14. (205) What...
91. (224) Range is given in what unit of measurement?
19. (206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
13. (205) "To...
28. (209) Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander's rules for
8. ...
89. (224) In which fire control measure does the leader control the...
3. ...
74. (219) The technique that requires great patience is movement with
86. (223) Due to the nature of the responsibilites, a Base Defense...
16. (206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates...
78. (221) In fire and manuever operations, most of the maneuvering...
27. (208) Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature...
73. (219) Which method of movement do you keep your body off the...
85. (223) Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF...
60. (216) If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all...
68. (217) (DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists...
22. (207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small...
83. (222) Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise...
58. (216) Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry...
95. (226) What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?
98. (227) When must every defender perform shoot, move, and...
29. (209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?
87. (223) Who does the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)...
9. ...
59. (216) One escort official can escort how many people into an...
80. (221) When moving during limited visibility conditions, dead...
15. (205) A...
12. (204) The...
(201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID)...
79. (221) Which movement technique is used when contact with the enemy...
33. (210) What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and...
57. (216) Who is responsible for ensuring the need for individuals to...
92. (225) Which of these is not a probable direction of attack?
7. ...
61. (217) How many lines of sensors surround a launch facility (LF)?
41. (213) At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be...
63. (217) What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?
88. (223) Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical...
30. (209) What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force...
66. (217) (DCNI) What type of aircraft security is afforded to a...
40. (213) What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified...
43. (213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what...
90. (224) Which firing element has an engagement priorty of groups of...
76. (220) What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or...
54. (215) The product resulting from collecting, processing,...
71. (218) (DCNI) When the last tasked aircraft is loaded and placed on...
50. (214) Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person...
56. (216) Security deviations are documented on AF Form
100. (227) When the shooter pivots on the strong side foot to face the...
17. (206) Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average...
35. (211) The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and...
53. (215) "A person or group that holds an extreme ideological view,...
20. (206) What term describes the stated desire or history of...
93. (225) The engagement range of machine guns in the base-of-fire...
18. (206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final...
82. (222) Weather and light data is found in which paragraph of the...
42. (213) The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how...
10. (204) What...
24. (208) Which of these is not a force protection effect?
64. (217) Which of these are not considered a nuclear capable...
47. (214) What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to...
32. (210) When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major...
36. (211) In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point...
70. (218) The area immediately around an alert aircraft must be
45. (214) What is essential to our security?
46. (214) The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with
26. (208) What is defined as the capability to reduce the...
77. (220) Who uses area reconnaissance patrols to gather information?
5. ...
65. (217) (DCNI) Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals...
84. (222) What would not be discussed in the service and support...
75. (220) How many categories of patrols are there?
62. (217) Where would you find a weapon security vault?
23. (207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of...
72. (218) How many types of nuclear movements are there on an...
94. (225) By virtue of the inherent firepower, machine guns with...
6. ...
11. (204) In...
2. ...
37. (212) Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?
25. (208) The key to force protection countermeasure planning is
34. (211) How many phases are there in the deployment process?
21. (207) Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts...
38. (212) The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how...
39. (212) A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has...
48. (214) Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the...
31. (210) The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many...
67. (217) (DCNI) What is a Type II security forces composition?
49. (214) Active and passive security measures are used to achieve...
97. (226) Operating openly or covertly as a listening/observation post...
52. (215) How many potential adversary groups are of primary concern...
69. (218) Alert aircraft areas that contain nuclear weapons mated to...
4. ...
51. (215) The Nuclear Security Threat Capabilities Assessment (NSTCA)...
55. (216) The risk acceptance authority for security deviations is the
44. (214) The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the
96. (226) Which close precision engagement (CPE) task provides the...