3P051 - Hard - Test B
Please enter Rank & Name (Last, First) for name. Example: A1C Smith, John
- 1.
What career fields were combined in 1997 to form the “Security Forces” 3POX1 AFSC?
- A.
Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, Combat Arms Training and Maintenance, or CATM.
- B.
Maintenance and Supply Training, Military Police, Military Working Dog Handler, and CATM
- C.
Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, and CATM
- D.
Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, and Maintenance and Supply Training.
Correct Answer
A. Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, Combat Arms Training and Maintenance, or CATM.Explanation
In 1997, the career fields of Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist, Military Working Dog Handler, and Combat Arms Training and Maintenance (CATM) were combined to form the “Security Forces” 3POX1 AFSC.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Upon contact with the solicitor, you receive proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves. What subject action level is it?
- A.
Verbal controls
- B.
Neuromuscular controls
- C.
Baton as a leverage device
- D.
Military working dog (off leash)
Correct Answer
A. Verbal controlsExplanation
Upon contact with the solicitor, the individual receives proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves. This scenario involves the use of verbal controls. The solicitor is verbally instructed to leave the base, and they comply with the instruction, demonstrating the effectiveness of verbal communication in controlling the situation.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the correct procedure for changing your position from searching the weak side to the strong side standing search?
- A.
A. Place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, switch hands on linking chain, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position.
- B.
B. Place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, have suspect turn head, switch hands on linking chain, and then switch your feet position.
- C.
C. Switch hands on linking chain, place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position.
- D.
D. Switch hands on linking chain, have suspect turn head, place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, and then switch your feet position.
Correct Answer
C. C. Switch hands on linking chain, place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position. -
- 4.
SF members must possess what skill level prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course?
- A.
5-skill level (Journeyman)
- B.
7-skill level (Craftsman)
- C.
9-skill level (Superintendent)
- D.
One is not required
Correct Answer
A. 5-skill level (Journeyman)Explanation
Prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course, SF members must possess a 5-skill level (Journeyman) skill level. This indicates that they have achieved a certain level of expertise and experience in their field.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed?
- A.
A. Objective
- B.
B. Re-entry
- C.
C. Enroute
- D.
D. Initial
Correct Answer
A. A. ObjectiveExplanation
The rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed because the objective is the main goal or target that needs to be achieved. Until the objective is clearly identified and defined, the rally point cannot be finalized as it may need to be adjusted or modified based on the specific requirements of the objective. Therefore, the rally point remains uncertain or provisional until the objective is determined.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The bezel ring is a ratchet device that, when rotated fully…
- A.
Contains 90 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees.
- B.
Contains 100 click; each click is equal to 3 degrees.
- C.
Contains 120 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees.
- D.
Contains 180 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees.
Correct Answer
C. Contains 120 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees.Explanation
The correct answer is that the bezel ring contains 120 clicks, with each click equal to 3 degrees. This means that when the bezel ring is rotated fully, it will cover a total of 360 degrees (120 clicks * 3 degrees per click).Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following do not belong in the spectrums of IBD battlespace?
- A.
Air Force Battlespace
- B.
Force Protection Battlespace
- C.
IBD Battlespace
- D.
Base Battlespace
Correct Answer
D. Base BattlespaceExplanation
The correct answer is "Base Battlespace" because it does not belong in the spectrums of IBD battlespace. IBD stands for Inflammatory Bowel Disease, which is a medical condition. The other options, Air Force Battlespace and Force Protection Battlespace, are related to military operations and strategies. Therefore, "Base Battlespace" is the odd one out in this context.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is the first step if you suspect exposure through a laceration?
- A.
Apply pressure to the wound to encourage bleeding.
- B.
Wash the area thoroughly with soap and water.
- C.
Seek medical attention.
- D.
Report the incident to your supervisor.
Correct Answer
A. Apply pressure to the wound to encourage bleeding.Explanation
The correct answer is to apply pressure to the wound to encourage bleeding. This step is important because it helps to cleanse the wound by flushing out any potential contaminants. Applying pressure also helps to control the bleeding and minimize the risk of infection. Once the bleeding has been encouraged, the wound can then be washed thoroughly with soap and water, followed by seeking medical attention and reporting the incident to the supervisor.Rate this question:
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- 9.
As a security forces member, you testify under oath, “I saw the car driven by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road.” This is an example of?
- A.
Real evidence
- B.
Direct evidence
- C.
Testimonial evidence
- D.
Documentary evidence
Correct Answer
C. Testimonial evidenceExplanation
The given statement describes a testimony given by a security forces member, indicating that they personally witnessed the car being driven in a specific manner by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry. This type of evidence is considered testimonial evidence because it is a statement made by a witness under oath, providing firsthand information about the event in question.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What does the term OCOKA stand for?
- A.
Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.
- B.
Observation of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key avenues of approach.
- C.
Observation/fields of fire, cover obstacles, key terrain avenues and approach.
- D.
Observe cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.
Correct Answer
A. Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.Explanation
OCOKA stands for Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach. This acronym is commonly used in military tactics to help assess and analyze the battlefield. Observation/fields of fire refers to identifying areas with good visibility and firing positions. Cover and concealment involves finding protection from enemy fire and remaining hidden. Obstacles are physical barriers that can impede movement. Key terrain refers to significant features such as hills or buildings that can provide advantages or disadvantages. Avenues of approach are the routes that can be used to reach the objective.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is a way you can identify stressors on the job?
- A.
Be noisy and stay in every ones business.
- B.
Talk to experienced SF members.
- C.
Get stressed out.
- D.
Let it come to you.
Correct Answer
B. Talk to experienced SF members.Explanation
Talking to experienced SF members is a way to identify stressors on the job because they have likely faced similar challenges and can provide valuable insights and advice. They can share their own experiences and give guidance on how to manage and cope with stressors. By engaging in conversations with them, one can gain a better understanding of the potential stressors in the job and learn effective strategies to handle them.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What piece of equipment do you use if you need to fire into your secondary sector?
- A.
A bipod
- B.
A tripod
- C.
The buddy system
- D.
Your gear
Correct Answer
A. A bipodExplanation
A bipod is a piece of equipment that is used when firing into the secondary sector. It provides stability and support to the firearm, allowing for more accurate and controlled shots. Unlike a tripod, which is typically used for cameras or other equipment, a bipod is specifically designed for firearms and is commonly used in military and hunting scenarios. The buddy system and your gear are not directly related to firing into the secondary sector, making them incorrect options.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for?
- A.
A. Armored vehicles in support of base defense.
- B.
B. Additional security personnel.
- C.
C. Less military working dogs.
- D.
D. Revised security thinking.
Correct Answer
D. D. Revised security thinking.Explanation
The Vietnam Conflict highlighted the importance of revising security thinking. The nature of the conflict, with its guerrilla warfare tactics and unconventional strategies, showed that traditional methods of security were ineffective. This led to a reevaluation of military strategies and the development of new approaches to security.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which is an example of a protection level 1 resource?
- A.
Non-nuclear alert forces
- B.
C4 systems of active nuclear missions
- C.
Selected C3 facilities, systems, and equipment
- D.
Fuels and Liquid Oxygen storage areas
Correct Answer
B. C4 systems of active nuclear missionsExplanation
C4 systems of active nuclear missions are an example of a protection level 1 resource because they are critical to the success of active nuclear missions. These systems are responsible for command, control, communications, and computer operations in nuclear missions, making them highly sensitive and requiring the highest level of protection.Rate this question:
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- 15.
When was the first trial issue shield approved?
- A.
1943
- B.
1945
- C.
1950
- D.
1957
Correct Answer
D. 1957Explanation
The first trial issue shield was approved in 1957.Rate this question:
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- 16.
During terrorist objectives and tactics, who is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US?
- A.
Department of Justice
- B.
Department of State
- C.
Department of Terrorist
- D.
Department of Concept
Correct Answer
B. Department of StateExplanation
The Department of State is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US during terrorist objectives and tactics. This is because the Department of State is responsible for the overall foreign policy of the United States, including the coordination of counterterrorism efforts and maintaining relationships with foreign governments to address and respond to terrorist incidents that occur outside the country. The Department of Justice, on the other hand, primarily focuses on domestic law enforcement and prosecution of criminal activities within the US. The Department of Terrorist and Department of Concept are not actual departments and do not exist.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How do MWDs impact crime?
- A.
They are a deterrent to crime
- B.
They are very smart
- C.
They catch every single bad guy
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. They are a deterrent to crimeExplanation
MWDs, or Military Working Dogs, can have a significant impact on crime as they serve as a deterrent. The presence of these highly trained and skilled dogs can discourage criminals from engaging in illegal activities, as they are aware of the dog's abilities to detect and apprehend suspects. MWDs are known for their intelligence and obedience, which further enhances their effectiveness in preventing crime. However, it is important to note that while MWDs are valuable assets in law enforcement, they cannot catch every single bad guy, as their success depends on various factors such as training, environment, and the specific situation.Rate this question:
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- 18.
How many basic fundamentals of defense are there?
- A.
1
- B.
3
- C.
5
- D.
7
Correct Answer
C. 5Explanation
There are five basic fundamentals of defense. These fundamentals include maintaining proper distance, keeping hands up, moving with the opponent, blocking and parrying, and countering. These fundamentals are essential in defensive strategies and techniques in various sports and martial arts.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How many different types of ammunition for the M4 carbine?
- A.
1
- B.
3
- C.
5
- D.
7
Correct Answer
D. 7Explanation
The M4 carbine has seven different types of ammunition available.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?
- A.
Code of Conduct only
- B.
SF General Orders only
- C.
Code of Conduct and SF General Orders
- D.
Performance Fitness Examination
Correct Answer
C. Code of Conduct and SF General OrdersExplanation
Adhering to the Code of Conduct and SF General Orders ensures mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct provides guidelines for the behavior and actions of military personnel, emphasizing principles such as loyalty, duty, and integrity. SF General Orders, on the other hand, outline specific rules and regulations that must be followed in order to maintain discipline and order within the military organization. By adhering to both the Code of Conduct and SF General Orders, individuals can ensure that their actions are in line with the mission's objectives and contribute to its successful completion.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Denying exploitation of open source information is the primary focus of OPSEC…
- A.
Security
- B.
Warfare
- C.
Analysis
- D.
Intelligence
Correct Answer
C. AnalysisExplanation
The primary focus of OPSEC (Operations Security) is to deny the exploitation of open source information. This means that the main objective is to prevent unauthorized individuals or entities from gathering and using information that is publicly available. By carefully analyzing and assessing the potential risks and vulnerabilities associated with open source information, OPSEC aims to protect sensitive data and maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information. Therefore, the correct answer is Analysis.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Who is responsible for providing on-site security anytime alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time?
- A.
Two-person SRT (DOD UCNI)
- B.
Three-person SRT (DOD UCNI)
- C.
Mobile Fore Teams (MFT) (DOD UCNI)
- D.
Camper Alert Team (CAT) (DOD UCNI)
Correct Answer
D. Camper Alert Team (CAT) (DOD UCNI)Explanation
The Camper Alert Team (CAT) is responsible for providing on-site security when alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time. This team ensures that the site remains secure and protected even without the functioning alarm systems. The CAT members are trained to handle security situations and are equipped to respond to any potential threats or breaches in security.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How many range cards are prepared for each position?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
The correct answer is two because each position requires two range cards to be prepared. This suggests that there are two different ranges that need to be accounted for in each position.Rate this question:
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- 24.
How many meters is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
- A.
600
- B.
800
- C.
1,100
- D.
1,800
Correct Answer
D. 1,800Explanation
The maximum range for the M9 pistol is 1,800 meters. This means that the pistol is capable of accurately firing a projectile up to a distance of 1,800 meters. This range allows for effective engagement of targets at medium to long distances, making the M9 pistol a versatile weapon in various combat scenarios.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which principle is the key to defeating enemy incursions against our airfields?
- A.
Knowledge of the enemy
- B.
Unity of command
- C.
Economy of Force
- D.
Responsiveness
Correct Answer
D. ResponsivenessExplanation
Responsiveness is the key principle to defeating enemy incursions against our airfields. This principle emphasizes the ability to react quickly and effectively to enemy actions, ensuring that any threats or attacks are swiftly dealt with. By being responsive, our forces can effectively counter enemy incursions, preventing them from gaining a foothold or causing significant damage to our airfields. This principle ensures that our defenses are agile and adaptable, enabling us to maintain control and protect our airfields from enemy threats.Rate this question:
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- 26.
On what does a patrol leader base the tentative patrol plan?
- A.
Good terrain analysis
- B.
Bad terrain analysis
- C.
The floating dial on the compass
- D.
The weather
Correct Answer
A. Good terrain analysisExplanation
A patrol leader bases the tentative patrol plan on good terrain analysis. This means that they consider the terrain features, such as hills, rivers, and vegetation, to determine the best route for the patrol. By analyzing the terrain, the patrol leader can identify potential obstacles, assess the level of difficulty, and plan the most efficient and safe path for the patrol. This helps ensure that the patrol can navigate the terrain effectively and accomplish their objectives.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What are the characteristics of the M203 grenade launcher?
- A.
The M203 grenade launcher is a heavyweight, double-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (no sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M-9 pistol with the RAS.
- B.
The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, non breech-loaded, double pump action (sliding barrel), hip-fired weapon that is attached to the M-249 machine gun with the RAS.
- C.
The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS.
- D.
The M203 grenade launcher is a heavy weight, double-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (no sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M240B machine gun with the RAS.
Correct Answer
C. The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS.Explanation
The correct answer describes the characteristics of the M203 grenade launcher accurately. It states that the M203 is a lightweight weapon that is single-shot and breech-loaded. It also mentions that it has a pump action with a sliding barrel. Additionally, it specifies that the M203 is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS. This answer aligns with the given information about the M203 grenade launcher.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What should a flight sector sketch show?
- A.
Main terrain feature in the sector of fire and the ranges to them.
- B.
Flight and squadron identification.
- C.
Squad leader positions.
- D.
True south.
Correct Answer
B. Flight and squadron identification.Explanation
A flight sector sketch should show flight and squadron identification. This information is crucial for identifying and tracking the location of different flights and squadrons during a mission. It helps in maintaining communication and coordination between different units and ensures that each unit is aware of the others' positions. By including flight and squadron identification in the sketch, the overall situational awareness and operational effectiveness can be improved.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The fence for a restricted area must be how close to firm ground?
- A.
Ground level
- B.
1 inch
- C.
2 inch
- D.
3 inch
Correct Answer
C. 2 inchExplanation
The fence for a restricted area must be 2 inches close to firm ground to ensure proper security and restriction. This distance allows the fence to be firmly grounded, providing stability and preventing unauthorized access. Being too close to the ground may hinder the fence's effectiveness, while being too far may create gaps or vulnerabilities. Therefore, a distance of 2 inches strikes the right balance for maintaining security and stability.Rate this question:
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- 30.
In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M 240B for a point target with tripod?
- A.
400
- B.
800
- C.
1,100
- D.
1,800
Correct Answer
B. 800Explanation
The maximum effective range of the M 240B for a point target with tripod is 800 meters. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters when used with a tripod.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The term “every airman is a sensor…contributing to overall base defense” is the concept of?
- A.
Principles of War
- B.
Rules of Engagement
- C.
Integrated Base Defense
- D.
Defense Force Doctrine
Correct Answer
C. Integrated Base DefenseExplanation
The concept of "every airman is a sensor...contributing to overall base defense" aligns with Integrated Base Defense. This concept emphasizes the idea that every individual within an air base has a role to play in the overall defense of the base. It recognizes that each person can contribute valuable information and situational awareness, making them an important "sensor" in the defense network. Integrated Base Defense focuses on the collaboration and coordination of all personnel and resources to enhance the security and protection of the base.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What map reference do you use to determine distances?
- A.
Declination
- B.
Bar scale
- C.
Grid North
- D.
Base line
Correct Answer
B. Bar scaleExplanation
A bar scale is used to determine distances on a map. It is a graphical representation of a specific distance on the map, usually in the form of a line or bar. By comparing the length of the bar scale to the actual distance on the ground, you can calculate distances between different points on the map. The bar scale helps in accurately measuring distances and is an essential tool for navigation and map reading.Rate this question:
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- 33.
How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
- A.
5
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
15
Correct Answer
A. 5Explanation
The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that within a 5-meter radius of the explosion, there is a high likelihood of causing fatal injuries to anyone in that area. Hand grenades are designed to be highly destructive and have a significant impact on their surroundings, making them effective weapons in combat situations.Rate this question:
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- 34.
If a misfire occurs, how many seconds do you wait before removing the launcher from your shoulder (M72 LAW)?
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
20
- D.
25
Correct Answer
A. 10Explanation
In the case of a misfire with the M72 LAW launcher, it is recommended to wait for 10 seconds before removing the launcher from your shoulder. This waiting period allows for the possibility of a delayed ignition or a hang fire, where the rocket may still ignite after a short delay. Removing the launcher too soon could result in a dangerous situation if the rocket were to suddenly ignite while still in close proximity to the user. Therefore, waiting for 10 seconds is the safest course of action.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What are the standard whistle signals?
- A.
Two short blast for STOP, one long blast for GO, and several short blasts for ATTENTION.
- B.
Two short blast for ATTENTION, One long blast for STOP, and several short blasts for GO.
- C.
One long blast for STOP, two short blasts for GO, and several short blasts for ATTENTION.
- D.
Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities.
Correct Answer
C. One long blast for STOP, two short blasts for GO, and several short blasts for ATTENTION. -
- 36.
What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?
- A.
A zero tolerance approach to handling crime.
- B.
The police getting involved with local youth programs.
- C.
The police handling random calls to solve community problems.
- D.
Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities.
Correct Answer
D. Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities.Explanation
Developing community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood. This approach promotes collaboration and cooperation between the police and the community, fostering trust and mutual understanding. By involving the community in decision-making processes, the police can address the specific needs and concerns of the neighborhood, leading to more effective and targeted solutions. This philosophy empowers the community to actively participate in shaping their own safety and security, ultimately creating a safer and more harmonious environment for everyone.Rate this question:
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- 37.
If a soldier adapts to the dark before donning goggles, the individual gains full dark adaptation within?
- A.
5 minutes after removing the goggles.
- B.
4 minutes after removing the goggles.
- C.
3 minutes after removing the goggles.
- D.
2 minutes after removing the goggles.
Correct Answer
D. 2 minutes after removing the goggles.Explanation
Dark adaptation is the process by which the eyes adjust to low levels of light. It takes time for the eyes to fully adapt to the dark after being exposed to bright light. By adapting to the dark before donning goggles, the soldier's eyes have already started the process of dark adaptation. This means that when the goggles are removed, the soldier's eyes will only need an additional 2 minutes to fully adapt to the dark, as they have already had some time to adjust beforehand.Rate this question:
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- 38.
US military authority in host nation territories is governed by?
- A.
Federal statutes
- B.
US Constitution
- C.
Article 2/UCMJ
- D.
Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)
Correct Answer
D. Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)Explanation
Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA) govern the US military authority in host nation territories. These agreements outline the legal status and privileges of US military personnel operating in a foreign country. They cover various aspects such as jurisdiction, taxation, customs, and the legal framework for military operations. SOFAs are negotiated between the US and the host country to ensure the smooth functioning of military forces while respecting the laws and sovereignty of the host nation. They provide a legal basis for the presence and activities of US military personnel in foreign territories.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Where do you find the elevation guide on a map?
- A.
Normally found in the lower right margin.
- B.
Always found in the upper right margin.
- C.
Sometimes found in the middle of the map.
- D.
Normally found in the back of the map.
Correct Answer
A. Normally found in the lower right margin.Explanation
The elevation guide on a map is typically located in the lower right margin. This is a common placement for the elevation guide as it allows for easy reference without obstructing other important information on the map. Placing it in the upper right margin may interfere with the map's title or other key elements. While it is possible for the elevation guide to be found in the middle of the map or in the back, these are less common locations and not the norm.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What are the characteristics of the M240B machine gun?
- A.
The M240B is a general-purpose machine gun. It can be mounted on a bipod, tripod, aircraft, or vehicle. The M240B is a belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the open bolt position.
- B.
The M240B is a 5.56-mm, magazine-fed, gas-operated, shoulder-fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, and BURST).
- C.
The M240B is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge. The M9 weighs 31 ounces unloaded and 41 ounces loaded with a 15-round magazine.
- D.
The M240B is a light-weight, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the close-bolt position.
Correct Answer
A. The M240B is a general-purpose machine gun. It can be mounted on a bipod, tripod, aircraft, or vehicle. The M240B is a belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the open bolt position.Explanation
The given answer accurately describes the characteristics of the M240B machine gun. It mentions that it is a general-purpose machine gun that can be mounted on various platforms such as bipods, tripods, aircraft, or vehicles. It also states that the M240B is belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, and fully automatic, firing from the open bolt position. This information provides a comprehensive overview of the key features and capabilities of the M240B machine gun.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When was the current SF shield adopted?
- A.
1965
- B.
1966
- C.
1970
- D.
1982
Correct Answer
B. 1966Explanation
The current SF shield was adopted in 1966.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is the most accurate of all chemical tests?
- A.
Alco-sensor
- B.
Breathalyzer
- C.
Urine Tests
- D.
Blood Tests
Correct Answer
D. Blood TestsExplanation
Blood tests are considered the most accurate of all chemical tests because they directly measure the presence and concentration of substances in the bloodstream. Unlike urine tests or breathalyzers, which can be influenced by various factors such as hydration levels or recent food or drink intake, blood tests provide a more precise and reliable analysis. They are commonly used to detect and diagnose a wide range of medical conditions, monitor organ function, assess drug levels, and determine blood alcohol levels with high accuracy.Rate this question:
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- 43.
How is the Claymore employed when used as part of the base defense obstacle plan?
- A.
A. Reduce the enemy’s mobility only.
- B.
B. Stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks.
- C.
C. Direct the enemy formations for counterattack.
- D.
D. Channel forces for reengagement at later time.
Correct Answer
B. B. Stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks.Explanation
The Claymore is employed as part of the base defense obstacle plan to stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks. This means that it is used to hinder the progress of the enemy and create obstacles that they must overcome, giving the defending forces more time to react and respond to the attack. By using the Claymore in this way, the defending forces can gain an advantage and potentially prevent or minimize damage to the base.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What are the requirements to attend Airman Leadership School?
- A.
You must be a SrA with college background
- B.
Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services.
- C.
Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 24 months of total active federal military services.
- D.
You must have 5 on all your EPRs, and selected by the commander.
Correct Answer
B. Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services.Explanation
The requirements to attend Airman Leadership School are being an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services. This means that individuals who have achieved the rank of Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Senior Airman (SrA) and have completed 48 months of active federal military service are eligible to attend the school. The other options, such as having a college background or having 24 months of total active federal military services, are not mentioned as requirements for attending Airman Leadership School.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which sensor system alarms only if an object breaks more than 98.5% of at least one beam?
- A.
SW385 Monostatic Microwave Sensor
- B.
SW310 Bistatic Microwave Sensor
- C.
ECSI Active Infrared Sensor
- D.
Optex LX-2AU
Correct Answer
C. ECSI Active Infrared SensorExplanation
The ECSI Active Infrared Sensor alarms only if an object breaks more than 98.5% of at least one beam. This means that the sensor is designed to detect objects that obstruct the infrared beams emitted by the sensor. If an object breaks a beam by more than 98.5%, the sensor will trigger an alarm. This feature makes the ECSI Active Infrared Sensor suitable for applications where a high level of accuracy is required in detecting objects.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What is the most common round used in the M870?
- A.
15 gauge, “05” buck shot
- B.
10 gauge, “02” buck shot
- C.
12 gauge, “01” buck shot
- D.
12 gauge, “00” buck shot
Correct Answer
D. 12 gauge, “00” buck shotExplanation
The most common round used in the M870 is the 12 gauge, "00" buck shot. This round is widely used in shotguns for its effectiveness in close-range self-defense and hunting. The term "12 gauge" refers to the diameter of the shotgun barrel, and "00" buck shot refers to the size of the individual pellets in the round. The M870 is a popular pump-action shotgun that is commonly used by law enforcement and military personnel, as well as for civilian purposes such as home defense and sport shooting.Rate this question:
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- 47.
An 8-digit grid coordinate brings you to within how many meters of a point on a map?
- A.
4 meters
- B.
8 meters
- C.
10 meters
- D.
13 meters
Correct Answer
C. 10 metersExplanation
An 8-digit grid coordinate brings you to within 10 meters of a point on a map. The number of digits in a grid coordinate determines the level of precision, with more digits indicating a smaller area. In this case, having 8 digits means that the coordinate provides a high level of accuracy, bringing you within 10 meters of the desired point on the map.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population…
- A.
When directed by the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
- B.
During government elections.
- C.
When declared by state governors.
- D.
In time of emergency.
Correct Answer
D. In time of emergency.Explanation
Martial law is a form of military control that is imposed over the civilian population in times of emergency. During such situations, the regular law enforcement agencies may be unable to maintain order and security, hence the military takes over to restore stability. This allows the military to enforce its own set of laws and regulations to ensure public safety and protect vital interests. Martial law can be declared by state governors or national authorities, such as the Joint Chiefs of Staff, depending on the specific circumstances.Rate this question:
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- 49.
How often during southward star navigation do you make azimuth checks?
- A.
Every 5 minutes
- B.
Every 10 minutes
- C.
Every 15 minutes
- D.
Every 20 minutes
Correct Answer
C. Every 15 minutesExplanation
During southward star navigation, it is important to make azimuth checks at regular intervals to ensure accurate navigation. Making azimuth checks every 15 minutes allows for frequent updates on the direction of the star and helps in maintaining a consistent course. This interval strikes a balance between getting timely information and not checking too frequently, which could be unnecessary and time-consuming. By checking every 15 minutes, navigators can make necessary adjustments to their course and ensure they are on track to their destination.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What would you do if a violator stop in an area that you do not like or is unsafe?
- A.
Move your vehicle in front of the violator’s and tell the violator to follow you.
- B.
Use your public address system to instruct the violator where to go.
- C.
Signal the violator with you emergency lights and siren to move.
- D.
Signal the driver using your hand and arm signals to follow you.
Correct Answer
B. Use your public address system to instruct the violator where to go. -
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 03, 2015Quiz Created by
Aircaraballo
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