3S071 Vol 3 Ure
URE for 3S071 Volume 3
- 1.
(401) Who's responsibility is it to appoint a 3S0X1, civilian or a 3A0X1 and a UIF monitor?
- A.
Commander
- B.
MPS commander
- C.
Customer support NCOIC
- D.
Force Support superintendent
Correct Answer
A. CommanderExplanation
The responsibility to appoint a 3S0X1, civilian or a 3A0X1, and a UIF monitor lies with the Commander. The Commander is in charge of making decisions and assigning roles within the organization. They have the authority to delegate tasks and responsibilities to different individuals based on their qualifications and expertise. Therefore, it is the Commander's responsibility to appoint individuals for these specific positions.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(401) Once the UIF monitor is appointed, the person that appointed the UIF monitor has how many days to send an appointment letter to the base UIF monitor?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
30
- D.
40
Correct Answer
C. 30Explanation
Once the UIF monitor is appointed, the person that appointed the UIF monitor has 30 days to send an appointment letter to the base UIF monitor.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(401) How many days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his/her final decision?
- A.
1 calendar day
- B.
1 duty day
- C.
3 calendar days
- D.
3 duty days
Correct Answer
D. 3 duty daysExplanation
An active duty member (enlisted or officer) has 3 duty days to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his/her final decision. This means that the member has three working days, excluding weekends and holidays, to respond and provide any necessary information or feedback. This allows for a reasonable amount of time for the member to review the intended actions and gather any relevant information before the final decision is made by the commander.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(401) Which element in the Military Personnel Section is responsible for filing any statements or documents provided by the individual in the UIF?
- A.
Force Management Operations element
- B.
Customer Support element
- C.
Career Development element
- D.
UIF element
Correct Answer
B. Customer Support elementExplanation
The Customer Support element in the Military Personnel Section is responsible for filing any statements or documents provided by the individual in the UIF. This element is tasked with providing support and assistance to military personnel, including managing their records and ensuring compliance with regulations. Filing statements and documents in the UIF is part of their responsibilities in order to maintain accurate and up-to-date records for each individual.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(402) All the following are Customer Support element responsibilities except
- A.
Update Article 15 related actions
- B.
Utilize Management Assessment Product 6 as a management tool
- C.
Update UIF codes 1, 2 and 3
- D.
Administer UIF documentation to individual
Correct Answer
D. Administer UIF documentation to individualExplanation
The correct answer is "administer UIF documentation to individual." This responsibility is not mentioned or implied in the given options. The other options, such as updating Article 15 related actions, utilizing Management Assessment Product 6 as a management tool, and updating UIF codes 1, 2, and 3, are all mentioned as customer support element responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(402) What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adverse actions?
- A.
E
- B.
F
- C.
G
- D.
H
Correct Answer
C. GExplanation
The promotion eligibility status code associated with adverse actions is G.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(402) What assignment availability codes are associated with adverse actions?
- A.
12 and 14
- B.
12 and 16
- C.
16 and 18
- D.
16 and 20
Correct Answer
B. 12 and 16Explanation
Assignment availability codes are used in the military to indicate the availability of a service member for assignment. Adverse actions are disciplinary actions taken against a service member for misconduct or poor performance. Assignment availability code 12 indicates that the service member is temporarily not available for assignment due to pending legal action, while code 16 indicates that the service member is not available for assignment due to disciplinary action. Therefore, both codes 12 and 16 are associated with adverse actions.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(402) After updating a UIF/control roster, what is/are the output product/s that you will receive?
- A.
Transaction Register (TR) reflecting UIF updates only
- B.
TR reflecting projected UIF expiration dates only
- C.
TRs reflecting UIF updates and UIF expiration dates
- D.
Military Assessment Product - UIF - reflecting UIF updates
Correct Answer
C. TRs reflecting UIF updates and UIF expiration datesExplanation
After updating a UIF/control roster, the output products that you will receive are Transaction Registers (TRs) reflecting UIF updates and UIF expiration dates. This means that the TRs will show any changes or updates made to the UIF/control roster as well as the projected expiration dates for the UIF. Additionally, there is also a Military Assessment Product - UIF - reflecting UIF updates, but this is not the only output product received.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(402) If a commander wishes to initiate removal actions from the control roster, which AF IMT form must he/she utilize?
- A.
1058
- B.
1137
- C.
3070
- D.
330
Correct Answer
A. 1058Explanation
The correct answer is 1058. The AF IMT form 1058 is used by a commander to initiate removal actions from the control roster. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a standardized process for documenting and initiating the removal of individuals from the control roster.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(403) Who's responsibility is it to ensure the casualty representative has a private office for counseling the next of kin?
- A.
FSS Commander
- B.
Military Personnel Section commander
- C.
Force Support superintendent
- D.
Mission Support Group commander
Correct Answer
B. Military Personnel Section commanderExplanation
The Military Personnel Section commander is responsible for ensuring that the casualty representative has a private office for counseling the next of kin. This is because the Military Personnel Section commander oversees personnel matters and is responsible for providing support services to military personnel and their families. Providing a private office for counseling ensures privacy and confidentiality for the next of kin during a difficult time.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(403) It is the responsibility of the casualty representative to prepare written instructions to supplement AFI 36-3002, outlining the responsibilities of all listed below except
- A.
Force Support superintendent
- B.
Installation command post
- C.
Unit commanders
- D.
Security forces
Correct Answer
A. Force Support superintendentExplanation
The casualty representative is responsible for preparing written instructions to supplement AFI 36-3002, which outlines the responsibilities of various individuals. However, the Force Support superintendent is not included in this list. Therefore, the casualty representative is not responsible for outlining the responsibilities of the Force Support superintendent.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(403) Once the casualty representative (CAR) notifies the family members of casualties, the CAR provides the mortuary services officers and the PA office the member's
- A.
Age, HOR, race and gender
- B.
Religion, age, race, home address and gender
- C.
Name, age, HOR and marital status
- D.
Name, age, HOR and race
Correct Answer
D. Name, age, HOR and raceExplanation
The correct answer is name, age, HOR, and race. When the casualty representative (CAR) notifies the family members of casualties, they provide the mortuary services officers and the PA office with the member's name, age, home of record (HOR), and race. This information is important for record-keeping purposes and to ensure that the appropriate funeral and burial arrangements are made.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(403) If a family member dies, the casualty representative will ensure the member is advised of the opportunity to apply for what type of assignment?
- A.
Humanitarian
- B.
Exceptional Family Member Program
- C.
Base of preference
- D.
Equal plus
Correct Answer
A. HumanitarianExplanation
When a family member dies, the casualty representative will ensure that the member is advised of the opportunity to apply for a humanitarian assignment. This type of assignment allows the member to be reassigned to a different location for compassionate reasons, such as being closer to family or dealing with personal hardships. It is a way to provide support and flexibility to military personnel during difficult times.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(403) In the case of a mass casualty, who is the first group of people the casualty representative will contact?
- A.
Mortuary affairs
- B.
Security forces
- C.
Honor guard
- D.
Casualty team
Correct Answer
D. Casualty teamExplanation
In the case of a mass casualty, the casualty representative will first contact the casualty team. The casualty team is responsible for coordinating and managing the response to mass casualties, including providing medical care, triaging patients, and organizing transportation to medical facilities. They are trained to handle emergency situations and have the necessary expertise to prioritize and manage the care of multiple casualties. By contacting the casualty team first, the casualty representative can ensure that the appropriate resources and support are quickly mobilized to effectively respond to the mass casualty event.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(404) All the following are publications that apply to releasing information on AF casualties except
- A.
AFI 35-101, Public Affairs Policies and Procedures
- B.
AFSUPDODR 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program
- C.
AFI 33-332, AF Privacy Act Program
- D.
AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services
Correct Answer
D. AFI 36-3002, Casualty ServicesExplanation
The correct answer is AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services. This publication does not apply to releasing information on AF casualties. AFI 35-101, Public Affairs Policies and Procedures provides guidance on public affairs activities, including the release of information. AFSUPDODR 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program outlines the procedures for releasing information requested under the Freedom of Information Act. AFI 33-332, AF Privacy Act Program addresses the protection of personal information and privacy rights.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(404) How many hours must the casualty representative wait until releasing any information on deceased military personnel to the media or the general public?
- A.
12
- B.
24
- C.
36
- D.
48
Correct Answer
B. 24Explanation
The casualty representative must wait for 24 hours before releasing any information on deceased military personnel to the media or the general public. This waiting period allows time for the military to notify the next of kin and provide them with the necessary support and information before the news becomes public. It also ensures that the family has had sufficient time to process the loss and make any necessary arrangements before facing media attention or inquiries from the public.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(404) In the case of a peacetime casualty, if the casualty is an AF member, the notification officer must confirm completed notification with what two agencies before the MPS commander releases the names of the casualty?
- A.
The servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPW
- B.
The servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPFCS
- C.
Public affairs and the medical treatment facility
- D.
Public affairs and local news station
Correct Answer
B. The servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPFCSExplanation
The correct answer is the servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPFCS. The notification officer must confirm completed notification with these two agencies before the MPS commander releases the names of the casualty. This ensures that the proper channels are informed and the information is disseminated accurately and in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(404) For all ill or injured casualties, all the following personal information may be released except
- A.
Name and gender
- B.
Rank, date of rank, commission source and promotion number
- C.
Date entered active duty service
- D.
Social security number
Correct Answer
D. Social security numberExplanation
Personal information such as name, gender, rank, date of rank, commission source, promotion number, and date entered active duty service may be released for ill or injured casualties. However, the social security number should not be released as it is considered sensitive and confidential information that could be misused for identity theft or fraud.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(404) For deceased casualties, all the following personal information may be released except
- A.
Pay date, military base pay and allowances
- B.
Any information on the members family
- C.
Age and date of birth
- D.
Home of record
Correct Answer
B. Any information on the members familyExplanation
Deceased casualties are individuals who have passed away, and their personal information may be released for various purposes. However, the personal information of their family members is usually not disclosed. This is to protect the privacy and security of the deceased individual's family, as they may be vulnerable during a time of grief and loss. Therefore, any information on the members' family is the exception, and it should not be released.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(404) After the casualty representative (CAR) learns of a casualty, they complete the necessary reports and they contact HQ AFPC casualty section. Next, the CAR needs to fax what documents on the military member/s?
- A.
DD form 93 and SGLV 8286 only
- B.
SGLV 8286 and DD form 4 only
- C.
DD form 93, SGLV 8286 and DD form 214
- D.
DD form 93, SGLV 8286, DD form 4 and any other VA forms related to the SGLI
Correct Answer
D. DD form 93, SGLV 8286, DD form 4 and any other VA forms related to the SGLIExplanation
After the casualty representative learns of a casualty, they complete the necessary reports and contact HQ AFPC casualty section. The CAR needs to fax the DD form 93, SGLV 8286, DD form 4, and any other VA forms related to the SGLI for the military member/s.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(405) If a permanent party member has a PCS, what system do they use to outprocess?
- A.
VOP
- B.
Personnel Data System
- C.
Military Personnel Data System
- D.
Defense integrated military human resource system
Correct Answer
D. Defense integrated military human resource systemExplanation
When a permanent party member has a Permanent Change of Station (PCS), they use the Defense Integrated Military Human Resource System (DIMHRS) to outprocess. DIMHRS is a system that manages and integrates military personnel data, including information related to assignments, promotions, and pay. It is designed to streamline and automate processes related to human resources in the military, making it the appropriate system for outprocessing during a PCS.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(405) When the Career Development receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel from HQ AFPC, how many days do they have to verify the members eligibility?
- A.
7
- B.
14
- C.
30
- D.
60
Correct Answer
A. 7Explanation
When Career Development receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel from HQ AFPC, they have 7 days to verify the member's eligibility.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(405) Once the Career Development element verifies the members eligibility for an assignment, who do the send the assignment rip to?
- A.
Superintendent of the Career Development element
- B.
Superintendent of the Military Personnel section
- C.
Commander of the FSS
- D.
Member's unit commander
Correct Answer
A. Superintendent of the Career Development elementExplanation
After verifying the member's eligibility for an assignment, the Career Development element sends the assignment rip to the superintendent of the Career Development element.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(405) Once the unit commander receives the assignment rip on a member, how many days does he/she have before the rip is required to be back at the Career Development element in the Military Personnel Section?
- A.
14
- B.
28
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
A. 14Explanation
After receiving the assignment rip on a member, the unit commander has 14 days before the rip is required to be back at the Career Development element in the Military Personnel Section.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(405) The following documents are located in the relocation folder except
- A.
Assignment selection letter, message or rip
- B.
Decoration citation
- C.
Reassignment orders and all amendments
- D.
Relocation processing memorandum
Correct Answer
B. Decoration citationExplanation
The correct answer is "decoration citation" because the question asks for the document that is not located in the relocation folder. The other options, including the assignment selection letter, message or rip, reassignment orders and all amendments, and relocation processing memorandum, are all mentioned as being located in the relocation folder. Therefore, the decoration citation is the only document that is not included in the folder.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(405) Where is the AF IMT 907 kept?
- A.
It is not kept. it is sent to the automated records management system
- B.
It is kept in the member's personal information file
- C.
In the relocation folder
- D.
It is given to Customer Support
Correct Answer
C. In the relocation folderExplanation
The AF IMT 907 is kept in the relocation folder.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(405) Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment?
- A.
899
- B.
63
- C.
907
- D.
965
Correct Answer
B. 63 -
- 28.
(405) If a member's assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the current security clearance on file, what does the Career Development element forward to the member's commander?
- A.
AF IMT 899
- B.
Security requirement memorandum
- C.
VOP checklist
- D.
AF IMT 1001
Correct Answer
B. Security requirement memorandumExplanation
The Career Development element forwards a security requirement memorandum to the member's commander when their assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the current security clearance on file. This memorandum outlines the specific security requirements needed for the assignment and informs the commander of the necessary actions to take in order to ensure the member meets those requirements.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(405) Enlisted and officers are required to attend weapons training when they are selected for an assignment
- A.
Overseas
- B.
To Maxwell AFB, AL
- C.
To Elmendorf AFB, AK
- D.
To Langley AFB, VA
Correct Answer
A. OverseasExplanation
Enlisted and officers are required to attend weapons training when they are selected for an assignment overseas. This suggests that the requirement for weapons training only applies when they are being deployed to a location outside of their home country. It implies that the training is necessary to ensure the personnel are prepared and equipped to handle potential security threats and combat situations in foreign territories.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(405) If a member requires a passport and/or VISA, the Career Development element will advise the members to start processing their passports and/or VISAs no later than how many days after their initial briefing?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
C. 15Explanation
The Career Development element advises members to start processing their passports and/or VISAs no later than 15 days after their initial briefing. This suggests that it takes some time to complete the passport and/or VISA application process, and starting it within 15 days ensures that there is enough time for the necessary paperwork and approvals to be obtained before any upcoming travel.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(405) Under normal circumstances, the Career Development element will publish PCS orders not later than how many days prior to departure?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
Correct Answer
B. 60Explanation
The Career Development element will publish PCS orders not later than 60 days prior to departure. This means that individuals will receive their Permanent Change of Station (PCS) orders at least 60 days before they are scheduled to leave for their new assignment. This allows them adequate time to prepare for the move, make any necessary arrangements, and ensure a smooth transition to their new location.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(405) If a member is PCSing to a stateside assignment, he/she can outprocess no earlier than
- A.
1 duty day prior to departure date
- B.
2 duty days prior to departure date
- C.
3 duty days prior to departure date
- D.
4 duty days prior to departure date
Correct Answer
A. 1 duty day prior to departure dateExplanation
When a member is Permanent Change of Station (PCS) to a stateside assignment, they can outprocess no earlier than 1 duty day prior to their departure date. This means that they can start the process of completing all necessary paperwork, turning in equipment, and tying up loose ends at their current duty station one day before they are scheduled to leave for their new assignment.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(405) If a member is going contingence TDY, which element will handle their out processing relocation procedures?
- A.
Personnel Support
- B.
Personnel Readiness
- C.
Career Development
- D.
Customer Support
Correct Answer
B. Personnel ReadinessExplanation
When a member is going on contingency TDY (Temporary Duty), it means they are being deployed for a specific mission or task. In such cases, the Personnel Readiness element is responsible for handling their out processing relocation procedures. This includes ensuring that the member is properly prepared and ready for their deployment, handling administrative tasks related to their relocation, and ensuring that all necessary documentation and paperwork is completed. Personnel Support, Career Development, and Customer Support may be involved in other aspects of the member's deployment, but Personnel Readiness specifically handles the out processing and relocation procedures.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(406) If you are looking for the source of record for all AF PME and formal training, what system would you use?
- A.
Personnel data training system
- B.
Oracle training administration
- C.
Military personnel data system
- D.
Automated records management system
Correct Answer
B. Oracle training administrationExplanation
Oracle Training Administration is the correct answer because it is a system that is commonly used to track and manage training records for military personnel. It serves as a source of record for all Air Force Professional Military Education (PME) and formal training. This system allows for efficient management of training data, including tracking completion, maintaining records, and generating reports. By using Oracle Training Administration, individuals can easily access and verify their training history and qualifications.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(406) If the formal training office is located outside of the Career Development element, which agency is responsible for the overall management of the training line numbers?
- A.
Force Management operations element
- B.
MPS
- C.
Career Development element
- D.
Customer Support Element
Correct Answer
C. Career Development elementExplanation
If the formal training office is located outside of the Career Development element, it means that the Career Development element is not directly responsible for managing the training line numbers. Therefore, the agency responsible for the overall management of the training line numbers would be the Force Management operations element.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(406) To ensure training quotas are managed effectively the formal training section is responsible to ensure all the following except
- A.
Individuals are qualified regardless of active duty service commitment
- B.
Individuals have the commanders approval
- C.
Individuals filling quotas are qualified
- D.
Individuals follow reporting instructions
Correct Answer
A. Individuals are qualified regardless of active duty service commitmentExplanation
The formal training section is responsible for managing training quotas effectively. This includes ensuring that individuals have the commander's approval, that individuals filling quotas are qualified, and that individuals follow reporting instructions. However, the formal training section is not responsible for ensuring that individuals are qualified regardless of their active duty service commitment. This means that the formal training section does not have the authority or responsibility to waive or overlook service commitments when determining an individual's qualification for training.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(407) What is the purpose of the virtual enlisted promotion release application?
- A.
Eliminates the delay of notification
- B.
Provides notification of promotees only
- C.
Provides an advanced notification to promotees
- D.
Provides an advanced notification to commanders
Correct Answer
A. Eliminates the delay of notificationExplanation
The purpose of the virtual enlisted promotion release application is to eliminate the delay of notification. This means that the application is designed to provide immediate and timely notifications to individuals who have been promoted, ensuring that there is no delay in informing them of their promotion. By using this application, the military can streamline the promotion process and ensure that promotees receive their notifications promptly.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(407) Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link on the AF Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by
- A.
Name, MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code and state/country
- B.
MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code only
- C.
Unit, AFSC, PAS code and PFE/SKT test scores
- D.
AFSC and PAS code only
Correct Answer
A. Name, MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code and state/countryExplanation
Commanders can access the AFPC secure/link on the AF Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by various criteria such as name, MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country. This means that they can search for promotion results based on specific individuals' names, their assigned MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and even their location by state or country.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(407) The Career Development element at the MPS will issue written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing all of the following except
- A.
The board convening date
- B.
Name and rank of the most junior officer
- C.
Name and rank of the most senior officer
- D.
Name and rank of the board president
Correct Answer
D. Name and rank of the board presidentExplanation
The Career Development element at the MPS will issue written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing the board convening date, the name and rank of the most junior officer, and the name and rank of the most senior officer. However, it will not include the name and rank of the board president.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(407) Which element/functions identifies all assigned officers and verifies eligibility status for promotion?
- A.
Customer Support element
- B.
Career Development element
- C.
Force Management Operations element
- D.
Personnel Readiness Function
Correct Answer
B. Career Development elementExplanation
The Career Development element is responsible for identifying all assigned officers and verifying their eligibility status for promotion. This element plays a crucial role in the career progression of officers by ensuring that they meet the necessary criteria for promotion. By closely monitoring and evaluating the performance and qualifications of officers, the Career Development element helps to determine their readiness for advancement within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(408) Which mission personnel section manages the unit personnel management documents?
- A.
Personnel Readiness
- B.
Customer Support element
- C.
Force Management Operations element
- D.
Career Development element
Correct Answer
C. Force Management Operations elementExplanation
The Force Management Operations element is responsible for managing the unit personnel management documents. They handle tasks such as maintaining personnel records, processing personnel actions, and ensuring compliance with personnel policies and regulations. This section plays a crucial role in managing the personnel needs of the mission, ensuring that the right personnel are in the right positions at all times.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(408) What AFI, AFMAN or computer systems manual will the Force Development operations element utilize to update an active duty arrival?
- A.
AFI 36-3002
- B.
AFI 36-3003
- C.
AFMAN 36-2102
- D.
AFCSM 36-699
Correct Answer
D. AFCSM 36-699Explanation
The Force Development operations element will utilize AFCSM 36-699 to update an active duty arrival.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(408) The unit manning document provides all the following except authorized positions a unit is allowed to
- A.
Recruit
- B.
Train
- C.
Promote to in the execution of its wartime and peacetime mission
- D.
Share with other units
Correct Answer
D. Share with other unitsExplanation
The unit manning document is a comprehensive document that outlines the authorized positions that a unit is allowed to recruit, train, and promote to in order to fulfill its wartime and peacetime mission. However, it does not provide information on sharing personnel with other units. This means that the document does not specify whether or not the unit can share its personnel with other units.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(408) When units identify mistakes or needed changes to the positions on their unit manning document, who will they work with to get the changes completed?
- A.
Base-level manpower
- B.
MAJCOM manpower
- C.
Functional area manager
- D.
MAJCOM readiness
Correct Answer
C. Functional area managerExplanation
Units will work with the functional area manager to get the changes completed when they identify mistakes or needed changes to the positions on their unit manning document. The functional area manager is responsible for overseeing the manpower requirements and ensuring that the positions are correctly filled. They have the authority to make the necessary adjustments and coordinate with other stakeholders to ensure the changes are implemented effectively. This collaboration ensures that the unit manning document accurately reflects the manpower needs of the unit.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(409) PERSTEMPO data is reported to all of the following except
- A.
Air Staff
- B.
Joint Staff
- C.
Other DOD agencies
- D.
The installation commander
Correct Answer
D. The installation commanderExplanation
PERSTEMPO data is reported to the Air Staff, Joint Staff, and other DOD agencies to provide information on personnel tempo and deployment readiness. The installation commander, on the other hand, is responsible for managing and overseeing the operations and activities within their specific installation. While they may have access to the PERSTEMPO data for their own installation, they are not involved in reporting it to external entities. Therefore, the correct answer is the installation commander.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(409) If you are looking for a system to initiate duty status change applications for confinement, AWOL and deserter status, what system would you use?
- A.
Defense integrated military human resource system
- B.
Military personnel data system
- C.
Case management system
- D.
Personnel data system
Correct Answer
C. Case management systemExplanation
The correct answer is the case management system. This system is designed to handle applications for duty status changes related to confinement, AWOL, and deserter status. It provides a streamlined process for managing and tracking these applications, ensuring that they are properly reviewed and processed. The defense integrated military human resource system and military personnel data system may not have specific features for handling duty status change applications, while the personnel data system may not have the necessary functionality for managing the entire process. Therefore, the case management system is the most appropriate choice for this specific task.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(409) Which element/function updates the duty status for all contingency TDYs?
- A.
Customer Support element
- B.
Career Development element
- C.
Force Management Operations element
- D.
Personnel Readiness function
Correct Answer
D. Personnel Readiness functionExplanation
The Personnel Readiness function is responsible for updating the duty status for all contingency TDYs. This function ensures that personnel are prepared and ready for deployment or temporary duty assignments. They track and update the status of individuals who are on contingency TDYs, ensuring that their duty status is accurately reflected in the system. This function plays a crucial role in maintaining personnel readiness and ensuring that the necessary personnel are available for deployment when needed.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(409) Once a duty status application has been entered, which agency is the first to review the duty status change application?
- A.
HQ AFPC
- B.
TFSC
- C.
FSS
- D.
MPS
Correct Answer
B. TFSCExplanation
The TFSC (Total Force Service Center) is the first agency to review the duty status change application. They are responsible for managing and processing various personnel actions and requests, including duty status changes. They review the application to ensure that all necessary information is provided and that the change is in compliance with regulations and policies. Once the application is reviewed and approved by TFSC, it can then be forwarded to other relevant agencies for further processing, if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(409) Local emergencies or overages may be the basis for an Airman's prolonged assignment outside the normal career progression pattern. To negate any career regression, assignments should be rotated between
- A.
All Airmen in the same CAFSC
- B.
All Airmen in the same DAFSC
- C.
All Airmen regardless of CAFSC and DAFSC
- D.
SrA and CMSgt
Correct Answer
A. All Airmen in the same CAFSCExplanation
Assignments should be rotated between all Airmen in the same CAFSC to negate any career regression caused by local emergencies or overages. This ensures that all Airmen in the same Career Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC) have equal opportunities for career progression and prevents any individual from being disadvantaged due to prolonged assignments outside the normal career progression pattern.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(409) Airmen are not used outside their CAFSC if they have an assignment limitation code
- A.
E
- B.
F
- C.
O
- D.
H
Correct Answer
C. OExplanation
Airmen with an assignment limitation code (ALC) are not used outside their Career Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC). This means that they are restricted from being assigned to duties or tasks that are outside their designated specialty. This limitation could be due to various reasons such as medical conditions, security clearances, or other factors that prevent them from performing certain job functions. Therefore, option O is the correct answer as it states that Airmen with an ALC are not utilized outside their CAFSC.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 10, 2010Quiz Created by
Fred70s
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