3P051 Trivia Questions Test On Security Forces Journeyman!
Below is a 3p051: Trivia Questions Test on Security Forces Journeyman! Once you are done with this course, you will be charged with force protection duties, guarding weapons, airbases, and Air Force. Do you feel like you have been attentive enough to pass this quiz? How about you give it a try and see how true that is.
- 1.
What standard did the US Supreme Court establish for assessing use of force?
- A.
Objective reasonableness
- B.
Subjective reasoning
- C.
Reasonable certainty
- D.
Objective certainty
Correct Answer
A. Objective reasonablenessExplanation
The US Supreme Court established the standard of "objective reasonableness" for assessing the use of force. This means that the court evaluates whether the use of force was reasonable from the perspective of a hypothetical reasonable person, considering the circumstances and facts known to the officer at the time. This standard focuses on the objective facts and circumstances rather than the subjective beliefs or intentions of the officer.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which search method is often used to in large outdoor areas?
- A.
Concentric circle
- B.
Item-to-item
- C.
Zone or sector
- D.
Strip and grid
Correct Answer
D. Strip and gridExplanation
Strip and grid search method is often used in large outdoor areas. This method involves dividing the search area into strips and then systematically searching each strip using a grid pattern. This allows for a thorough and organized search of the entire area, making it particularly effective in large outdoor spaces where the search area needs to be covered efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 3.
If you hear cries for help from a building while on patrol you may…
- A.
Enter the building to prevent injury or damage.
- B.
Enter the building only to identify suspects.
- C.
Not enter until the flight chief arrives.
- D.
Not enter until you witness an assault.
Correct Answer
A. Enter the building to prevent injury or damage.Explanation
If you hear cries for help from a building while on patrol, it is important to enter the building to prevent injury or damage. This is because the cries for help indicate that there may be someone in immediate danger or need of assistance. By entering the building, you can assess the situation, provide aid to those in need, and ensure the safety of individuals inside the building. Waiting for the flight chief or witnessing an assault may result in unnecessary delays and potential harm to individuals who require immediate help.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Why is it important to keep suspects and witnesses separated?
- A.
So you can interrogate them alone to get the truth.
- B.
So you cannot distort each other’s impression.
- C.
So you can plea bargain with them
- D.
Standing orders.
Correct Answer
B. So you cannot distort each other’s impression.Explanation
It is important to keep suspects and witnesses separated so that they cannot distort each other's impression. This is because when suspects and witnesses are kept together, they may discuss the case or share information, which can lead to their stories being influenced or changed. By keeping them separated, their individual accounts and testimonies remain unbiased and untainted, ensuring a more accurate and reliable investigation.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What year was the name of the career field changed to “Security Police”?
- A.
1950
- B.
1966
- C.
1971
- D.
1985
Correct Answer
B. 1966Explanation
In 1966, the name of the career field was changed to "Security Police".Rate this question:
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- 6.
The Security Police shield started out as a/an…
- A.
Distinctive hat worn only by Military Police.
- B.
Military Police/ Air Police brassard.
- C.
4x4 laminated identification card.
- D.
Air police function badge.
Correct Answer
B. Military Police/ Air Police brassard.Explanation
The correct answer is the Military Police/ Air Police brassard. A brassard is a type of armband worn by military or police personnel to identify their affiliation. In this context, the Security Police shield most likely refers to a brassard worn by Military Police or Air Police personnel to distinguish themselves and indicate their role in maintaining security. This explanation is supported by the fact that the other options, such as a distinctive hat, laminated identification card, or function badge, do not specifically relate to the concept of a brassard.Rate this question:
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- 7.
One of the elements of signal operating instructions (SOI) is...
- A.
Accurate supplemental instructions.
- B.
Complete supplemental instructions.
- C.
Brief supplemental instructions.
- D.
Clear supplemental instructions.
Correct Answer
B. Complete supplemental instructions.Explanation
Signal operating instructions (SOI) are a set of guidelines and procedures that provide clear and detailed instructions for the operation of a signal system. These instructions are crucial for ensuring the proper functioning of the system and the safety of the operators. "Complete supplemental instructions" implies that the SOI includes all the necessary and relevant information, leaving no room for ambiguity or confusion. This ensures that operators have all the information they need to carry out their tasks effectively and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Signal operating instructions (SOI) will allow base defense forces to ensure that communications are…
- A.
Fairly accurate and speedy.
- B.
Concise and accurate.
- C.
Speedy and in-depth.
- D.
Speedy and simplistic.
Correct Answer
D. Speedy and simplistic.Explanation
Signal operating instructions (SOI) are designed to provide clear and easily understandable communication guidelines for base defense forces. By being "speedy," the SOI ensures that information can be quickly transmitted and understood, enabling prompt decision-making and action. Additionally, the SOI being "simplistic" means that the instructions are straightforward and uncomplicated, reducing the chances of misinterpretation or confusion. This simplicity allows for efficient and effective communication, enhancing the overall coordination and effectiveness of base defense forces.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the concepts listed is necessary for effective communications?
- A.
Brevity codes.
- B.
Authentic transmissions.
- C.
Localized decoding procedures
- D.
Localized encoding procedures.
Correct Answer
A. Brevity codes.Explanation
Brevity codes are necessary for effective communications as they provide concise and efficient ways to convey information. By using standardized codes and abbreviations, communication can be streamlined and understood more quickly and accurately. This is particularly important in situations where time is limited or where clear and precise communication is crucial, such as in military operations or emergency situations. Brevity codes allow for effective and efficient communication, enhancing overall communication effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 10.
OPSEC enables friendly force information superiority by…
- A.
Attacking adversary information systems with viruses.
- B.
Neutralizing adversary information activities.
- C.
Randomly inspecting OPSEC programs.
- D.
Controlling the output of information.
Correct Answer
B. Neutralizing adversary information activities.Explanation
OPSEC (Operations Security) is a process that aims to protect critical information from being accessed by adversaries. By neutralizing adversary information activities, OPSEC ensures that sensitive information remains confidential and prevents adversaries from gathering intelligence or exploiting vulnerabilities. This helps maintain friendly force information superiority by denying adversaries access to valuable information, ultimately enhancing operational security and the ability to execute missions effectively.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is the last step in the Operations Security (OPSEC) process?
- A.
Application of appropriate measures
- B.
Risk assessment
- C.
Threat analysis
- D.
Reconditioning
Correct Answer
A. Application of appropriate measuresExplanation
The last step in the Operations Security (OPSEC) process is the application of appropriate measures. Once the risk assessment and threat analysis have been conducted, the next step is to implement the necessary measures to mitigate the identified risks and threats. This involves implementing security protocols, procedures, and countermeasures to protect sensitive information and assets. By applying appropriate measures, organizations can enhance their security posture and ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of their operations.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Specific items of information are usually only critical for a prescribed?
- A.
Time phased classification
- B.
Monthly inspection
- C.
Period of time
- D.
Limitation
Correct Answer
C. Period of timeExplanation
The term "period of time" refers to a specific duration or interval during which certain actions or events occur. In the context of the question, it suggests that specific items of information are only critical within a certain timeframe or for a particular duration. This implies that the importance or relevance of the information may vary depending on the specific period of time being considered.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The centerpiece of Operations Security (OPSEC) is…
- A.
Threat analysis.
- B.
Risk Management.
- C.
Communications safety.
- D.
Information security.
Correct Answer
B. Risk Management.Explanation
The correct answer is Risk Management. Risk management is the central focus of Operations Security (OPSEC) as it involves identifying potential threats and vulnerabilities, assessing their potential impact, and implementing measures to mitigate or eliminate them. It involves analyzing the risks associated with sensitive information and operations, and developing strategies to protect them from potential adversaries. By effectively managing risks, organizations can safeguard their critical assets and maintain operational security.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What are the four major groups for transmission of communicable diseases?
- A.
Contact, internal, waterborne, insect and animal borne.
- B.
Contact, external, waterborne, insect and animal borne.
- C.
Contact, inhaling, waterborne, insect and animal borne.
- D.
Contact, intestinal, waterborne, insect and animal borne.
Correct Answer
D. Contact, intestinal, waterborne, insect and animal borne.Explanation
The four major groups for transmission of communicable diseases are contact, intestinal, waterborne, and insect and animal borne. Contact transmission occurs through direct physical contact with an infected person or their bodily fluids. Intestinal transmission refers to the spread of diseases through contaminated food or water. Waterborne transmission occurs when diseases are spread through contaminated water sources. Insect and animal borne transmission happens when diseases are transmitted through vectors like mosquitoes or animals.Rate this question:
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- 15.
An effective way of defeating crawling insects is…
- A.
Not wearing socks.
- B.
Spraying your boots with Windex.
- C.
Not washing your pants bottoms.
- D.
Tucking your pants into the tops of your socks and boots.
Correct Answer
D. Tucking your pants into the tops of your socks and boots.Explanation
Tucking your pants into the tops of your socks and boots is an effective way of defeating crawling insects. This method prevents insects from crawling up your legs and reaching your body. By creating a barrier between your pants and the ground, it becomes difficult for insects to climb up and access your body. This simple action can help protect against insect bites and potential infestations.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the RX RF bandwidth programmable for?
- A.
133-154 MHz and 203-270 MHz receiver.
- B.
136-174 MHz and 403-470 MHz receiver.
- C.
139-194 MHz and 603-670 MHz receiver.
- D.
154-214 MHz and 803-870 MHz receiver.
Correct Answer
B. 136-174 MHz and 403-470 MHz receiver.Explanation
The RX RF bandwidth is programmable for a receiver that operates within the frequency range of 136-174 MHz and 403-470 MHz. This means that the receiver can be adjusted to receive signals within these specific frequency bands, allowing for flexibility and customization in different operating environments.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which statement is a step in base-station installation?
- A.
Finding a good grounding location.
- B.
Inspecting the strap assembly.
- C.
Installing the power supply.
- D.
Setting up the operations tent.
Correct Answer
C. Installing the power supply.Explanation
Installing the power supply is a step in base-station installation because the power supply is essential for providing electricity to the base station equipment. Without a power supply, the base station will not be able to function properly. Therefore, installing the power supply is a crucial step in the installation process to ensure that the base station has the necessary power to operate effectively.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When installing the power supply, select a flat surface…
- A.
Near the external loudspeaker.
- B.
10 feet from the generator unit.
- C.
Next to the battery recharger.
- D.
6 feet from the base station.
Correct Answer
D. 6 feet from the base station.Explanation
When installing the power supply, it is important to select a flat surface that is 6 feet away from the base station. This distance is necessary to ensure that the power supply is not too close to the base station, which could cause interference or other issues. Additionally, placing the power supply near the external loudspeaker, next to the battery recharger, or 10 feet from the generator unit would not be ideal as it may also cause interference or be inconvenient for other reasons.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What do we call arranging material around an object so that it appears to be part of line background?
- A.
Hiding
- B.
Blending
- C.
Deceiving
- D.
Natural forming
Correct Answer
B. BlendingExplanation
Blending refers to the act of arranging material around an object in such a way that it seamlessly merges with the background, making it appear as if it is a natural part of the surroundings. This technique is often used in art and design to create a harmonious and cohesive composition, where the object becomes visually integrated with its environment.Rate this question:
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- 20.
An example of artificial cover is a...
- A.
Foxhole.
- B.
Ravine.
- C.
Bush.
- D.
Tree.
Correct Answer
A. Foxhole.Explanation
An example of artificial cover is a foxhole because it is a man-made hole in the ground that provides protection and concealment for soldiers during combat. It is specifically created to shield individuals from enemy fire and observation. A ravine, bush, and tree are natural forms of cover and not considered artificial.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What type of cover are ravines, reverse slopes and hollows?
- A.
Artificial
- B.
Foxholes
- C.
Natural
- D.
Walls
Correct Answer
A. Artificial -
- 22.
Bushes, grass, and shadows are examples of…
- A.
Artificial concealment.
- B.
Natural concealment.
- C.
Manmade obstacles.
- D.
Natural cover.
Correct Answer
B. Natural concealment.Explanation
The given options are all related to concealing or hiding something. However, bushes, grass, and shadows are all examples of natural elements that can be used to hide or blend in with the surroundings. Therefore, the correct answer is natural concealment, as it refers to the act of using natural features to hide or remain unseen.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Secure PL1 resources by…
- A.
Providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area.
- B.
Posting sentries when IDS is not installed or operational.
- C.
Ensuring proper training of assigned personnel.
- D.
Posting external response force elements.
Correct Answer
A. Providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area.Explanation
The correct answer is providing dedicated response elements inside and outside the restricted area. This means that there should be specific personnel assigned to respond to any security threats both within and outside the restricted area. By having dedicated response elements, there is a higher level of preparedness and effectiveness in dealing with any potential security breaches.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What kind of area contains federal government resources located off military lands and doesn’t fall under the jurisdiction of the DOD or military department?
- A.
Controlled
- B.
Restricted
- C.
Disaster response
- D.
National Defense
Correct Answer
D. National DefenseExplanation
The term "National Defense" refers to the area that contains federal government resources located off military lands. This area is not under the jurisdiction of the Department of Defense (DOD) or any military department. It is a separate entity that is responsible for the defense and protection of the nation.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What is the function of the augmentation force if a nuclear weapon has been taken?
- A.
To protect the remaining nuclear weapons that have not been taken.
- B.
Let the response force and backup force handle the situation.
- C.
To setup base defense positions around the perimeter.
- D.
To assist in recapture and recovery operations.
Correct Answer
D. To assist in recapture and recovery operations.Explanation
The function of the augmentation force is to assist in recapture and recovery operations. This means that the augmentation force is responsible for helping to regain control of the nuclear weapon that has been taken and recover it. They would work alongside other forces to plan and execute operations to retrieve the weapon and ensure its safe return.Rate this question:
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- 26.
One of the three rules to remember when using the Authentication Sheet is to...
- A.
Transmit letters and numbers.
- B.
Always transmit letters, not numbers.
- C.
Remember the last letter you receive must be even and set
- D.
Remember that the first three letters you pass or receive must be set letters.
Correct Answer
C. Remember the last letter you receive must be even and setExplanation
The correct answer is "Remember the last letter you receive must be even and set." This rule is important to ensure the accuracy and security of the authentication process. By making sure that the last letter received is even and set, it helps to prevent any unauthorized access or tampering with the information being transmitted. This rule adds an extra layer of protection to the authentication sheet system.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Why should you recover field wire after an operation?
- A.
So the next deployment squad doesn’t use it.
- B.
Leaving used wire makes future operations easier.
- C.
So that the enemy can use it or interfere with other operations.
- D.
So that you won’t have to figure out which wires are being used.
Correct Answer
D. So that you won’t have to figure out which wires are being used.Explanation
Recovering field wire after an operation is important so that you won't have to figure out which wires are being used. By removing the used wire, you can ensure that only the necessary and functional wires are left in place. This helps in streamlining future operations and prevents confusion or potential errors caused by using incorrect or damaged wires.Rate this question:
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- 28.
After the conductors have been cut, how many inches should they be staggered when splicing field wire?
- A.
6
- B.
8
- C.
10
- D.
12
Correct Answer
A. 6Explanation
When splicing field wire, the conductors should be staggered by 6 inches. Staggering the conductors helps to prevent signal interference and ensures a secure and reliable connection. By offsetting the conductors, any potential crosstalk or electromagnetic interference between them is minimized, resulting in better signal transmission. Staggering the conductors also helps to distribute the stress on the splice point more evenly, reducing the risk of mechanical failure. Therefore, the correct answer is 6 inches.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Most often suicidal persons are overwhelmed with…
- A.
Too much money, divorce, and work problems.
- B.
Pending legal action, work problems, or having fun.
- C.
Loss of a loved one, mental health, and divorce.
- D.
Relationship difficulties, divorce, and going on vacation.
Correct Answer
C. Loss of a loved one, mental health, and divorce.Explanation
Suicidal persons are often overwhelmed with multiple factors that can contribute to their distress. The loss of a loved one can trigger intense grief and feelings of hopelessness. Mental health issues, such as depression or anxiety, can exacerbate their emotional state and make it difficult for them to cope with their problems. Divorce, a significant life change, can also lead to feelings of loneliness, isolation, and despair. These three factors combined can create a perfect storm of overwhelming emotions for someone who is already vulnerable.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Microorganisms in blood that cause disease are?
- A.
“A” cells
- B.
White blood cells
- C.
Cancer causing cells
- D.
Blood borne pathogens
Correct Answer
D. Blood borne pathogensExplanation
Blood borne pathogens are microorganisms that are present in the blood and can cause disease. These pathogens can be bacteria, viruses, or other types of microorganisms. They are typically transmitted through contact with infected blood or other body fluids. Examples of blood borne pathogens include HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. It is important to take precautions to prevent the spread of these pathogens, especially in healthcare settings.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace is?
- A.
Sweat
- B.
Blood
- C.
Syringes
- D.
Body fluids
Correct Answer
B. BloodExplanation
Blood is the single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace because it can carry various pathogens, including viruses and bacteria, that can cause infections and diseases. Bloodborne pathogens such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C can be transmitted through contact with infected blood. This can occur through needlestick injuries, cuts, or other forms of direct contact with blood. Therefore, proper precautions and safety measures should be taken in workplaces to prevent the transmission of diseases through blood.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What has the tendency to cause rusting and malfunctions in radios?
- A.
Submersion in 6 inches of water
- B.
Dead batteries
- C.
Bad antennas
- D.
Weapons oil
Correct Answer
A. Submersion in 6 inches of waterExplanation
Submersion in 6 inches of water can cause rusting and malfunctions in radios. When electronics come into contact with water, it can lead to corrosion and damage to the internal components. Water can create a pathway for electrical current to flow where it shouldn't, causing short circuits and rendering the radio inoperable. Additionally, rust can form on metal parts, further impacting the functionality of the radio. Therefore, submersion in water can be detrimental to the proper functioning of radios.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is the first step in erecting the antenna mast?
- A.
Selecting a wooded area for concealment.
- B.
Assembling the antenna mast anchors.
- C.
Selecting an unobstructed site.
- D.
Camouflaging the antenna.
Correct Answer
C. Selecting an unobstructed site.Explanation
The first step in erecting the antenna mast is selecting an unobstructed site. This means choosing a location that is free from any obstacles or obstructions that could interfere with the antenna's signal transmission or reception. By selecting an unobstructed site, the antenna will have a clear line of sight and be able to function optimally. This step is crucial in ensuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the antenna mast installation.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What position should you assume to observe around corners of buildings?
- A.
Crouching
- B.
Standing
- C.
Kneeling
- D.
Prone
Correct Answer
D. ProneExplanation
To observe around corners of buildings, assuming a prone position is the most suitable. When lying prone, the body is flat on the ground, providing a low profile and minimizing the chances of being seen by someone on the other side of the corner. This position also allows for better stability and accuracy when aiming or observing, as the body is fully supported by the ground. Additionally, being prone makes it easier to quickly transition into a shooting position if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What method do you use to clear a corner when speed is required?
- A.
Cornering
- B.
Skipping
- C.
Bursting
- D.
Pie-ing
Correct Answer
D. Pie-ingExplanation
"Pie-ing" refers to the technique of quickly and sharply turning the steering wheel to navigate a corner at high speed. This technique allows the driver to maintain control and minimize the time spent in the turn, resulting in faster cornering. It is commonly used in racing and other situations where speed is required.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Likelihood of enemy contact we divide into three categories;
- A.
Expected, possible and likely.
- B.
Likely, expected and observed.
- C.
Not likely, possible and expected.
- D.
Threat analysis, not likely and ambushes.
Correct Answer
C. Not likely, possible and expected.Explanation
The answer "Not likely, possible and expected" is the correct categorization of likelihood of enemy contact based on the given information. The question presents a list of categories for likelihood of enemy contact, with each category consisting of three words. By comparing the given options with the categories mentioned, it can be determined that "Not likely" corresponds to the first category, "possible" corresponds to the second category, and "expected" corresponds to the third category. Therefore, the correct answer is "Not likely, possible and expected."Rate this question:
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- 37.
What areas do you avoid because they outline you against the lighter sky?
- A.
Ditches
- B.
Skylines
- C.
Windows
- D.
Reverse slopes
Correct Answer
B. SkylinesExplanation
Skylines are areas that outline against the lighter sky, making them easily distinguishable and visible. This is because skylines are typically made up of tall buildings, structures, or natural features that stand out against the background of the sky. Therefore, to avoid being outlined against the lighter sky, one would avoid areas with prominent skylines.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Where is the guard receiver-transmitter installed in the base station?
- A.
On top
- B.
Left side
- C.
Right side
- D.
Center slot
Correct Answer
B. Left sideExplanation
The guard receiver-transmitter is installed on the left side of the base station.Rate this question:
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- 39.
When is the programming cable used with the base station?
- A.
For headset use.
- B.
In desert climates.
- C.
When using giant voice connections.
- D.
For external programming of the portable radio communication (PRC) 139.
Correct Answer
D. For external programming of the portable radio communication (PRC) 139.Explanation
The programming cable is used with the base station for external programming of the portable radio communication (PRC) 139. This means that the cable is used to connect the base station to the PRC 139 in order to program or configure it. It is not used for headset use, in desert climates, or when using giant voice connections.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is one of the causes for failure of the push-to-talk (PTT) button on the portable radio communication (PRC) 139?
- A.
Lack of power
- B.
Operator error
- C.
Dry circuits
- D.
Dirt
Correct Answer
D. DirtExplanation
Dirt can be one of the causes for the failure of the push-to-talk (PTT) button on the portable radio communication (PRC) 139. Dirt can accumulate on the button and interfere with its functionality, making it difficult or impossible to activate the PTT feature. Regular cleaning and maintenance can help prevent dirt buildup and ensure proper functioning of the PTT button.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Factors we use to determine movement techniques are control, dispersion, speed and…
- A.
Cover.
- B.
Security.
- C.
Fire support.
- D.
Concealment.
Correct Answer
B. Security.Explanation
The factors mentioned, control, dispersion, speed, and security, are all important considerations when determining movement techniques. Control refers to the ability to maintain command and direction during movement, dispersion involves spreading out to minimize vulnerability, speed is the rate at which movement occurs, and security refers to measures taken to protect personnel and equipment from enemy threats. Therefore, security is a crucial factor in determining movement techniques as it ensures the safety and protection of the moving forces.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which movement technique do we use when speed is essential and enemy contact is not likely?
- A.
Traveling
- B.
Wedge formation
- C.
Traveling overwatch
- D.
Bounding overwatch
Correct Answer
A. TravelingExplanation
When speed is essential and enemy contact is not likely, the movement technique used is traveling. This technique allows for quick movement while maintaining a loose formation, making it easier to cover ground efficiently. It is suitable when there is a need to reach a destination quickly without the expectation of encountering enemies.Rate this question:
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- 43.
In the traveling formation the team leader is best located?
- A.
With the lead fire team.
- B.
At the rear of the formation.
- C.
Out in the front of the formation.
- D.
Between the first and second fire team.
Correct Answer
A. With the lead fire team.Explanation
In a traveling formation, the team leader is best located with the lead fire team. This is because the team leader needs to be at the front of the formation to provide guidance, direction, and make quick decisions. Being with the lead fire team allows the team leader to have a clear view of the terrain ahead and effectively communicate with the rest of the team. Placing the team leader at the rear of the formation or between the first and second fire team may hinder their ability to lead effectively and maintain situational awareness.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Where would the two-person concept apply with respect to security forces performing entry control duties?
- A.
No-lone zone
- B.
Restricted zone
- C.
Controlled area
- D.
Two-person zone
Correct Answer
A. No-lone zoneExplanation
The two-person concept would apply in a "No-lone zone" when it comes to security forces performing entry control duties. In a no-lone zone, it is required that two individuals work together at all times to ensure safety and security. This concept helps to prevent any individual from being vulnerable or isolated, as having two people present increases the effectiveness of security measures and reduces the risk of unauthorized access or potential threats.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The first step in connecting the lines to the TA-312 is…
- A.
Strip away 1 inch of insulation from the ends of the two wires.
- B.
Seat the handset firmly in the retaining cradle.
- C.
Adjust buzzer volume control knob to loud.
- D.
Turn the INT-EXT switch to INT.
Correct Answer
A. Strip away 1 inch of insulation from the ends of the two wires.Explanation
The first step in connecting the lines to the TA-312 is to strip away 1 inch of insulation from the ends of the two wires. This is necessary in order to expose the conductive metal wire that will be used to establish the connection. By removing the insulation, the wires can be properly inserted into the appropriate terminals or connectors to ensure a secure and reliable connection.Rate this question:
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- 46.
To operate the TA-312/PT in the LB mode you must…
- A.
Remove H60? PT from the cradle and wait for the operator to answer.
- B.
Press the press-to-talk switch and release to listen.
- C.
Place the INT/EXT switch to INT position.
- D.
Ensure the INT/EXT switch is on EXT.
Correct Answer
C. Place the INT/EXT switch to INT position.Explanation
To operate the TA-312/PT in the LB mode, you need to place the INT/EXT switch to the INT position. This switch determines whether the communication is internal (within your unit) or external (with other units). By setting it to INT, you are selecting internal communication mode. This allows you to communicate with other members of your unit using the TA-312/PT.Rate this question:
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- 47.
When operating the SB-22, the operator uses the generator hand wheel to…
- A.
Ring forward or ring back when extending off telephone circuits.
- B.
Provide connection for the operator’s telephone set.
- C.
Signal the called party when calls are extended.
- D.
Answer incoming calls.
Correct Answer
C. Signal the called party when calls are extended.Explanation
The correct answer is "Signal the called party when calls are extended." When operating the SB-22, the operator uses the generator hand wheel to generate a ringing signal that is sent to the called party when calls are extended. This signal alerts the called party that there is an incoming call.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What can you use to keep your clothes dry in the field?
- A.
Waterproof clothing bags
- B.
Change them frequently
- C.
Tree branches
- D.
Mosquito nets
Correct Answer
A. Waterproof clothing bagsExplanation
Waterproof clothing bags can be used to keep clothes dry in the field because they are designed to prevent water from entering and damaging the clothes. These bags are made from materials that are resistant to water, such as nylon or PVC, and often come with sealed seams or zippers to provide extra protection. By using waterproof clothing bags, individuals can ensure that their clothes remain dry even in wet or rainy conditions, making them a practical and reliable solution for keeping clothes protected in the field.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is considered the most deadly hazard of the security forces career field?
- A.
Fires
- B.
Stress
- C.
Major accidents
- D.
Traffic accidents
Correct Answer
B. StressExplanation
Stress is considered the most deadly hazard in the security forces career field because it can have severe physical and mental health consequences. The high-pressure nature of the job, constant exposure to dangerous situations, and the need to make split-second decisions can lead to chronic stress. This can result in a range of health issues such as heart disease, depression, anxiety, and even suicide. Additionally, stress can impair judgment and decision-making abilities, increasing the risk of accidents and errors on the job. Therefore, stress poses a significant threat to the well-being and effectiveness of security forces personnel.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) uses physical presence to demonstrate US resolve?
- A.
Arms control
- B.
Show of force
- C.
Enforcement sanctions
- D.
Foreign humanitarian assistance
Correct Answer
B. Show of forceExplanation
A show of force is a military operation other than war (MOOTW) that uses physical presence to demonstrate US resolve. This involves deploying military assets, such as troops, ships, or aircraft, to a particular area or conducting military exercises to showcase military capabilities and deter potential adversaries. The purpose of a show of force is to send a clear message that the US is prepared to take action if necessary and to discourage any aggression or hostile behavior. It is a way of demonstrating strength and resolve without resorting to actual combat.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Nov 16, 2023Quiz Edited by
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May 21, 2009Quiz Created by
18sfs_utm
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