1.
Who is in charge of the record function at each military personnel element (MPE) where the AF Form 10, Unit Personnel Group (UPRG) is maintained?
Correct Answer
D. UPRG custodian
Explanation
The UPRG custodian is responsible for the record function at each military personnel element (MPE) where the AF Form 10, Unit Personnel Group (UPRG) is maintained. This individual is in charge of ensuring that all records are properly organized, updated, and maintained in accordance with military regulations and guidelines. They are responsible for managing the UPRG and ensuring that all personnel records are accurate and up to date.
2.
Who must maintain and ensure records are corrected as needed for the UPRG?
Correct Answer
B. UPRG custodian
Explanation
The UPRG custodian is responsible for maintaining and ensuring that records are corrected as needed. They are specifically designated to handle and oversee the records of the UPRG, ensuring their accuracy and making any necessary corrections. The other options mentioned, such as the MPE commander, MPF security officer, and Chief of customer service, do not have the specific role of maintaining and correcting UPRG records.
3.
An individual data review listing (IDRL) is automatically produced:
Correct Answer
A. On the anniversary date of a member's date arrived station (DAS)
Explanation
An individual data review listing (IDRL) is automatically produced on the anniversary date of a member's date arrived station (DAS). This means that every year, on the same date that the member arrived at their station, the IDRL is generated. It is a routine process that helps ensure that the member's data and records are reviewed and updated regularly. This allows for accurate and up-to-date information to be maintained for the member's records.
4.
When conducting a record review, customer support screens the UPRG and removes:
Correct Answer
B. Obsolete documents and gives them to the member
Explanation
During a record review, customer support identifies and removes obsolete documents. These documents are considered outdated or no longer relevant to the customer's current situation. Instead of destroying them, customer support gives these obsolete documents to the member. This ensures that the member is aware of the outdated information and can make informed decisions based on the most up-to-date documents.
5.
Customer support screens the UPRG, removes obsoliete documetns for personnel at a GSU, places the documents in and envelope, and mails them to the member:
Correct Answer
D. In conjunction with release from extended active duty (EAD)
Explanation
The correct answer is "In conjunction with release from extended active duty (EAD)". This answer is supported by the information given in the question, which states that customer support screens the UPRG (Unit Personnel Record Group), removes obsolete documents for personnel at a GSU (Geographically Separated Unit), places the documents in an envelope, and mails them to the member. This process is typically done in conjunction with the member's release from extended active duty (EAD), as they are transitioning out of the military.
6.
When processing a discharge and immediate reenlistment, the customer support section screens the UPRG and removes which documents and forwards them to HQ AFPC with the reenlistment documents?
Correct Answer
A. Promotion orders (except for current grade), waiver documents from previous enlistment, and enlistment orders
Explanation
When processing a discharge and immediate reenlistment, the customer support section screens the UPRG and removes the promotion orders (except for current grade), waiver documents from previous enlistment, and enlistment orders. These documents are then forwarded to HQ AFPC along with the reenlistment documents.
7.
The MPE transferring the UPRG must account for records using:
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 330, Records Transmittal/Request
Explanation
The MPE transferring the UPRG must account for records using AF Form 330, Records Transmittal/Request. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of transferring and requesting records. It ensures proper documentation and tracking of the records being transferred, allowing for accountability and efficient management of personnel records. The other options listed, such as a records review listing and a computer listing on individual personnel, may be useful in certain contexts but do not provide the same level of formal documentation and accountability as AF Form 330.
8.
What form does an individual use to request correction to military records?
Correct Answer
A. DD from 149
Explanation
The correct answer is DD Form 149. This form is used by individuals to request correction to military records. It is specifically designed for this purpose and is recognized by the military authorities. It allows individuals to provide detailed information about the correction they are seeking and provides a formal process for review and consideration of the request.
9.
Whithin what time frame must the individual submit a request for corrections to military records to the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR)?
Correct Answer
A. Within 3 years after the error or injustice was discovered
Explanation
The individual must submit a request for corrections to military records to the AFBCMR within 3 years after the error or injustice was discovered.
10.
When requesting correction to military records, who is repsonsible for gathering sufficient evidence of probably material error or injustice?
Correct Answer
A. Applicant
Explanation
When requesting correction to military records, the responsibility of gathering sufficient evidence of probable material error or injustice lies with the applicant. This means that the person who is seeking the correction is responsible for providing the necessary evidence to support their claim of an error or injustice in their military records.
11.
The AFBCMR acts for the Secretary of the Air Force and its decsion is final except when it:
Correct Answer
C. Involves and appoinment or promotion requiring confirmation by the Senate
Explanation
The AFBCMR's decision is not final when it involves an appointment or promotion that requires confirmation by the Senate. This means that if the AFBCMR makes a decision regarding an appointment or promotion that needs to be confirmed by the Senate, the decision is not considered final until it goes through the confirmation process.
12.
Members are eligible to apply for a join spouse assignment if they are on extended active duty and
Correct Answer
A. Meet all permanent change of station (PCS) eligibility requirements
Explanation
In order to be eligible for a join spouse assignment, members must meet all permanent change of station (PCS) eligibility requirements. This means that they must fulfill all the necessary criteria for a PCS move, such as having the required time in service, meeting medical and dental readiness standards, and completing any required training. Meeting these requirements is essential for members to be considered for a join spouse assignment.
13.
An AF member selected fo an assignment and married to a member of another US military service must complete a letter application and:
Correct Answer
D. The individual must include a statement from the member's spouse indicating he or she wants the join spouse assignment
Explanation
The correct answer is "The individual must include a statement from the member's spouse indicating he or she wants the join spouse assignment." This is because when an Air Force member is selected for an assignment and is married to a member of another US military service, they must provide a statement from their spouse indicating their desire to be assigned together as join spouses. This ensures that both individuals are considered for joint assignments and their preferences are taken into account.
14.
When an AF member marries en route to a permanent change of station (PCS) and the member and new spouse are assigned to different locations, the individuals must:
Correct Answer
D. Immediately report to the nearest AF installation and apply for a join spouse assignment
Explanation
When an Air Force member marries en route to a permanent change of station (PCS) and the member and new spouse are assigned to different locations, they must immediately report to the nearest Air Force installation and apply for a join spouse assignment. This is because the join spouse program is designed to minimize the time and distance that military couples are separated. By reporting to the nearest installation and applying for a join spouse assignment, the member and their spouse can work towards being assigned to the same location as soon as possible.
15.
After updating the join spouse assignment intent code, how does customer support dispose of the AF Form 1048?
Correct Answer
D. File the AF Form 1048 in the member's UPRG
Explanation
After updating the join spouse assignment intent code, customer support will file the AF Form 1048 in the member's UPRG.
16.
If a couple is overseas and they do do not have the same overseas date eligible to return from overseas (DEROS) and they desire to be reassigned at the same time, then the one with the:
Correct Answer
B. Earliest DEROS must extend
Explanation
If a couple is overseas and they do not have the same overseas date eligible to return from overseas (DEROS) and they desire to be reassigned at the same time, then the one with the earliest DEROS must extend. This means that the person with the earlier DEROS date will need to extend their stay overseas in order to align their DEROS with their partner's. By extending their DEROS, they will be able to coordinate their reassignment and return home together.
17.
Which statement is true if a member proceeds on a voluntary assignment from a join spouse assignment?
Correct Answer
D. The member cannot later join the spouse unless they are eligible under some other assignment program
Explanation
If a member proceeds on a voluntary assignment from a join spouse assignment, they will not be able to later join their spouse unless they are eligible under some other assignment program. This means that the member will not automatically be reunited with their spouse after completing the voluntary assignment and will have to meet specific eligibility criteria for another assignment program in order to be able to join their spouse again.
18.
What is the tour length restriction if a member without dependents joins a spouse who is serving an un-accompanied tour overseas?
Correct Answer
B. The member will serve the full unaccompanied tour length
Explanation
When a member without dependents joins a spouse who is serving an unaccompanied tour overseas, the member will serve the full unaccompanied tour length. This means that the member will be required to complete the entire duration of the unaccompanied tour, regardless of their own tour length or any other factors.
19.
Who should an AF member contact to change a join spouse assignment intent after selection for a join spouse assignment?
Correct Answer
C. MPE
Explanation
An AF member should contact the MPE (Military Personnel Element) to change a join spouse assignment intent after selection for a join spouse assignment. The MPE is responsible for managing personnel assignments and can assist in making the necessary changes to the assignment intent. The First Sergeant and Squadron commander may also be able to provide guidance and support, but the MPE is the appropriate point of contact for this specific request. AFPC (Air Force Personnel Center) is responsible for overall personnel management and may not be directly involved in the assignment intent change process.
20.
When couples PCS to the same or adjacent locations and reside jointly, what does the MPE include in the Remarks section of the PCS orders regradless of the assignment action reason?
Correct Answer
D. Assignment is to join spouse
Explanation
The MPE includes the remark "Assignment is to join spouse" in the Remarks section of the PCS orders regardless of the assignment action reason. This indicates that the assignment is specifically for the purpose of joining the spouse at their location.
21.
Customer support is responsible for verifying a member's eligibility for an identificaiton (ID) card and for:
Correct Answer
B. Determining which benefits and privileges the ID card entitles an eligible member
Explanation
The customer support team is responsible for determining which benefits and privileges an eligible member is entitled to based on their ID card. This means that they review the member's eligibility and then determine what specific benefits and privileges they can access using their ID card. This could include things like access to certain facilities, discounts, or special services.
22.
What can you use to verify ID card eligibility if you cannot access the DEERS?
Correct Answer
D. A previous DD Form 1172, Application for Uniformed Services Identification Card - DEERS Enrollment
Explanation
If you cannot access the DEERS, you can use a previous DD Form 1172, Application for Uniformed Services Identification Card - DEERS Enrollment, to verify ID card eligibility. This form is used to enroll individuals into the DEERS system, so having a previous form indicates that the person was previously eligible and enrolled.
23.
How do you verify eligibility for an ID for members who are retired with pay?
Correct Answer
B. Retirement order of DD Form 214
Explanation
The retirement order of DD Form 214 is used to verify eligibility for an ID for retired members with pay. This form is issued by the Department of Defense upon retirement and contains important information such as the retiree's service history, awards, and reason for separation. It serves as an official record of the retiree's military service and is commonly used to prove eligibility for various benefits and privileges, including identification cards.
24.
After the verifying official gives the original DD Form 1172 to the applicant and distributes the remaining as necessary, they advise the applicant that the DD Form 1172 is valid for how many days?
Correct Answer
C. 90
Explanation
The verifying official gives the original DD Form 1172 to the applicant and distributes the remaining copies as necessary. They advise the applicant that the DD Form 1172 is valid for 90 days. This means that the applicant must submit the form within 90 days of receiving it, otherwise it may no longer be considered valid.
25.
When a family member's expired ID card cannot be retrieved voluntarily by letter from the sponsor, unit commander, or MPE, the MPE:
Correct Answer
D. Reports the circumstances to the chief of security forces or military police of the military installation nearest the unauthorized family member's address
Explanation
The MPE (Military Personnel Element) reports the circumstances to the chief of security forces or military police of the military installation nearest the unauthorized family member's address. This is done when the expired ID card cannot be retrieved voluntarily by letter from the sponsor, unit commander, or MPE. By reporting the circumstances to the chief of security forces or military police, they can take appropriate action to address the situation and ensure the unauthorized family member's ID card is not being misused or causing any security concerns.
26.
When, if ever, does the MPE destroy a DD Form 1172 and documentation?
Correct Answer
B. One year after the card expires
Explanation
The MPE (Military Personnel Element) does not destroy a DD Form 1172 and documentation until one year after the card expires. This means that the form and documentation are kept for a period of one year after the card expiration date before being destroyed.
27.
According to special procedure for parole and excess leave, the MPE retrieves ID cards from the member and family members when the:
Correct Answer
A. Member's discharge is executed
Explanation
The correct answer is "Member's discharge is executed". According to the special procedure for parole and excess leave, the MPE retrieves ID cards from the member and family members when the member's discharge is executed. This implies that when a member is officially discharged from their duties, their ID cards are collected by the MPE.
28.
If an administrative or judicial action that authorized the MPE to destroy an ID card and reissue a temporary card is not resolved within 90 calendar days from the start of the action, the:
Correct Answer
A. MPE may reissue cards for an additional 90 days if necessary
Explanation
If an administrative or judicial action that authorized the MPE to destroy an ID card and reissue a temporary card is not resolved within 90 calendar days from the start of the action, the MPE may reissue cards for an additional 90 days if necessary. This means that if the resolution of the action takes longer than 90 days, the MPE has the authority to issue temporary ID cards for an additional 90 days to ensure that individuals have valid identification during the ongoing process.
29.
The RAPIDS provides a network of microcomputers linking the MPE to the DEERS database to provide:
Correct Answer
C. On-line additions, retrieval, and update of family member information to the DEERS database
Explanation
The RAPIDS system allows for the on-line addition, retrieval, and update of family member information to the DEERS database. This means that personnel can easily input new information, access existing records, and make any necessary updates to ensure that the DEERS database is accurate and up-to-date. This is important for maintaining current dependent information in the personnel data system, providing local MPEs with on-line personnel records for members assigned to another site, and supplying dependency determination data to the DFAS Records System.
30.
What is required to sign on to the RAPIDS?
Correct Answer
C. DEERS logon ID and password
Explanation
To sign on to the RAPIDS, one needs to have their DEERS logon ID and password. This is because the RAPIDS system is integrated with the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS), which is responsible for verifying and maintaining the eligibility of individuals to access military benefits. Therefore, having the DEERS logon ID and password ensures that the user is authorized to access the RAPIDS system and perform the necessary functions.
31.
What is the restriction on changing your RAPIDS password as often as you desire?
Correct Answer
D. You can change a password only once within a 24 hour period
Explanation
The correct answer states that you can change a password only once within a 24-hour period. This means that you are restricted from changing your RAPIDS password more than once in a day.
32.
What option from the file menu in RAPIDS expands to include beneficiary and family options?
Correct Answer
A. Open a family
Explanation
The correct answer is "Open a family." This option from the file menu in RAPIDS expands to include beneficiary and family options. By selecting this option, users can access and view information related to beneficiaries and their families.
33.
What is the first action you take if you forget your DEERS password?
Correct Answer
B. Call the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System/Real-time Automated Personnel Identication System Assistance Center (DRAC) for a temporary password
Explanation
If you forget your DEERS password, the first action you should take is to call the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System/Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System Assistance Center (DRAC) for a temporary password.
34.
Full-time SGLI is authorized for all members on active duty and for members on active duty for training under a call or order that specifies:
Correct Answer
A. A period of 31 days or more
Explanation
Full-time SGLI is authorized for all members on active duty and for members on active duty for training under a call or order that specifies a period of 31 days or more. This means that individuals who are on active duty for a duration of 31 days or longer are eligible for full-time SGLI coverage. It is important to note that this coverage may not be available for periods of less than 31 days or for individuals who are on active duty for training for a specific number of days or drill periods.
35.
By law, all members on active duty, active duty for training or inactive duty for training and Ready Reserves are automatically insured for the maximum coverage of $250,000 until:
Correct Answer
C. They make a valid election to reduce or decline coverage
Explanation
Members on active duty, active duty for training, inactive duty for training, and Ready Reserves are automatically insured for the maximum coverage of $250,000 until they make a valid election to reduce or decline coverage. This means that they have the option to choose a lower coverage amount or to opt out of the insurance altogether. Once they make this valid election, their coverage will be adjusted accordingly.
36.
If a member desires SGLI coverage in the amount of $80,000, how do you determine the premium cost?
Correct Answer
B. Each $10K increment costs 80 cents, therefore 8 x .80 = $6.40
Explanation
The premium cost for SGLI coverage is determined by multiplying the number of $10K increments by the cost per increment. In this case, each $10K increment costs 80 cents, so the premium cost for 8 increments would be 8 x .80 = $6.40.
37.
When a member is confined by civil authorities for more than 31 days under a sentence adjudged by a civil court, SGLI coverage is terminated:
Correct Answer
B. On the 31st day
Explanation
When a member is confined by civil authorities for more than 31 days under a sentence adjudged by a civil court, their SGLI coverage is terminated. This means that after being confined for 31 days, the member will no longer have coverage under the SGLI policy.
38.
After the SGLV 8285, Request for Insurance, is completed and signed by the member and commander or authorized representative with all medical questions answered "no", the form is:
Correct Answer
B. Filed in the individual's UPRG
Explanation
After the SGLV 8285, Request for Insurance, is completed and signed by the member and commander or authorized representative with all medical questions answered "no", the form is filed in the individual's UPRG. This means that the form is kept in the individual's Unit Personnel Record Group, which is a file maintained by the military to document the service member's personnel and insurance information. This ensures that the form is easily accessible and can be referred to when needed.
39.
A SGLV 8286, SGLI Election and Certificate, form must be re-accomplished when the member:
Correct Answer
B. Requests to restore insurance
Explanation
The correct answer is "Requests to restore insurance." When a member requests to restore their insurance, it means that they previously had insurance coverage but it was terminated or canceled for some reason. In order to reinstate the coverage, they need to fill out a new SGLV 8286 form. This form is used to elect or make changes to their Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage, including restoring it after it has been terminated.
40.
What advice do you give a member who is survived by dependents or parents and they desgnate some other person or entity as beneficiary?
Correct Answer
D. Submit a signed memorandum indicating that they understand the designation is unusual and that they want the person(s) listed to receive proceeds
Explanation
If a member has dependents or parents but chooses to designate someone else as the beneficiary, they should submit a signed memorandum. This memorandum serves as evidence that they are aware that their designation is unusual and that they want the listed person(s) to receive the proceeds. This step is important to ensure that the member's intentions are clear and legally documented. Seeking legal counsel before making such a designation is also advised to fully understand the implications and potential consequences.
41.
By law, if a member has no surviving spouse or chold, then the SGLI is payable to
Correct Answer
D. The member's parents in equal shares or all to the surviving parent
Explanation
If a member has no surviving spouse or child, the SGLI (Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance) is payable to the member's parents in equal shares or all to the surviving parent. This means that if the member does not have a spouse or child, their parents will receive the insurance payout either equally if both parents are alive, or entirely to the surviving parent if one parent has passed away.
42.
When completing the SGLV 8286, members may specify that proceeds be paid to beneficiaries in:
Correct Answer
C. Lump sum or 36 monthly installments
Explanation
The SGLV 8286 form allows members to choose how the proceeds of their life insurance policy will be paid to beneficiaries. The options are a lump sum payment or 36 monthly installments. This means that beneficiaries can receive the entire amount in one go or receive it in smaller, regular payments over a period of 36 months. This flexibility allows members to customize the payout according to their beneficiaries' needs and financial situation.
43.
HOw is the SGLI form processed?
Correct Answer
D. File the original in the member's personnel record, give a copy to the member and a copy is used by the active or reserve components of the uniformed services
Explanation
The correct answer is to file the original SGLI form in the member's personnel record, give a copy to the member, and use another copy for the active or reserve components of the uniformed services. This process ensures that the original form is securely stored for record-keeping purposes, the member has a copy for their own records, and another copy is available for use by the relevant military components.
44.
Which individuals are not eligible for VGLI coverage?
Correct Answer
A. TSgt on extended active duty in the AF
Explanation
The correct answer is TSgt on extended active duty in the AF. This individual is not eligible for VGLI coverage because VGLI is a life insurance program for veterans, and individuals on active duty are not considered veterans. The other individuals mentioned in the question (Major serving as a member of the Inactive National Guard, Lt Col serving as a member of the Individual Ready Reserve, and SGLI insured SSgt released from active duty from training under a call to duty that does not specify a period of less than 31 days) may be eligible for VGLI coverage as they are not on active duty.
45.
The amount of SGLI coverage a member has upon separation may be replaced by VGLI in an amount equal to:
Correct Answer
A. Or less than the amount of SGLI in effect upon separation
Explanation
Upon separation, a member's SGLI coverage may be replaced by VGLI coverage in an amount equal to or less than the amount of SGLI in effect upon separation. This means that the VGLI coverage can be the same as the SGLI coverage or it can be lower, but it cannot be higher.
46.
Wehn completing an application for VGLI, a service member does all of the following except:
Correct Answer
C. Initialing all blocks and mailing the form ot the Veterans Affairs Insurance Office
Explanation
The correct answer is "Initialing all blocks and mailing the form ot the Veterans Affairs Insurance Office." When completing an application for VGLI, a service member needs to check the amount of insurance desired, designate principal and contingent beneficiaries, sign the form, date it, and mail it with a check or money order to the Office of SGLI. Initialing all blocks and mailing the form to the Veterans Affairs Insurance Office is not required.
47.
When a service member sith SGLI does not designate a beneficiary and dies within 60 days after the VGLI becomes effective, the benefits are paid:
Correct Answer
B. Accordinig to the prior SGLI designation
Explanation
If a service member with SGLI (Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance) does not designate a beneficiary and dies within 60 days after the VGLI (Veterans' Group Life Insurance) becomes effective, the benefits are paid according to the prior SGLI designation. This means that if the service member had previously designated a beneficiary for their SGLI policy, that designation will still be honored and the benefits will be paid accordingly.
48.
AF policy requires that all AF personnel fully support the casualty assistance program and recognize all of these goals except:
Correct Answer
B. Accurate accountability
Explanation
The AF policy requires that all AF personnel fully support the casualty assistance program and recognize goals such as prompt reporting, dignified and humane notifications, and efficient, thorough, and compassionate assistance to the next of kin. However, accurate accountability is not mentioned as one of the goals.
49.
When performing casualty assistance duties, you do not release any information to Public Affairs when the member does not want:
Correct Answer
A. The next of kin notified
Explanation
When performing casualty assistance duties, it is important to respect the wishes of the member. If the member does not want their next of kin to be notified, it is crucial to honor their request and not release any information to Public Affairs regarding the notification. This ensures that the member's privacy and confidentiality are protected during this difficult time.
50.
What is the casualty status of a person who is not present at his or her duty location due to apparent involutnary reasons and whose location may or may not be known?
Correct Answer
B. Missing
Explanation
The correct answer is "Missing." In this scenario, the person is not present at their duty location and their whereabouts may or may not be known. This suggests that the person is unaccounted for and cannot be located, which aligns with the definition of "missing."