3m051b Volume 2. Fitness And Recreation
3M051B 02 1009, Edit Code 05; Test is used to guage Airmans progress in their CDCs.
- 1.
Who has the authority to alter the hours of operation of the fitness center (FC)?
- A.
Fitness center director (FCD).
- B.
Fitness center (FC) monitor.
- C.
Installation commander.
- D.
Services combat support chief.
Correct Answer
C. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander has the authority to alter the hours of operation of the fitness center. As the highest-ranking official in charge of the installation, they have the power to make decisions and changes regarding various aspects, including the operating hours of facilities like the fitness center. The fitness center director may have some input or recommendations, but ultimately, it is the installation commander who has the final say in determining the hours of operation. The fitness center monitor and services combat support chief may have responsibilities related to the fitness center but do not have the authority to alter its hours of operation.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What are three of the elements managers must consider when determining operational hours for the fitness center (FC)?
- A.
Patrons, programs, and funding.
- B.
Patrons, funding, and staff training requirements.
- C.
Mission, patrons, and staff training requirements.
- D.
Mission, staff training requirements, and funding.
Correct Answer
A. Patrons, programs, and funding.Explanation
Managers must consider the patrons, programs, and funding when determining operational hours for the fitness center. The number of patrons and their preferences play a crucial role in deciding the hours of operation to ensure maximum utilization. The availability and scheduling of programs and classes also need to be taken into account to accommodate different interests and needs. Additionally, funding is an important factor as it determines the resources available to support the operational hours and maintain the facility.Rate this question:
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- 3.
After hours use of Air Force (AF) fitness centers (FC)
- A.
Ensures staff members are available to supervise team sports.
- B.
Allows AF members working swing shift to participate in sports programs.
- C.
Allows all AF members and their families’ unlimited use of the fitness centers.
- D.
Increases the opportunity for damage and theft and often interferes with custodial contract cleaning.
Correct Answer
D. Increases the opportunity for damage and theft and often interferes with custodial contract cleaning.Explanation
The correct answer states that after hours use of Air Force fitness centers increases the opportunity for damage and theft and often interferes with custodial contract cleaning. This means that allowing people to use the fitness centers outside of regular hours can lead to increased risk of damage and theft, as well as difficulties in maintaining cleanliness and fulfilling custodial contracts.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Age limits are established in the fitness center (FC) to
- A.
Ensure a safe environment for all fitness center customers exist.
- B.
Ensure youth coaches are available to supervise underage customers.
- C.
Allow unlimited use to all age groups as long as supervision is available.
- D.
Allow all family members unlimited use as long as supervision is available.
Correct Answer
A. Ensure a safe environment for all fitness center customers exist.Explanation
The age limits in the fitness center are established to ensure a safe environment for all customers. By setting age limits, the fitness center can ensure that individuals of appropriate age and physical maturity are using the equipment and facilities, reducing the risk of accidents or injuries. This helps create a safer environment for everyone using the fitness center, regardless of their age or fitness level.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Who can suspend or terminate Force Support Squadron (FSS) facility or program use of eligible personnel?
- A.
Services commander.
- B.
Fitness center director (FCD).
- C.
Installation commander.
- D.
Major command (MAJCOM).
Correct Answer
C. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander has the authority to suspend or terminate Force Support Squadron (FSS) facility or program use of eligible personnel. This means that the commander has the power to stop or end the use of FSS facilities or programs by individuals who are eligible to use them. This decision is within the jurisdiction of the installation commander, who has the overall responsibility for managing and overseeing the operations of the installation.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A sponsored guest in a service facility has the same priority as
- A.
The sponsor.
- B.
Provided by the major command (MAJCOM).
- C.
Provided by the hosting Services flight.
- D.
Provided by the installation commander.
Correct Answer
A. The sponsor.Explanation
The correct answer is "the sponsor." In a service facility, a sponsored guest is given the same priority as their sponsor. This means that they have equal access to the services and facilities provided by the major command, the hosting Services flight, and the installation commander.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which areas demand constant monitoring to maintain the highest degree of health and sanitation standards?
- A.
Exercise rooms, equipment rooms, and locker rooms.
- B.
Exercise rooms, equipment rooms, and latrines.
- C.
Latrines, locker rooms, and equipment rooms.
- D.
Latrines, locker rooms, and showers.
Correct Answer
D. Latrines, locker rooms, and showers.Explanation
Latrines, locker rooms, and showers demand constant monitoring to maintain the highest degree of health and sanitation standards. These areas are prone to the accumulation of germs, bacteria, and other contaminants due to the high level of human activity and moisture present. Regular monitoring and cleaning are necessary to prevent the spread of diseases and maintain a clean and healthy environment for users.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is typically the fitness center’s (FC) most overlooked sanitation problem?
- A.
Bacteria on the shower floors.
- B.
Bacteria in the locker rooms.
- C.
Perspiration residue.
- D.
Whirlpool bacteria.
Correct Answer
C. Perspiration residue.Explanation
Perspiration residue is typically the fitness center's most overlooked sanitation problem. While bacteria on the shower floors and in the locker rooms are also important to address, perspiration residue often goes unnoticed. This residue can accumulate on gym equipment, mats, and other surfaces, creating an ideal environment for bacteria growth and unpleasant odors. Regular cleaning and disinfection of these surfaces are essential to maintain a hygienic environment in the fitness center.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the greatest hazard to wood floors?
- A.
Dirt.
- B.
Sand.
- C.
Standing water.
- D.
Perspiration residue.
Correct Answer
C. Standing water.Explanation
Standing water is the greatest hazard to wood floors because it can seep into the wood, causing it to warp, swell, or even rot. This can lead to permanent damage and the need for costly repairs or replacement. Dirt and sand can scratch the surface of the wood, but they can be easily cleaned or removed. Perspiration residue may leave a temporary stain, but it can also be cleaned. However, standing water poses the most significant and long-lasting threat to the integrity and longevity of wood floors.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who should you involve in the daily general inspection of each piece of fitness equipment?
- A.
Fitness staff and users of the equipment.
- B.
Base civil engineering and fitness staff.
- C.
Fitness staff and base civil engineering.
- D.
Users of equipment and base civil engineering.
Correct Answer
A. Fitness staff and users of the equipment.Explanation
The daily general inspection of each piece of fitness equipment should involve both the fitness staff and the users of the equipment. This is because the fitness staff are responsible for maintaining and ensuring the proper functioning of the equipment, while the users can provide valuable feedback on any issues or concerns they may have noticed during their workout sessions. By involving both parties, any potential problems can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring the safety and efficiency of the equipment for all users.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Daily sanitation of weight room equipment consists of cleaning
- A.
Benches, floors, and seats only.
- B.
Benches, equipment, and floors.
- C.
Equipment, seats, pads, and benches only.
- D.
Seats, pads, benches, and frames of machines.
Correct Answer
D. Seats, pads, benches, and frames of machines.Explanation
The correct answer is "seats, pads, benches, and frames of machines." This answer includes all the necessary items that need to be cleaned in the weight room. Cleaning the seats, pads, benches, and frames of machines ensures that all areas where users come into contact with the equipment are sanitized. This helps maintain a hygienic environment and reduces the risk of spreading germs and bacteria.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is used to clean corrosion from dumbbells and barbells and how often should you clean them?
- A.
Steel wool and clean weekly.
- B.
Steel wool and clean monthly.
- C.
An approved cleaning solution and clean monthly.
- D.
An approved cleaning solution and follow manufacturers cleaning schedule.
Correct Answer
B. Steel wool and clean monthly.Explanation
Steel wool is used to clean corrosion from dumbbells and barbells. It is recommended to clean them monthly using steel wool.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is used to lubricate runner guides?
- A.
Mineral spirits.
- B.
Dry Teflon spray.
- C.
Grease.
- D.
Oil.
Correct Answer
B. Dry Teflon spray.Explanation
Dry Teflon spray is used to lubricate runner guides because it provides a dry, non-sticky coating that reduces friction and prevents the guides from sticking or binding. Unlike grease or oil, which can attract dirt and debris, dry Teflon spray creates a smooth, slippery surface that allows the runners to move freely and smoothly. Additionally, Teflon spray is resistant to high temperatures and does not evaporate or dry out quickly, making it a long-lasting lubricant for runner guides.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Fitness center staff (FCS) can decrease the chance of fitness equipment failure by
- A.
Allowing only those staff members who are certified to repair the equipment.
- B.
Allowing only the manufacturers of the equipment do the repairs.
- C.
Using commercial equipment grade equipment companies with solid warranties and maintenance assistance.
- D.
Completing AF Form 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request, for repairs beyond your control.
Correct Answer
C. Using commercial equipment grade equipment companies with solid warranties and maintenance assistance.Explanation
By using commercial equipment grade equipment companies with solid warranties and maintenance assistance, the fitness center staff can ensure that the equipment is of high quality and reliable. These companies typically provide equipment that is built to withstand heavy usage and offer warranties and maintenance assistance, which can help prevent equipment failure. This approach also ensures that only certified professionals are involved in repairing the equipment, further reducing the chance of failure.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What areas of fitness centers (FC) excellence are considered in order to receive 5-Star Program recognition?
- A.
Training, facilities, and budgets.
- B.
Training, operations, and facilities.
- C.
Facilities, budgets, and operations.
- D.
Facilities, operations, and equipment.
Correct Answer
B. Training, operations, and facilities.Explanation
The areas of fitness centers (FC) excellence that are considered in order to receive 5-Star Program recognition are training, operations, and facilities. This means that the fitness center must have excellent training programs for its staff, efficient and effective operations, and well-maintained and high-quality facilities.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The Air Force Fitness Center 5-Star Recognition Program was developed to
- A.
Recognize fitness center directors (FCD).
- B.
Recognize services squadron commanders.
- C.
Ensure facilities are kept up.
- D.
Ensure customers receive the best.
Correct Answer
D. Ensure customers receive the best.Explanation
The correct answer is "ensure customers receive the best." The Air Force Fitness Center 5-Star Recognition Program was developed to ensure that customers receive the best services. This program aims to recognize and reward fitness center directors who consistently provide high-quality facilities and services to the customers. By implementing this program, the Air Force aims to maintain and improve the standards of their fitness centers, ultimately ensuring the satisfaction and well-being of their customers.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which on-base agency can provide supplemental training for staff members working in fitness centers (FC)?
- A.
Basic life support (BLS).
- B.
The American Red Cross.
- C.
Health and wellness center (HAWC).
- D.
American Heart Association.
Correct Answer
C. Health and wellness center (HAWC).Explanation
The Health and Wellness Center (HAWC) is the on-base agency that can provide supplemental training for staff members working in fitness centers. This is because the HAWC is specifically focused on health and wellness, which includes fitness and exercise. They would have the expertise and resources to provide training in areas such as basic life support (BLS) and other relevant topics for fitness center staff members. The American Red Cross and American Heart Association may also offer training in BLS, but they are not specifically tailored to fitness center staff members like the HAWC would be.Rate this question:
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- 18.
How many fitness center (FC) staff members must successfully complete an advanced fitness course?
- A.
A minimum of four or 40 percent.
- B.
A minimum of three or 30 percent.
- C.
A minimum of two or 20 percent.
- D.
At least one or 10 percent.
Correct Answer
C. A minimum of two or 20 percent.Explanation
To determine the number of fitness center staff members that must successfully complete an advanced fitness course, we need to find the minimum requirement. The answer states that a minimum of two staff members or 20 percent must complete the course. This means that if the total number of staff members is less than ten, at least two of them must complete the course. If there are more than ten staff members, the minimum requirement is still two, but the percentage may be higher than 20. Therefore, the correct answer is a minimum of two or 20 percent.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How often should managers document emergency plan and procedures training?
- A.
As mandated by the base fire chief.
- B.
As required by the base operations plan.
- C.
Quarterly and as new members are assigned.
- D.
Semiannually and as new members are assigned.
Correct Answer
C. Quarterly and as new members are assigned.Explanation
Managers should document emergency plan and procedures training on a quarterly basis and whenever new members are assigned. This ensures that all employees are regularly trained and updated on the emergency protocols. It also helps in keeping the emergency plan up to date and relevant.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The end of bones are covered with a layer of cartilage called
- A.
Articular cartilage.
- B.
Cancellous bone.
- C.
Compact bone.
- D.
Fontanel.
Correct Answer
A. Articular cartilage.Explanation
The correct answer is articular cartilage. Articular cartilage is a layer of smooth, white tissue that covers the ends of bones where they come together to form joints. It acts as a cushion, reducing friction and allowing smooth movement of the bones in the joint. Cancellous bone refers to the spongy, porous inner layer of bone, while compact bone refers to the dense outer layer. Fontanel refers to the soft spots on a baby's skull.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Where are the nerves and blood vessels located in bones?
- A.
Within the endosteum.
- B.
Beneath the compact bone.
- C.
Within the medullar cavity.
- D.
Beneath the cancellous bone.
Correct Answer
C. Within the medullar cavity.Explanation
The medullary cavity is the central cavity of long bones where bone marrow is located. This cavity contains nerves and blood vessels that supply nutrients and oxygen to the bone cells. Therefore, the correct answer is "Within the medullar cavity."Rate this question:
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- 22.
Where are sesamoid bones usually located?
- A.
Within tendons.
- B.
Within the endosteum.
- C.
Beneath the cancellous bone.
- D.
Beneath the compact bone.
Correct Answer
A. Within tendons.Explanation
Sesamoid bones are usually located within tendons. These small, round bones are embedded within the tendons, which are connective tissues that attach muscles to bones. The presence of sesamoid bones within tendons helps to reduce friction and pressure on the tendons, allowing for smooth movement and providing protection to the tendons.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The term used to describe the joining of two or more bones is
- A.
Fissure.
- B.
Fossa.
- C.
Condylation.
- D.
Articulation.
Correct Answer
D. Articulation.Explanation
The term used to describe the joining of two or more bones is articulation. Articulation refers to the point where two bones come together, allowing movement and providing stability to the skeletal system. It involves the connection of bones through various structures such as joints, ligaments, and cartilage. Fissure refers to a narrow opening or crack, fossa is a depression or hollow area, and condylation refers to the process of forming a joint. Therefore, the correct answer is articulation.Rate this question:
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- 24.
How many bones are in an average human body?
- A.
220.
- B.
216.
- C.
210.
- D.
206.
Correct Answer
D. 206.Explanation
The correct answer is 206. This is because the adult human body typically has 206 bones. These bones make up the skeletal system, providing structure, support, and protection for the body. The number of bones can vary slightly from person to person due to factors such as the fusion of certain bones during development.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which bones are included in the appendicular skeleton?
- A.
Upper and lower extremities.
- B.
Cancellous bones.
- C.
The hyoid bones.
- D.
Axial bones.
Correct Answer
A. Upper and lower extremities.Explanation
The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the upper and lower extremities. These bones are responsible for movement and provide support to the body. The upper extremities consist of the bones in the arms, including the humerus, radius, and ulna, as well as the bones in the hands, including the carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges. The lower extremities consist of the bones in the legs, including the femur, tibia, and fibula, as well as the bones in the feet, including the tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The epimysium is located beneath the
- A.
Cardiac muscle.
- B.
Perimysium.
- C.
Fascicles.
- D.
Fascia.
Correct Answer
D. Fascia.Explanation
The epimysium is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds a muscle. It provides support and protection to the muscle fibers. The perimysium, on the other hand, surrounds bundles of muscle fibers called fascicles. The fascia is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds muscles, groups of muscles, and other structures like organs. It helps to separate and compartmentalize different structures within the body. Therefore, the correct answer is fascia, as it is the layer of connective tissue located beneath the epimysium.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Marrow is essential to the production of
- A.
Yellow.
- B.
Red blood cells.
- C.
New blood cells.
- D.
White blood cells.
Correct Answer
C. New blood cells.Explanation
Marrow refers to the soft, spongy tissue found inside bones. It is responsible for the production of various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Red blood cells are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body, while white blood cells play a crucial role in the immune system. However, the term "new blood cells" is a more comprehensive and accurate description as it encompasses the production of both red and white blood cells, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is the body’s most important means of heat loss?
- A.
Air conditioning.
- B.
Sweating.
- C.
Dehydration.
- D.
Humidity.
Correct Answer
B. Sweating.Explanation
Sweating is the body's most important means of heat loss because when we sweat, the moisture on our skin evaporates, taking away heat from our body. This process helps to cool down our body temperature and maintain a stable internal environment. Air conditioning, dehydration, and humidity can also affect the body's heat regulation, but sweating plays a crucial role in dissipating heat and preventing overheating.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What must you do to prevent injuries while exercising?
- A.
Decrease the workload.
- B.
Increase the workload.
- C.
Drink plenty fluids before any exercise session.
- D.
Adjust the intensity to fit the temperature and humidity.
Correct Answer
D. Adjust the intensity to fit the temperature and humidity.Explanation
To prevent injuries while exercising, it is important to adjust the intensity of the workout to fit the temperature and humidity. This is because extreme weather conditions can put additional stress on the body, increasing the risk of injuries. By adjusting the intensity, individuals can ensure that they are not overexerting themselves in unfavorable weather conditions, reducing the chances of injuries such as heat exhaustion or dehydration.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is the best replacement fluid to use for exercise under 60 minutes?
- A.
Soda.
- B.
Plain water.
- C.
Sport drinks.
- D.
Low sodium drinks.
Correct Answer
B. Plain water.Explanation
Plain water is the best replacement fluid to use for exercise under 60 minutes because it helps to hydrate the body and maintain proper fluid balance. It does not contain any added sugars or calories, making it a healthier choice compared to soda or sports drinks. Additionally, plain water is readily available and easily absorbed by the body, helping to prevent dehydration during shorter duration exercises.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What is a dislocation?
- A.
Stretching and tearing of the muscle.
- B.
A painful injury to the soft tissue and bone.
- C.
Sudden involuntary contraction of the muscle.
- D.
The displacement of one or more bones of a joint from the natural position.
Correct Answer
D. The displacement of one or more bones of a joint from the natural position.Explanation
A dislocation refers to the displacement of one or more bones of a joint from their natural position. This occurs when the bones that form a joint are forced out of their normal alignment, causing pain, swelling, and limited mobility. It is different from stretching and tearing of the muscle, a painful injury to the soft tissue and bone, or sudden involuntary contraction of the muscle.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What AFI identifies the Core Fitness Standards?
- A.
34–266.
- B.
34–267.
- C.
10–248.
- D.
10–247.
Correct Answer
A. 34–266.Explanation
The correct answer is 34–266. This AFI identifies the Core Fitness Standards.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What classes must be offered and marketed as part of the fitness improvement program (FIP)?
- A.
Aerobic and spinning.
- B.
Weight lifting and aerobic.
- C.
Spinning and circuit training.
- D.
Aerobic and strength.
Correct Answer
D. Aerobic and strength.Explanation
The classes that must be offered and marketed as part of the fitness improvement program (FIP) are aerobic and strength. This combination ensures a well-rounded fitness program that focuses on cardiovascular endurance and muscle strength. Aerobic exercises like running, cycling, or dancing help improve heart health and burn calories, while strength training exercises like weightlifting or resistance training help build and tone muscles. By offering and marketing these classes, the fitness improvement program can cater to individuals looking to improve both their cardiovascular fitness and overall strength.Rate this question:
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- 34.
At a minimum, how many hours must all contract personal instructors have as verified hours of individual fitness program experience?
- A.
100 hours.
- B.
150 hours.
- C.
200 hours.
- D.
250 hours.
Correct Answer
A. 100 hours.Explanation
The minimum number of hours that all contract personal instructors must have as verified hours of individual fitness program experience is 100 hours.Rate this question:
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- 35.
As a minimum how many times per week are group exercise classes offered at small bases?
- A.
25.
- B.
20.
- C.
15.
- D.
10.
Correct Answer
D. 10.Explanation
The question asks for the minimum number of times per week that group exercise classes are offered at small bases. Out of the given options, the answer is 10, as it is the lowest number provided. This means that group exercise classes are offered at least 10 times per week at small bases.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What is one of the chief benefits of sports?
- A.
To motivate people in participating in activities.
- B.
It encourages physical activity and exercise.
- C.
It will provide an outlet for aggression.
- D.
It stimulates interest in training.
Correct Answer
B. It encourages pHysical activity and exercise.Explanation
One of the chief benefits of sports is that it encourages physical activity and exercise. Sports involve physical movements and exertion, which helps individuals stay active and maintain a healthy lifestyle. Regular participation in sports can improve cardiovascular health, build strength and endurance, and contribute to weight management. Additionally, sports provide a fun and enjoyable way to engage in physical activity, making it easier for people to stay motivated and committed to regular exercise.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which program encompasses the entire active duty population on an installation and is recreational in nature?
- A.
Varsity.
- B.
Intramural.
- C.
Extramural.
- D.
Armed forces sports.
Correct Answer
B. Intramural.Explanation
Intramural programs are recreational activities that involve the entire active duty population on an installation. These programs are designed to promote physical fitness, teamwork, and camaraderie among military personnel. Varsity programs typically refer to sports teams at the high school or college level, while extramural programs involve competition between different military installations or organizations. Armed forces sports may refer to a broader range of athletic activities and competitions involving military personnel. Therefore, the correct answer in this case is Intramural.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Who can authorize Air Force members to compete in a higher-level competition conducted by another military department?
- A.
HQ USAF/SVP.
- B.
HQ AFSVA/SVPAF.
- C.
Fitness center director (FCD).
- D.
Installation commander.
Correct Answer
B. HQ AFSVA/SVPAF.Explanation
The correct answer is HQ AFSVA/SVPAF. This is because HQ AFSVA/SVPAF stands for Headquarters Air Force Services, which is responsible for authorizing Air Force members to compete in higher-level competitions conducted by other military departments. The Fitness center director (FCD) may oversee the fitness center and its activities but does not have the authority to authorize members for higher-level competitions. The installation commander may have overall authority over the installation but may not specifically handle authorizations for competitions conducted by other military departments.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What is the disadvantage of the single elimination tournament?
- A.
Every entry must be defeated twice.
- B.
Every entry must be place in their respective brackets.
- C.
25 percent of the players are eliminated in each round of the tournament.
- D.
50 percent of the players are eliminated in each round of the tournament.
Correct Answer
D. 50 percent of the players are eliminated in each round of the tournament.Explanation
In a single elimination tournament, 50 percent of the players are eliminated in each round. This means that once a player loses a match, they are immediately eliminated from the tournament. This can be considered a disadvantage because it does not give players a second chance or an opportunity to redeem themselves after a loss. It also means that the tournament can quickly become less competitive as more players are eliminated, potentially resulting in less exciting matches in the later stages of the tournament.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Who usually presents the awards and prizes at the end of the sports competition?
- A.
The installation commander.
- B.
Services commander.
- C.
Fitness center director (FCD).
- D.
Fitness center staff (FCS).
Correct Answer
A. The installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander is usually the one who presents the awards and prizes at the end of a sports competition. This individual holds a position of authority and is responsible for overseeing the operations and activities at the installation. As such, they are often given the honor of presenting the awards to the winners as a way to recognize their achievements and to show their support for the sports competition.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When should you order the awards and prizes for the special sporting events?
- A.
After nonappropriated funds (NAF) have been approved.
- B.
Two days before the event ends.
- C.
Halfway through the tournament.
- D.
In the initial planning stages.
Correct Answer
D. In the initial planning stages.Explanation
Ordering the awards and prizes for special sporting events in the initial planning stages is the best approach because it allows sufficient time for the procurement process. Ordering early ensures that the awards and prizes are available and ready for presentation at the event. Waiting until after nonappropriated funds (NAF) have been approved may result in delays and potential unavailability of desired items. Ordering two days before the event ends or halfway through the tournament may not leave enough time for delivery and preparation. Therefore, ordering in the initial planning stages is the most logical and efficient choice.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Who serves as nonvoting members on the Fitness and Sports Advisory Council?
- A.
Combat support flight commander (CSFC) and fitness center director (FCD).
- B.
Military support flight chief and Services commander.
- C.
Chairperson and subcommittee chairperson.
- D.
Chairperson and Services commander.
Correct Answer
A. Combat support flight commander (CSFC) and fitness center director (FCD).Explanation
The correct answer to the question is Combat support flight commander (CSFC) and fitness center director (FCD). These individuals serve as nonvoting members on the Fitness and Sports Advisory Council.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What funds are used on deployments?
- A.
Nonappropriated funds (NAF) only.
- B.
Appropriated funds (APF) only.
- C.
NAF and APF.
- D.
Congressional.
Correct Answer
C. NAF and APF.Explanation
The correct answer is NAF and APF. Nonappropriated funds (NAF) and Appropriated funds (APF) are both used on deployments. NAF are generated from sources such as fees, charges, and sales of goods and services, while APF are provided by Congress through the budgeting process. Both types of funds are necessary to cover the costs of deployments.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What merchandise do Services retail operations provide until the Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) is able to deploy a Direct Operation Exchange – Tactical (DOX-T)?
- A.
Emergency items.
- B.
Basic health and hygiene items only.
- C.
Basic health, hygiene, and personal care items.
- D.
No merchandise is sold during actual contingencies.
Correct Answer
C. Basic health, hygiene, and personal care items.Explanation
Services retail operations provide basic health, hygiene, and personal care items until the Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) is able to deploy a Direct Operation Exchange - Tactical (DOX-T). This means that during contingencies or emergencies, these retail operations will still offer essential items for the well-being and personal care of individuals.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A person who has never worked in an area needs what type of continuity folder?
- A.
Detailed, yet simple to understand.
- B.
A complex and concise set of instructions.
- C.
Procedures and practices that are normally not site specific.
- D.
Guidance that follows Air Force guidance and supersedes local policy.
Correct Answer
A. Detailed, yet simple to understand.Explanation
A person who has never worked in an area needs a continuity folder that is detailed, yet simple to understand. This type of folder would provide comprehensive information about the area, including procedures, practices, and instructions that are easy to follow and comprehend. It would not be overly complex or concise, as that may be overwhelming for someone who is unfamiliar with the area. Additionally, it would not include guidance that supersedes local policy, as the person would need to understand and adhere to the specific policies and practices of the site they are working in.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which organization provides Services with banking support in a deployed environment?
- A.
Services resource management.
- B.
Services command section.
- C.
Base contracting.
- D.
Deployed finance.
Correct Answer
D. Deployed finance.Explanation
Deployed finance is the correct answer because it specifically refers to the organization that provides banking support in a deployed environment. The other options, such as Services resource management, Services command section, and Base contracting, do not mention banking support or specifically pertain to providing services in a deployed environment. Therefore, Deployed finance is the most relevant and appropriate choice for the given question.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Who is responsible for setting safeguards or controls to protect the welfare of an intoxicated person?
- A.
Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) commander.
- B.
Services commander or director.
- C.
Activity managers.
- D.
Flight chiefs.
Correct Answer
C. Activity managers.Explanation
Activity managers are responsible for setting safeguards or controls to protect the welfare of an intoxicated person. This includes ensuring that appropriate measures are in place to prevent harm to the individual and others, such as providing a safe environment and access to medical assistance if needed. The Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) commander, Services commander or director, and Flight chiefs may have other responsibilities within their respective roles, but the primary responsibility for safeguarding an intoxicated person lies with the activity managers.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Who prescribes the dram shop statement that is to be signed by all Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) employees?
- A.
AAFES commander.
- B.
Services commander.
- C.
Activity managers.
- D.
Flight chiefs.
Correct Answer
A. AAFES commander.Explanation
The correct answer is AAFES commander. The AAFES commander is responsible for prescribing the dram shop statement that is to be signed by all AAFES employees. This statement outlines the rules and regulations regarding the sale and service of alcohol in AAFES establishments. It is important for all employees to sign this statement to ensure they are aware of and adhere to the policies in place to maintain a safe and responsible environment.Rate this question:
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- 49.
How do you plan your recreation programs during contingencies?
- A.
Based on location, number of personnel, and climate only
- B.
Based on location, number of personnel, climate, and the length of deployment.
- C.
During surges, the on site commander determines the basis of all recreational programs.
- D.
In the initial phase, the on site commander determines the basis of all recreational programs.
Correct Answer
B. Based on location, number of personnel, climate, and the length of deployment.Explanation
The correct answer is based on location, number of personnel, climate, and the length of deployment. This answer suggests that when planning recreation programs during contingencies, multiple factors need to be taken into consideration. These factors include the location of the contingency, the number of personnel involved, the climate of the area, and the length of the deployment. By considering these factors, the planners can ensure that the recreation programs are suitable and appropriate for the specific situation and the needs of the personnel involved.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Who must ensure existing inventories of equipment and supplies can support projected wartime populations?
- A.
Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) commander.
- B.
Activity manager.
- C.
FSS commander.
- D.
Services flight chief.
Correct Answer
C. FSS commander.Explanation
The FSS commander must ensure existing inventories of equipment and supplies can support projected wartime populations. The FSS (Force Support Squadron) commander is responsible for managing and providing support services to military personnel and their families. This includes overseeing the procurement and maintenance of equipment and supplies necessary to meet the needs of the population during wartime. The AAFES commander, activity manager, and services flight chief may have their own specific responsibilities, but it is ultimately the FSS commander's duty to ensure the availability and adequacy of inventories for wartime operations.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 10, 2012Quiz Created by
Tomnelson
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