
Emergency management section.
- D.
Expeditionary engineering section.
Correct Answer
D. Expeditionary engineering section.Explanation
The expeditionary engineering section is responsible for ensuring the civil engineer squadron accomplishes all Prime BEEF program requirements. This section is mentioned in AFI 10-210 and AFPAM 10-219, Volume 8, which are the governing documents for the Prime BEEF program. The other sections mentioned, such as planning, operations, and emergency management, may have their own responsibilities within the civil engineer squadron, but they are not specifically responsible for the Prime BEEF program requirements.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(205) Who do senior readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight personnel directly report to?
- A.
Major command (MAJCOM).
- B.
Wing commander.
- C.
Base civil engineer.
- D.
Mission support group (MSG) commander.
Correct Answer
C. Base civil engineer.Explanation
Senior readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight personnel directly report to the Base civil engineer. The Base civil engineer is responsible for overseeing all aspects of the base's infrastructure and facilities, including emergency management. As part of their role, they supervise the R&EM flight personnel who are responsible for ensuring the base is prepared for emergencies and coordinating response efforts. This ensures that the base is equipped to handle any potential emergencies and maintain readiness at all times.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(205) Who is responsible for ensuring unit emergency management (EM) programs are managed according to AFMAN 32–1007 and AFI 10–2501?
- A.
EM section.
- B.
Flight leadership.
- C.
Planning element.
- D.
Operations element.
Correct Answer
B. Flight leadership.Explanation
Flight leadership is responsible for ensuring unit emergency management (EM) programs are managed according to AFMAN 32-1007 and AFI 10-2501. This includes overseeing the implementation of emergency management procedures, coordinating with other sections and elements within the unit, and ensuring compliance with the relevant regulations and guidelines. Flight leadership plays a crucial role in ensuring the readiness and effectiveness of the unit's EM programs.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(206) Which of the following would not be included in the meeting agenda?
- A.
Location.
- B.
Date/Time.
- C.
Purpose of meeting.
- D.
List of people attending.
Correct Answer
D. List of people attending.Explanation
The meeting agenda typically includes the location, date/time, and purpose of the meeting. These details are necessary for participants to know when and where the meeting will take place and what it will be about. However, the list of people attending is not typically included in the meeting agenda as it is usually distributed separately as a participant list or attendance sheet.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(207) The emergency management (EM) program review is designed
- A.
As a means to correct problems.
- B.
For evaluation of civil engineer manning requirements.
- C.
For senior staff oversight and direction of the installation program.
- D.
To facilitate integration of all functional activities affecting the installation during contingencies.
Correct Answer
D. To facilitate integration of all functional activities affecting the installation during contingencies.Explanation
The correct answer is to facilitate integration of all functional activities affecting the installation during contingencies. This means that the emergency management program review is intended to ensure that all relevant activities are coordinated and integrated effectively during emergencies or contingencies. It helps to identify any gaps or issues in the functional activities and allows for appropriate adjustments to be made to ensure a smooth and efficient response to emergencies.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(207) After determining briefing topics, what is the next step in preparing for an Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG) meeting?
- A.
Conduct follow-up.
- B.
Prepare documentation.
- C.
Send out meeting minutes.
- D.
Schedule the time and place for the meeting.
Correct Answer
D. Schedule the time and place for the meeting.Explanation
The next step in preparing for an Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG) meeting is to schedule the time and place for the meeting. This is important because it ensures that all members of the group are aware of when and where the meeting will take place, allowing them to plan accordingly. Scheduling the meeting also helps to ensure that all necessary resources and facilities are available for the meeting to take place. Once the time and place are scheduled, the other steps such as conducting follow-up, preparing documentation, and sending out meeting minutes can be carried out in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(208) The Work Center Assignments option falls under which module of Automated Civil Engineering System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR)?
- A.
Readiness.
- B.
Personnel.
- C.
Recall Roster.
- D.
Additional Duties.
Correct Answer
B. Personnel.Explanation
The Work Center Assignments option falls under the Personnel module of Automated Civil Engineering System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR). This option is likely used to assign work centers to personnel within the system.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(208) Which module of Automated Civil Engineer System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR) allows the user to manage equipment, mobility, the Emergency Management (EM) Program, and stats?
- A.
Readiness.
- B.
Personnel.
- C.
Reference table.
- D.
Organization table.
Correct Answer
A. Readiness.Explanation
The Readiness module of Automated Civil Engineer System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR) allows the user to manage equipment, mobility, the Emergency Management (EM) Program, and stats. This module is specifically designed to handle all aspects related to readiness, including the management of equipment, mobility, and the EM Program. It provides the necessary tools and features to ensure that the organization is prepared and ready to respond to any emergency or situation.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(208) Which function of the Automated Civil Engineer System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR) Personnel module allows the user to add and modify records; view personnel history and/or move records to history; view, assign, and or delete additional duties; and assign personnel to work center positions?
- A.
Readiness.
- B.
Recall Roster.
- C.
Organization table.
- D.
Civil Engineering (CE) personnel.
Correct Answer
D. Civil Engineering (CE) personnel.Explanation
The correct answer is "Civil Engineering (CE) personnel." This option is the most relevant to the functions described in the question. The ACES-PR Personnel module allows the user to add and modify records, view personnel history, move records to history, view, assign, and delete additional duties, and assign personnel to work center positions. All of these functions are directly related to managing and organizing Civil Engineering personnel within the system.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(209) Which emergency management (EM) section element is responsible for all Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flight equipment?
- A.
Planning.
- B.
Training.
- C.
Logistics.
- D.
Operations.
Correct Answer
C. Logistics.Explanation
The Logistics section element is responsible for all Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flight equipment. This includes procuring, storing, and maintaining the necessary equipment for emergency management operations. They ensure that all equipment is ready and available for use during emergencies and coordinate with other sections to ensure proper distribution and utilization of resources.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(209) Checklists for readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight equipment must be prepared within how many days after the new equipment is received?
- A.
30 days.
- B.
60 days.
- C.
120 days.
- D.
365 days.
Correct Answer
A. 30 days.Explanation
Checklists for readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight equipment must be prepared within 30 days after the new equipment is received. This ensures that the equipment is properly inspected, tested, and ready for use in case of an emergency. It is important to have these checklists in place to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the equipment during flight operations.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(209) Which element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight is responsible for regularly reviewing EM-related allowance standards to determine if authorizations for accountable equipment items have been added, deleted, or changed?
- A.
Operations.
- B.
Logistics.
- C.
Planning.
- D.
Training.
Correct Answer
B. Logistics.Explanation
The element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight that is responsible for regularly reviewing EM-related allowance standards to determine if authorizations for accountable equipment items have been added, deleted, or changed is Logistics.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(210) What document provides basic allowances of equipment normally required by Air Force activities and individuals for accomplishing the assigned mission, tasks, or duties?
- A.
Allowance standard.
- B.
Program element code.
- C.
Equipment authorization.
- D.
Equipment supply listing (ESL).
Correct Answer
A. Allowance standard.Explanation
The correct answer is "Allowance standard." The allowance standard is a document that provides the basic allowances of equipment needed by Air Force activities and individuals to carry out their assigned missions, tasks, or duties. It outlines the specific equipment that should be available and the quantities required. This document ensures that the necessary equipment is provided to support the operational needs of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(210) Which of the following would not be found in an allowance standard?
- A.
Vehicles.
- B.
Communication equipment.
- C.
War reserve material (WRM).
- D.
Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) equipment.
Correct Answer
C. War reserve material (WRM).Explanation
An allowance standard is a document that specifies the types and quantities of equipment and supplies needed for a specific purpose or mission. It helps in ensuring that the necessary resources are available when required. In this context, vehicles, communication equipment, and chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) equipment are all essential components that would typically be included in an allowance standard. However, war reserve material (WRM) refers to the stockpile of equipment and supplies specifically reserved for use during times of war or other emergencies. Since an allowance standard is focused on regular operations rather than emergency situations, WRM would not be found in an allowance standard.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(210) Which of the following is not a suitable reason to request changes to an allowance standard?
- A.
When allowances are excessive.
- B.
When allowances are inadequate.
- C.
When broken equipment needs to be repaired.
- D.
When equipment is unsuitable for peacetime or wartime.
Correct Answer
C. When broken equipment needs to be repaired.Explanation
When broken equipment needs to be repaired is not a suitable reason to request changes to an allowance standard because allowances standards refer to the quantity or amount of supplies or equipment that are authorized to be issued to individuals or units. The repair of broken equipment falls under maintenance and repair procedures, which are separate from allowances standards.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(210) Items not in an allowance standard, but required by an organization to perform its mission, may be obtained as
- A.
Special allowances.
- B.
Special requirements.
- C.
Unfunded requirements.
- D.
Unauthorized allowances.
Correct Answer
A. Special allowances.Explanation
Items that are not included in an allowance standard but are necessary for an organization to carry out its mission can be obtained through special allowances. This means that the organization can acquire these items outside of the standard allowance system in order to meet its specific needs and requirements.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(210) What is used to authorize a required item that is not in an allowance standard but is already on hand?
- A.
Reprieve request.
- B.
Retention authority.
- C.
Special allowance request.
- D.
Equipment authorization request.
Correct Answer
B. Retention authority.Explanation
Retention authority is used to authorize a required item that is not in an allowance standard but is already on hand. This means that even though the item is not officially included in the standard list of authorized items, it can still be retained and used if there is a specific need or justification for it. This allows for flexibility in situations where certain items may be necessary but not explicitly mentioned in the standard allowances.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(210) Temporarily required items are items needed for a period of
- A.
45 calendar days or less.
- B.
89 calendar days or less.
- C.
180 calendar days or less.
- D.
364 calendar days or less.
Correct Answer
C. 180 calendar days or less.Explanation
Temporarily required items are items that are needed for a specific period of time and not on a permanent basis. The correct answer is 180 calendar days or less because this timeframe encompasses a longer duration compared to the other options. It allows for a sufficient amount of time to use the items before they are no longer needed.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(210) Unless otherwise directed by the secretary of defense (SecDef), installations may not stock supplies solely for
- A.
War reserve materiel (WRM).
- B.
Defense support to civil authorities (DSCA).
- C.
Military operations other than war (MOOTW).
- D.
Active chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) response.
Correct Answer
B. Defense support to civil authorities (DSCA).Explanation
The correct answer is defense support to civil authorities (DSCA). This is because the question states that unless otherwise directed by the secretary of defense (SecDef), installations may not stock supplies solely for a specific purpose. Therefore, installations are allowed to stock supplies for defense support to civil authorities (DSCA) unless directed otherwise by the SecDef.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(210) What is the key to logistics?
- A.
Carefully planning your budget.
- B.
Effective inventory management.
- C.
Determining equipment requirements.
- D.
Ensuring you stock enough spare parts.
Correct Answer
B. Effective inventory management.Explanation
Effective inventory management is the key to logistics because it ensures that the right amount of inventory is available at the right time and in the right place. This helps in minimizing stockouts and excess inventory, reducing costs, and improving customer satisfaction. By managing inventory effectively, companies can optimize their supply chain operations, streamline processes, and maintain a balance between supply and demand.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(210) Which of the following is not one of the four basic steps to the inventory management process?
- A.
Determining requirements.
- B.
Accounting for equipment on-hand.
- C.
Establishing equipment turn-in procedures.
- D.
Actively addressing the shortfalls and overages.
Correct Answer
C. Establishing equipment turn-in procedures.Explanation
The correct answer is "Establishing equipment turn-in procedures." This is not one of the four basic steps to the inventory management process. The four basic steps are determining requirements, accounting for equipment on-hand, actively addressing the shortfalls and overages, and establishing equipment turn-in procedures.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(210) Which system is a cross-service Web-enabled automated tracking system designed to initiate, process, and track equipment deficiency reports from the warfighter through the investigation process?
- A.
Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS).
- B.
Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
- C.
Automated Civil Engineer System – Personnel Readiness (ACES-PR).
- D.
Joint Acquisition Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN) Knowledge System (JACKS).
Correct Answer
A. Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS).Explanation
The correct answer is the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS). This system is specifically designed to handle equipment deficiency reports from the warfighter and track them through the investigation process. It is a cross-service Web-enabled automated tracking system, making it accessible to multiple branches of the military. The other options listed are not designed for this specific purpose.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(210) Who must identify requirements and then budget for, obtain, store, and maintain materiel needed to accomplish their specific function’s emergency management (EM) tasks in support of response plans?
- A.
Each major command (MAJCOM).
- B.
Unit commanders.
- C.
Wing commanders
- D.
Each individual flight.
Correct Answer
B. Unit commanders.Explanation
Unit commanders must identify requirements and then budget for, obtain, store, and maintain materiel needed to accomplish their specific function's emergency management (EM) tasks in support of response plans. This responsibility falls on unit commanders as they are responsible for the overall management and operations of their unit, including emergency management. They are in the best position to understand the specific needs and requirements of their unit and allocate resources accordingly. Major commands (MAJCOM), wing commanders, and individual flights may have their own roles and responsibilities within the emergency management framework, but the primary responsibility for identifying requirements and managing materiel lies with unit commanders.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(210) The types and quantities of passive defense equipment needed by forces in the area of employment are specified in
- A.
The status of forces agreements.
- B.
AFI 10–2501 and AFMAN 32–1007.
- C.
The logistics portions of war and contingency plans.
- D.
The Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2.
Correct Answer
C. The logistics portions of war and contingency plans.Explanation
The types and quantities of passive defense equipment needed by forces in the area of employment are specified in the logistics portions of war and contingency plans. These plans outline the necessary equipment and resources required to effectively defend and protect forces in various operational scenarios. The logistics portions of these plans ensure that the appropriate passive defense equipment is available and allocated correctly to support the mission objectives and ensure the safety and security of the forces.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(210) What must you do prior to starting any equipment task?
- A.
Review all applicable technical orders (TO) for familiarization with the latest procedures.
- B.
Request the latest copy of the TO for the specific equipment item you are using.
- C.
Complete an operations check and document any discrepancies.
- D.
Review the equipment operations checklist.
Correct Answer
A. Review all applicable technical orders (TO) for familiarization with the latest procedures.Explanation
Prior to starting any equipment task, it is important to review all applicable technical orders (TO) for familiarization with the latest procedures. This ensures that you have the most up-to-date information and instructions on how to safely and effectively operate the equipment. It helps to prevent any errors or accidents that may occur due to outdated or incorrect procedures. By reviewing the technical orders, you can ensure that you are following the correct steps and guidelines for the task at hand.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(210) Members appointed as technical order (TO) distribution account (TODA) representatives must complete training within how many days of assignment?
- A.
10 days.
- B.
30 days.
- C.
60 days.
- D.
90 days.
Correct Answer
D. 90 days.Explanation
Members appointed as technical order (TO) distribution account (TODA) representatives must complete training within 90 days of assignment. This timeframe allows the representatives to acquire the necessary knowledge and skills required for their role. It ensures that they are adequately trained to handle the responsibilities and tasks associated with TO distribution. Completing the training within 90 days also helps to maintain efficiency and effectiveness in the distribution process, ensuring that technical orders are disseminated accurately and in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(210) In chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) threat areas, who must store and maintain pre-positioned materiel for additive forces according to theater reinforcement plans, base support plans, and joint support plans?
- A.
Installation commanders.
- B.
MAJCOM commanders.
- C.
Unit commanders.
- D.
Individual flights.
Correct Answer
A. Installation commanders.Explanation
In chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) threat areas, installation commanders are responsible for storing and maintaining pre-positioned materiel for additive forces according to theater reinforcement plans, base support plans, and joint support plans. This means that installation commanders have the authority and accountability to ensure that the necessary resources are readily available in these threat areas to support the mission and protect the personnel. MAJCOM commanders, unit commanders, and individual flights may have their own roles and responsibilities, but in this specific context, it is the installation commanders who have the primary responsibility for pre-positioned materiel.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(210) Who ensures unit materiel, including materiel in bulk storage, is stored in facilities that provide security, accessibility, and protection from fire, extreme weather, temperature, dust, and humidity?
- A.
Installation commanders.
- B.
MAJCOM commanders.
- C.
Unit commanders.
- D.
Individual flights.
Correct Answer
C. Unit commanders.Explanation
Unit commanders ensure that unit materiel, including materiel in bulk storage, is stored in facilities that provide security, accessibility, and protection from fire, extreme weather, temperature, dust, and humidity. They are responsible for overseeing the storage and maintenance of the unit's equipment and supplies to ensure they are properly protected and readily available when needed.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(211) The readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight’s training element develops and maintains master lesson plans for instructor-led courses using available instructor guides created by
- A.
AF/A7CV.
- B.
AF/A7CXR
- C.
AFCEC/CXR.
- D.
AFCEC/CXX.
Correct Answer
C. AFCEC/CXR.Explanation
The readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight's training element develops and maintains master lesson plans for instructor-led courses using available instructor guides created by AFCEC/CXR. This means that AFCEC/CXR is responsible for creating the instructor guides that are used to develop the lesson plans for these courses.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(211) When emergency management (EM) training is completed the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight’s training element updates
- A.
Automated Civil Engineer System – Personnel Readiness (ACES-PR).
- B.
Automated Civil Engineer System – Resource Module- ACES-RM).
- C.
ACES-PM Unit Scheduler.
- D.
ACES-PR Unit Scheduler.
Correct Answer
A. Automated Civil Engineer System – Personnel Readiness (ACES-PR).Explanation
When emergency management (EM) training is completed, the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight's training element updates the Automated Civil Engineer System - Personnel Readiness (ACES-PR). This suggests that the ACES-PR is the appropriate system to track and manage personnel readiness in emergency management. The other options, ACES-RM and ACES-PM Unit Scheduler, do not specifically mention personnel readiness and are therefore not the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(212) When formal training slots are available, individual mobilization augmentees should be
- A.
Scheduled before active duty personnel to ensure they receive the training quickly.
- B.
Scheduled after all active duty personnel have been scheduled.
- C.
Scheduled only if the active duty personnel cannot attend.
- D.
Given the same consideration as active duty personnel.
Correct Answer
D. Given the same consideration as active duty personnel.Explanation
Individual mobilization augmentees should be given the same consideration as active duty personnel when formal training slots are available. This means that they should be scheduled and given priority for training just like active duty personnel, ensuring that they receive the training quickly. This recognizes the importance of their role and the need to ensure they are adequately trained and prepared for their responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(212) What can help to evaluate training issues by considering topics previously covered, thus overcoming the urge to teach favorite topics and neglect other critical areas when conducting in-house training?
- A.
Proper documentation.
- B.
A rigid training schedule.
- C.
Selecting instructors that are already experts on the topic being covered.
- D.
Selecting instructors that are not experts on the topic and challenging them to research the topic.
Correct Answer
A. Proper documentation.Explanation
Proper documentation can help evaluate training issues by considering topics previously covered. It ensures that all the essential areas are addressed and prevents the tendency to focus only on favorite topics. With proper documentation, trainers can review the training materials and assess if all critical areas have been covered adequately. It also allows for easy tracking and monitoring of the training progress, making it easier to identify any gaps or areas that need improvement. Ultimately, proper documentation helps ensure a comprehensive and well-rounded training program.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(213) How often must the installation Disaster Response Force’s (DRF) ability to respond to adversarial/human-caused, technological/accidental, and natural threats outlined in the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2 be exercised?
- A.
Every quarter.
- B.
Twice a year.
- C.
Annually.
- D.
Every 2 years.
Correct Answer
C. Annually.Explanation
The installation Disaster Response Force (DRF) is required to exercise their ability to respond to adversarial, technological, and natural threats outlined in the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) annually. This means that they must conduct these exercises once every year to ensure that they are prepared and capable of responding effectively to any emergency situation.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Who is responsible for exercising the ability to conduct deployed combat operations?
- A.
All AF units.
- B.
AF units in overseas areas.
- C.
Any unit with a wartime mission.
- D.
AF units identified by the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS).
Correct Answer
C. Any unit with a wartime mission.Explanation
Any unit with a wartime mission is responsible for exercising the ability to conduct deployed combat operations. This means that units that have been assigned a specific mission during times of war are expected to be able to carry out combat operations in a deployed setting. This responsibility does not apply to all AF units or AF units in overseas areas, but specifically to those units that have a wartime mission. The Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) may identify specific AF units for this responsibility, but it is not limited to those units alone.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(213) Which component of the simple, attainable, measurable, and task-oriented (SMART) approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to remember that exercises are conducted during a limited timeframe and objectives must be able to be met during that time?
- A.
Simple
- B.
Attainable
- C.
Measurable.
- D.
Task-oriented
Correct Answer
B. AttainableExplanation
The component of the SMART approach that encourages developers to remember the limited timeframe of exercises and ensures that objectives can be met within that time is "Attainable". This means that the objectives should be realistic and achievable within the given constraints.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(213) Which component of the simple, attainable, measurable, and task-oriented (SMART) approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to focus on specific operations or tasks to be completed?
- A.
Simple.
- B.
Attainable.
- C.
Measurable.
- D.
Task-oriented.
Correct Answer
D. Task-oriented.Explanation
The task-oriented component of the SMART approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to focus on specific operations or tasks to be completed. This means that the objectives should clearly define the actions or activities that need to be performed in order to achieve the desired outcome. By setting task-oriented objectives, developers can ensure that the exercise is designed with specific actions in mind, making it easier to measure progress and determine if the objectives have been met.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(214) What is the first step in establishing an effective “Be Ready” Awareness Campaign?
- A.
Identify requirements.
- B.
Plan for execution.
- C.
Budget for items.
- D.
Hazard analysis.
Correct Answer
D. Hazard analysis.Explanation
The first step in establishing an effective "Be Ready" Awareness Campaign is to conduct a hazard analysis. This involves identifying potential hazards and assessing their likelihood and potential impact. By conducting a hazard analysis, organizations can gain a better understanding of the specific risks they face and develop appropriate strategies to mitigate them. This step is crucial in ensuring that the campaign addresses the most relevant and significant hazards, maximizing its effectiveness in promoting preparedness and resilience.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(215) Which element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight ensures emergency support function (ESF)–5 has the ability to provide core management functions in the emergency operations center (EOC)?
- A.
Planning.
- B.
Training.
- C.
Logistics.
- D.
Operations.
Correct Answer
D. Operations.Explanation
The element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight that ensures emergency support function (ESF)-5 has the ability to provide core management functions in the emergency operations center (EOC) is Operations. Operations is responsible for coordinating and directing all activities in the EOC during an emergency. They ensure that ESF-5, which focuses on information and planning, has the necessary resources and support to carry out its functions effectively. Operations plays a crucial role in managing the overall response and ensuring smooth operations within the EOC.Rate this question:
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 22, 2016Quiz Created by
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