3S051 Set A Volume 2 Contingency Support

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3S051 Set A Volume 2 Contingency Support - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In order for joint doctrine to promote a perspective that is used to plan, train, and conduct military operations, it represents what is

    • A.

      Believed what is wrong or incorrect (that is, what is not working properly)

    • B.

      Taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (that is, what works best)

    • C.

      Thought of as joint military operations

    • D.

      Thought of as US military war blueprints

    Correct Answer
    B. Taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (that is, what works best)
    Explanation
    Joint doctrine is a set of principles and guidelines that guide the planning, training, and execution of military operations. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right and what works best. This means that joint doctrine is based on the collective knowledge and experience of military professionals, and it is continuously refined and updated to reflect the most effective practices and strategies. By following joint doctrine, military forces can ensure that they are utilizing the most efficient and successful approaches to achieve their objectives.

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  • 2. 

    What process guides the combatant commanders (CCDR) in developing plans for the possible employment of the military instrument of national power to meet contingencies and respond to unforeseen crises?

    • A.

      Mobilization planning

    • B.

      Deployment planning

    • C.

      Joint operation planning

    • D.

      Employment planning

    Correct Answer
    C. Joint operation planning
    Explanation
    Joint operation planning is the process that guides the combatant commanders in developing plans for the possible employment of the military instrument of national power to meet contingencies and respond to unforeseen crises. This planning process involves the coordination and integration of all joint capabilities, forces, and resources to achieve the desired objectives. It includes the identification of tasks, allocation of resources, and establishment of command and control structures to ensure effective and efficient execution of military operations. Joint operation planning ensures that all elements of the military are working together towards a common goal and maximizes the chances of success in combat operations.

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  • 3. 

    The provision of logistics and personnel services required to maintain and prolong operations until successful mission accomplishment describes

    • A.

      Joint operation planning

    • B.

      Operation planning

    • C.

      Redeployment planning

    • D.

      Sustainment planning

    Correct Answer
    D. Sustainment planning
    Explanation
    Sustainment planning involves the provision of logistics and personnel services to ensure the continuous support and maintenance of operations until the successful completion of a mission. This includes activities such as ensuring the availability of supplies, equipment, and personnel, as well as managing transportation, maintenance, and medical support. Sustainment planning is essential for the long-term success of operations and plays a crucial role in ensuring the sustainability and effectiveness of military missions.

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  • 4. 

    Total force accountability is defined as the accurate accounting for all Air Force at all times

    • A.

      And their dependents

    • B.

      Regardless of location

    • C.

      Even if they have an approved retirement date on file

    • D.

      Even if they have not deployed within the last year

    Correct Answer
    B. Regardless of location
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "regardless of location" because total force accountability requires accurately accounting for all Air Force personnel and their dependents, regardless of where they are located. This means that even if someone is stationed or deployed in a different location, their presence and well-being must be accounted for. The phrase "regardless of location" emphasizes the importance of maintaining accurate records and ensuring that all personnel are included in the accountability process, regardless of where they may be.

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  • 5. 

    Total force accountability can be expanded by the theater commander or the supported command to include all of the following except

    • A.

      DOD emergency civilians

    • B.

      DOD essential contractor personnel

    • C.

      Dependents

    • D.

      Allied forces

    Correct Answer
    C. Dependents
    Explanation
    Total force accountability refers to the responsibility of the theater commander or the supported command to track and account for all personnel under their command. This includes military personnel, DOD emergency civilians, and DOD essential contractor personnel. However, dependents, who are family members of military personnel, are not typically included in total force accountability as they are not directly under the command of the theater commander or the supported command. Allied forces, on the other hand, may be included in total force accountability as they may be operating under the command of the theater commander or the supported command.

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  • 6. 

    PERSCO maintains accountabillity over all personnel on the ground, including transients, at their deployed and designated geographically seperated location, regardless of status, acccording to component command policies describes which element of total force accountability?

    • A.

      Total force

    • B.

      Unit

    • C.

      Replacement

    • D.

      Strength

    Correct Answer
    D. Strength
    Explanation
    This question is asking which element of total force accountability is described by the statement that PERSCO maintains accountability over all personnel on the ground, including transients, at their deployed and designated geographically separated location, regardless of status, according to component command policies. The correct answer is "strength". This is because strength refers to the total number of personnel in a unit, including all individuals who are present at a specific location. PERSCO's responsibility for maintaining accountability over all personnel, regardless of status, aligns with the concept of strength in total force accountability.

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  • 7. 

    The guard is a unique institution with both

    • A.

      State and country missions

    • B.

      Federal and state missions

    • C.

      Federal and overseas missions

    • D.

      USAF, Marine, and Coast Guard missions

    Correct Answer
    B. Federal and state missions
    Explanation
    The correct answer is federal and state missions. This means that the guard serves both the federal government and the individual states. They have responsibilities at both levels, which could include responding to emergencies, providing support during natural disasters, and assisting with border security. This dual role allows the guard to serve the needs of both the federal and state governments and ensures that they can effectively respond to a wide range of situations.

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  • 8. 

    The air and space expeditionary force's (AEF) primary purpose is 

    • A.

      To provide predictability to Airmen

    • B.

      To provide stability to Airmen

    • C.

      Warfighter support

    • D.

      To disseminate Airmen across the tempo bands fairly

    Correct Answer
    C. Warfighter support
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is to provide warfighter support. This means that the AEF is responsible for providing assistance and resources to military personnel engaged in combat or other military operations. The AEF ensures that the warfighters have the necessary support and capabilities to carry out their missions effectively. This includes providing equipment, supplies, and personnel as needed. By focusing on warfighter support, the AEF contributes to the overall success and effectiveness of military operations.

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  • 9. 

    Airmen are assigned to unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations that are postured in unit type codes. These unit type codes. These unit type codes are aligned in 

    • A.

      The unit manning personnel roster (UPMR)

    • B.

      Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS)

    • C.

      The member's unit mobility folder

    • D.

      One of the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Enabler libraries

    Correct Answer
    D. One of the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Enabler libraries
  • 10. 

    The Air Force presents its force capabilities to satisfy commander requirements through which concept?

    • A.

      Air and space expeditionary force (AEF)

    • B.

      Operations plan (OPLAN)

    • C.

      Unit type code (UTC)

    • D.

      Global warfare

    Correct Answer
    A. Air and space expeditionary force (AEF)
    Explanation
    The Air Force presents its force capabilities to satisfy commander requirements through the concept of air and space expeditionary force (AEF). AEF is a rotational deployment concept that ensures the Air Force can provide forces to meet combatant commander requirements. It allows for the organized and predictable deployment of forces, ensuring that the Air Force can quickly respond to global challenges and support military operations worldwide. By using the AEF concept, the Air Force can effectively plan and allocate its resources to meet the needs of commanders and accomplish their missions.

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  • 11. 

    Global Force Management (GFM) is a process to align 

    • A.

      Tempo bands "A", "B", "E", and "N"

    • B.

      And group all of the adversaries vulnerabilities

    • C.

      Force apportionment, assignment, and allocation methodologies in support of the defense strategy and in support of joint force availability requirements

    • D.

      AEF cycle with the Enabler library

    Correct Answer
    D. AEF cycle with the Enabler library
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "AEF cycle with the Enabler library". This is because the statement mentions "Global Force Management (GFM) is a process to align tempo bands 'A', 'B', 'E', and 'N' and group all of the adversaries vulnerabilities force apportionment, assignment, and allocation methodologies in support of the defense strategy and in support of joint force availability requirements." The AEF cycle with the Enabler library is a specific process used in Global Force Management to align and manage the deployment and availability of forces based on their tempo bands and vulnerabilities.

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  • 12. 

    Air Force manpower and logistics requirements documented in JOPES/DCAPES timephased force deployment data are used in support of all the following except

    • A.

      Operations plan (OPLAN)

    • B.

      Concept of operations (CONPLAN)

    • C.

      Operations order (OPORD)

    • D.

      Schedule of events (SOE)

    Correct Answer
    D. Schedule of events (SOE)
    Explanation
    Air Force manpower and logistics requirements documented in JOPES/DCAPES timephased force deployment data are used in support of operations plan (OPLAN), concept of operations (CONPLAN), and operations order (OPORD). These documents outline the overall strategy, objectives, and specific tasks for military operations. The schedule of events (SOE), on the other hand, is a detailed timeline that specifies the sequence and timing of specific events and activities within an operation. While the manpower and logistics requirements are important for planning and executing the operation, they are not directly related to the specific timing of events. Therefore, the correct answer is schedule of events (SOE).

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  • 13. 

    A unit type code (UTC) is considered complete once

    • A.

      It is registered in the TUCHA without MFE and/or equipment detail

    • B.

      It is registered in the TUCHA with all MFE and/or equipment detail

    • C.

      It is registered in the UTC Availability

    • D.

      All of the agencies have coordinated on the UTC

    Correct Answer
    B. It is registered in the TUCHA with all MFE and/or equipment detail
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "it is registered in the TUCHA with all MFE and/or equipment detail". This means that a unit type code (UTC) is considered complete once it has been registered in the TUCHA (presumably a database or system) with all the necessary information about its MFE (Military Freefall Equipment) and/or equipment detail. This suggests that the registration process requires the inclusion of specific details about the equipment associated with the UTC in order for it to be considered complete.

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  • 14. 

    Standard unit type codes (UTC) are used in JOPES/DCAPES to identify manpower and logistic requirements for all of the following except

    • A.

      Deployment

    • B.

      Movement planning

    • C.

      Sustainment actions

    • D.

      Plan execution

    Correct Answer
    C. Sustainment actions
    Explanation
    Standard unit type codes (UTC) are used in JOPES/DCAPES to identify manpower and logistic requirements for deployment, movement planning, and plan execution. However, sustainment actions are not included in this list. This means that UTCs are not used to identify manpower and logistic requirements specifically for sustainment actions.

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  • 15. 

    Which unit type code (UTC) attribute is a code identifying the deployment status of a UTC?

    • A.

      Unit level

    • B.

      Total short tons

    • C.

      Passengers

    • D.

      Deployment indicator

    Correct Answer
    D. Deployment indicator
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "deployment indicator" because this attribute is specifically used to identify the deployment status of a UTC. It is a code that indicates whether a UTC is deployed or not. The other options such as unit level, total short tons, and passengers do not relate to the deployment status of a UTC.

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  • 16. 

    Personnel unit type codes (UTC) are generally built to accommodate how many days of sustained capability before having to be resupplied or augmented with new supplies or personnel?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    Personnel unit type codes (UTC) are generally built to accommodate 30 days of sustained capability before having to be resupplied or augmented with new supplies or personnel. This means that the UTC is designed to operate efficiently for a month without requiring additional resources or personnel support.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the agencies can initiate unit type code (UTC) development expect 

    • A.

      Headquarters Air Force (HAF) functional area manager (FAM)

    • B.

      Major Command (MAJCOM)

    • C.

      Air National Guard (ANG)

    • D.

      Base Level Military Personnel Section (MPS)

    Correct Answer
    D. Base Level Military Personnel Section (MPS)
    Explanation
    The Base Level Military Personnel Section (MPS) can initiate unit type code (UTC) development. The MPS is responsible for managing and maintaining personnel records at the base level. They have the authority to create and update UTCs based on the needs and requirements of the unit. The MPS works closely with other agencies such as the Headquarters Air Force (HAF) functional area manager (FAM), Major Command (MAJCOM), and Air National Guard (ANG) to ensure that the UTCs are accurate and reflect the unit's mission and capabilities.

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  • 18. 

    Standard unit type codes (UTC) are used in JOPES/DCAPES to identify manpower and logistic requirements for which of the following.

    • A.

      Sustainment actions

    • B.

      Movement planning

    • C.

      Deployment

    • D.

      Plan execution

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Movement planning
    C. Deployment
    D. Plan execution
    Explanation
    Standard unit type codes (UTC) are used in JOPES/DCAPES to identify manpower and logistic requirements for movement planning, deployment, and plan execution. These codes help in determining the specific resources and personnel needed for these activities. By using UTCs, planners can accurately allocate resources, coordinate movements, and ensure the successful execution of plans.

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  • 19. 

    When a unit type code (UTC) is no longer needed, who can request the UTC be cancelled?

    • A.

      MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA)

    • B.

      Major command (MAJCOM)

    • C.

      Wing Plans (XP)

    • D.

      Personnel readiness function (PRF)

    Correct Answer
    A. MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA)
    Explanation
    The MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA) can request the cancellation of a unit type code (UTC) when it is no longer needed.

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  • 20. 

    Unit type codes that are cancelled remain in the MEFPAK and TUCHA for how many years?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    A. One
    Explanation
    Cancelled unit type codes remain in the MEFPAK and TUCHA for one year.

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  • 21. 

    All Air Force personnel contribute to the air expeditionary force (AEF); therefore, all authorizations must be postured in the 

    • A.

      Base level manpower personnel (MANPER-B) module

    • B.

      Unit type code (UTC) availability

    • C.

      Unit manning document (UMD)

    • D.

      Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR)

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit type code (UTC) availability
  • 22. 

    Specific unit type codes (UTC) to posture is based on the Air Staff FAM prioritization and sequencing instructions that can be found in or on the 

    • A.

      AFCSM 36-699, Military Personnel Data System

    • B.

      AFI 10-401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution

    • C.

      AEFC AEF Online Web site

    • D.

      HQ AFPC readiness Web site

    Correct Answer
    C. AEFC AEF Online Web site
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AEFC AEF Online Web site. This website provides specific unit type codes (UTC) to posture based on the Air Staff FAM prioritization and sequencing instructions. It is a reliable source for determining the UTCs required for a particular mission or operation. The other options mentioned are not directly related to UTCs or posture assignments.

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  • 23. 

    A-UTCs are postured in the UTC availability and aligned to the 

    • A.

      Air expeditionary force (AEF) libraries

    • B.

      Tempo bands

    • C.

      Needs of the combatant commander

    • D.

      Needs of the Chief of Staff (CSAF)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air expeditionary force (AEF) libraries
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "air expeditionary force (AEF) libraries". A-UTCs, or Airman-Unit Type Codes, are positioned in the availability of UTCs and are aligned with the tempo bands and needs of the combatant commander. The AEF libraries refer to the resources and guidelines that define the organization and deployment of Air Force personnel and equipment in support of combatant commanders' requirements. A-UTCs are structured according to these libraries to ensure efficient and effective deployment and support of Air Force missions.

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  • 24. 

    The purpose of mobilization planning is the means by which 

    • A.

      Organizations charged with mobilization responsibilities work with other countries to work out the differences

    • B.

      Organizations charged with mobilization responsibilities define policies and document procedures to accomplish tasks

    • C.

      Organizations work with other organizations to improve their war-planning procedures

    • D.

      Governmental aggencies determine whether they required help from the ARC

    Correct Answer
    B. Organizations charged with mobilization responsibilities define policies and document procedures to accomplish tasks
    Explanation
    The purpose of mobilization planning is for organizations charged with mobilization responsibilities to define policies and document procedures to accomplish tasks. This involves creating a structured framework that outlines the steps and guidelines for mobilization, ensuring that all necessary tasks are completed efficiently and effectively. By defining policies and documenting procedures, organizations can ensure consistency, clarity, and accountability in their mobilization efforts. This helps streamline the process and facilitates coordination among different departments or agencies involved in mobilization.

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  • 25. 

    Normally, Push-Pull will not be recommended unless all of the following factors are present except

    • A.

      Large deployments of Air Force forces are required accompanied by expected personnel shortages

    • B.

      Shortages can be predicted in terms of AFSC, quantity, and timing

    • C.

      Major contingencies involve large deployments

    • D.

      Pretrained individual manpower (PIM) resources represent the best source of personnel to satisfy the projected shortages

    Correct Answer
    C. Major contingencies involve large deployments
    Explanation
    Push-Pull is a strategy used to manage personnel shortages in the Air Force. It involves deploying trained individuals (PIM resources) to fill the gaps in manpower. However, major contingencies involving large deployments would actually make Push-Pull more necessary and recommended, as these situations require a significant increase in personnel. Therefore, the presence of major contingencies involving large deployments is not an exception to recommending Push-Pull.

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  • 26. 

    Once the seperation, personnel data system (PDS) action flows from base to Headquarters Air Force (HAF); the HAF records status changes from 10 to

    • A.

      17

    • B.

      18

    • C.

      19

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    D. 20
  • 27. 

    When will the flow of data from the active file to ANG/USAFR file occur?

    • A.

      120 days before the seperation projection

    • B.

      At the time of the initial seperation projection

    • C.

      120 days after the seperation projection

    • D.

      On the seperation date plus one day

    Correct Answer
    B. At the time of the initial seperation projection
    Explanation
    The flow of data from the active file to ANG/USAFR file will occur at the time of the initial separation projection.

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  • 28. 

    In order to demobilize a member, demobilization orders are not required. The personnelist needs what two documents to verify deactivation?

    • A.

      Copy of contingency TDY orders and copy of the paid travel voucher

    • B.

      DD Form 214 and a copy of the contingency TDY orders

    • C.

      DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher

    • D.

      Copy of activation orders adn DD Form 214

    Correct Answer
    C. DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher. These two documents are required to verify deactivation. The DD Form 214 is a Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty, which provides information about the individual's military service. The paid travel voucher confirms that the member has completed their travel and is eligible for reimbursement. Together, these documents serve as evidence that the member has been deactivated and can be demobilized.

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  • 29. 

    Individuals may requestion retention on active duty because of all of the following except

    • A.

      Educational hardship

    • B.

      Personal hardship

    • C.

      Financial hardship

    • D.

      Medical hardship

    Correct Answer
    A. Educational hardship
    Explanation
    Individuals may request retention on active duty because of personal hardship, financial hardship, or medical hardship. However, educational hardship is not a valid reason for requesting retention on active duty. This means that individuals cannot request to stay on active duty solely due to difficulties or challenges related to their education.

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  • 30. 

    Once the wing/installation commander completes the installation deployment officer (IDO) and alternate IDO appointment letter, all of these receive a copy except

    • A.

      Command post

    • B.

      Security forces

    • C.

      Respective MAJCOM/A4

    • D.

      Battle staff/crisis action team (BS/CAT)

    Correct Answer
    B. Security forces
    Explanation
    The wing/installation commander completes the appointment letter for the installation deployment officer (IDO) and alternate IDO. This letter is then distributed to various parties involved in the deployment process. The command post, respective MAJCOM/A4, and battle staff/crisis action team (BS/CAT) all receive a copy of the appointment letter. However, security forces do not receive a copy of this letter.

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  • 31. 

    Who determines the frequency and scope of exercises based on what is necessary to ensure the deployment process runs efficiently and that all units, including Associate units, are prepared to deploy?

    • A.

      Unit deployment manager

    • B.

      Installation deployment officer

    • C.

      Wing/installation commander

    • D.

      Unit commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Wing/installation commander
    Explanation
    The wing/installation commander determines the frequency and scope of exercises based on what is necessary to ensure the deployment process runs efficiently and that all units, including Associate units, are prepared to deploy. They have the authority and responsibility to make decisions regarding exercises and deployments within their jurisdiction. As the highest-ranking officer in charge of the wing or installation, they have the knowledge and expertise to assess the readiness of units and make informed decisions about the necessary exercises.

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  • 32. 

    At a minimum, each wing/installation must conduct at least one deployment exercise per 20-month AEF cycle that tasks what percent of personnel and equipment of all P-coded UTCs identified in the UTC Availability?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      25

    Correct Answer
    D. 25
    Explanation
    Each wing/installation must conduct at least one deployment exercise per 20-month AEF cycle that tasks 25% of personnel and equipment of all P-coded UTCs identified in the UTC Availability.

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  • 33. 

    The wing/installation commander ensures procedures are established to notify Airmen of a tasking within how many hours?

    • A.

      48

    • B.

      96

    • C.

      144

    • D.

      192

    Correct Answer
    B. 96
    Explanation
    The wing/installation commander ensures procedures are established to notify Airmen of a tasking within 96 hours. This means that the commander is responsible for creating protocols that ensure Airmen are informed of their assigned tasks within a maximum time frame of 96 hours. This ensures that Airmen have sufficient time to prepare and carry out their assigned duties effectively.

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  • 34. 

    The mission support group commander (MSG/CC) is responsible for all of the following except

    • A.

      Supports and assists the installation deployment officer (IDO) in resolving issues at the lowest level

    • B.

      Supports the IDO to ensure that assigned units maintain a state of readiness

    • C.

      Facilitting the installation reclama shortfall process

    • D.

      Coordinates with the Logistics Readiness Squadron commander (LRS/CC) and the IDO and recommends to the wing/installation commander the frequency and scope of installation exercises

    Correct Answer
    C. Facilitting the installation reclama shortfall process
    Explanation
    The mission support group commander (MSG/CC) is responsible for supporting and assisting the installation deployment officer (IDO) in resolving issues at the lowest level, supporting the IDO to ensure that assigned units maintain a state of readiness, and coordinating with the Logistics Readiness Squadron commander (LRS/CC) and the IDO to recommend the frequency and scope of installation exercises to the wing/installation commander. However, the MSG/CC is not responsible for facilitating the installation reclama shortfall process.

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  • 35. 

    All of the following make up the installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC) except

    • A.

      Installation deployment officer

    • B.

      Personnel readiness function

    • C.

      Logistics readiness flight

    • D.

      Unit manpower document

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit manpower document
    Explanation
    The unit manpower document is not part of the installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC) because it is a separate document that outlines the required manpower for a unit. The IDRC, on the other hand, consists of the installation deployment officer, personnel readiness function, and logistics readiness flight, which are all responsible for ensuring the readiness and successful deployment of personnel and resources.

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  • 36. 

    Within how many hours of an emergency event will HQ AFPC/PRC publish a message or e-mail to teh MAJCOM CAT directors with a courtesy copy to the MAJCOM CAT/A1 representative outlining accountability procedures requiring all bases to identify personnel who are TDY, on a base, or on leave from their base?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      48

    • C.

      72

    • D.

      96

    Correct Answer
    B. 48
    Explanation
    Within 48 hours of an emergency event, HQ AFPC/PRC will publish a message or email to the MAJCOM CAT directors with a courtesy copy to the MAJCOM CAT/A1 representative outlining accountability procedures. This message will require all bases to identify personnel who are TDY, on a base, or on leave from their base.

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  • 37. 

    What category title will the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) and the National Guard Bereau (NGB) make provisions to include evacuation plans on?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      32

    Correct Answer
    D. 32
    Explanation
    The Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) and the National Guard Bureau (NGB) will make provisions to include evacuation plans on category title 32.

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  • 38. 

    Who willl each MAJCOM and the National Guard Bureau (NGB) direct to ensure all wing/installation commanders and geographically seperated units (GSU) have evacuation plans and tracking procedures in place to account for all personnel in the event of a natural disaster or national emergency?

    • A.

      HQ AFPC/DPA

    • B.

      Plans and Requirements (A5)

    • C.

      HQ AFPC/CAT

    • D.

      HQ AFPC/PA

    Correct Answer
    B. Plans and Requirements (A5)
    Explanation
    The correct answer, Plans and Requirements (A5), is responsible for directing each MAJCOM and the National Guard Bureau (NGB) to ensure that all wing/installation commanders and geographically separated units (GSU) have evacuation plans and tracking procedures in place to account for all personnel in the event of a natural disaster or national emergency.

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  • 39. 

    In the event a member is stranded in a crisis area with no communications available, members are encouraged to report their status to

    • A.

      Their supervisor

    • B.

      Their unit commander

    • C.

      Their flight chief

    • D.

      Any responding agency

    Correct Answer
    D. Any responding agency
    Explanation
    In a crisis situation where a member is stranded with no means of communication, it is important for them to report their status to any responding agency. This is because responding agencies are equipped to handle emergency situations and can provide assistance and support to the stranded member. Reporting to their supervisor, unit commander, or flight chief may not be feasible in such situations as they may also be affected by the crisis or may not have the necessary resources to help. Therefore, reaching out to any responding agency increases the chances of getting the necessary help and support in a crisis area.

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  • 40. 

    Whose responsibility is it to ensure UCCs are trained and in place for members to report their evacuation location in the event the member and/or their families are required to relocate?

    • A.

      Unit commander.

    • B.

      HQ AFPC/PRC.

    • C.

      MAJCOM.

    • D.

      NGB.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit commander.
    Explanation
    The responsibility to ensure UCCs (Unit Control Centers) are trained and in place for members to report their evacuation location lies with the unit commander. This means that the commander of the specific unit is accountable for making sure that UCCs are established and that the members and their families have a designated location to report to in case of relocation. This responsibility cannot be delegated to other entities like HQ AFPC/PRC, MAJCOM, or NGB.

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  • 41. 

    MAJCOMs own base-level GCCS-AF equipments and are responsible for all of the following except

    • A.

      Software upgrades.

    • B.

      Warranty information.

    • C.

      Initial load of software.

    • D.

      Replacement parts.

    Correct Answer
    C. Initial load of software.
    Explanation
    MAJCOMs (Major Commands) own base-level GCCS-AF (Global Command and Control System-Air Force) equipments and are responsible for software upgrades, warranty information, and replacement parts. However, the initial load of software is typically done by the manufacturer or a specialized team before the equipment is handed over to the MAJCOMs.

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  • 42. 

    Personnel planners are responsible for ensuring sufficient personnel support for contingency operation teams (PT) and equipment are scheduled with what team?

    • A.

      RFL01

    • B.

      RFL02.

    • C.

      RFL03.

    • D.

      ADVON.

    Correct Answer
    D. ADVON.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ADVON. ADVON stands for Advanced Echelon, which refers to a small team of personnel that is sent ahead of the main force to prepare for an operation. Personnel planners are responsible for scheduling and ensuring sufficient personnel support for ADVON teams, as well as coordinating the deployment of equipment. Therefore, ADVON is the team that personnel planners work with to schedule personnel support and equipment for contingency operations.

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  • 43. 

    Which unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) accountability team?

    • A.

      RFPF1.

    • B.

      RFPF2.

    • C.

      RFPF3.

    • D.

      RFPF4.

    Correct Answer
    A. RFPF1.
    Explanation
    RFPF1 is considered or called the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) accountability team.

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  • 44. 

    Which unit type code (UTC) is a dependent team consisting of four individuals and cannot deploy without a RFPF1 team or FSS IPR present at the deployed location?

    • A.

      RFPF1.

    • B.

      RFPF2.

    • C.

      RFPF3.

    • D.

      RFPF4.

    Correct Answer
    B. RFPF2.
    Explanation
    A dependent team consisting of four individuals cannot deploy without a RFPF1 team or FSS IPR present at the deployed location. The correct answer is RFPF2.

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  • 45. 

    Training is the primary factor is what deployment phase?

    • A.

      Training

    • B.

      Sustainment

    • C.

      Redeployment

    • D.

      Planning

    Correct Answer
    D. Planning
    Explanation
    In the deployment phase, the primary factor is planning. This is because during this phase, the organization determines the specific goals, objectives, and strategies for the deployment of a new system or process. Planning involves identifying the resources, timelines, and training needs necessary for a successful deployment. While training is an important aspect of the deployment phase, it is not the primary factor. Sustainment refers to the ongoing support and maintenance of the deployed system, while redeployment involves moving the system to a different location or context.

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  • 46. 

    Who serves at the focal point for scheduling and documenting all initial/recurring ancillary deployment training and classified courier training for personnel support for contingency operation team (PT) members?

    • A.

      MSG/CC.

    • B.

      FSS commander.

    • C.

      FSS superintendent.

    • D.

      FSS UDM.

    Correct Answer
    D. FSS UDM.
    Explanation
    The FSS UDM (Unit Deployment Manager) serves at the focal point for scheduling and documenting all initial/recurring ancillary deployment training and classified courier training for personnel support for contingency operation team (PT) members. This role is responsible for coordinating and managing the training requirements and schedules for PT members, ensuring that they are properly trained and prepared for deployment. The FSS UDM plays a critical role in ensuring that all necessary training is completed and documented for PT members.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 17, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Gomezaderwyn19
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