4N051 Set A (Code 05)
This is the most recent CDC update CODE 05
- 1.
001- Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish the mission?
- A.
AFDD 1, Basic Doctrine
- B.
AFDD 1-1, Leadership and Force Development
- C.
AFDD 2-8, Command and Control
- D.
AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations
Correct Answer
D. AFDD 4-02, Medical OperationsExplanation
AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations, is the correct answer as it is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their mission. This doctrine document provides guidance and principles for medical operations, including planning, organizing, and executing medical support in various operational environments. It outlines the roles and responsibilities of medical personnel, as well as the integration of medical capabilities with other Air Force functions. By following this doctrine, commanders can ensure effective and efficient medical support to enable the overall mission success of the Air Force.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
002- Why is medical Doctrine necessary?
- A.
Recommends step by step actions.
- B.
Directs the actions of commanders.
- C.
Guides commanders in using assets.
- D.
Changes faster than Air Force guidance.
Correct Answer
C. Guides commanders in using assets.Explanation
Medical Doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets. This means that it provides a framework and set of guidelines for commanders to effectively utilize medical resources and personnel in their decision-making processes. By following medical doctrine, commanders can ensure that they are making informed decisions about the allocation and utilization of medical assets, ultimately leading to more efficient and effective medical support for their units.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
0003 - What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
- A.
Basic.
- B.
Tactical
- C.
Operational
- D.
Foundational
Correct Answer
C. OperationalExplanation
Operational doctrine guides the organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. It focuses on the planning and execution of military operations in a specific theater or area of responsibility. Operational doctrine provides guidance on how to employ forces effectively and efficiently to achieve strategic objectives. It is a key component in military planning and decision-making processes at the operational level of warfare.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
004- Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?
- A.
The Environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulations such as fuel economy
- B.
An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind.
- C.
An automotive designer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure
- D.
A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors
Correct Answer
D. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factorsExplanation
The best example to explain tactical doctrine is a car buyer because they have the ability to choose specific qualities that align with their individual needs, such as speed or safety factors. Tactical doctrine refers to the decision-making process that involves selecting the most effective means to achieve specific objectives. In this case, the car buyer's ability to choose specific qualities demonstrates their understanding of their own needs and their strategic decision-making in selecting a car that best fits those needs.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
005- What kind of change to casualty survival rates occur when Aeromedical Evacuation (AE) is available?
- A.
Significantly increase.
- B.
Significantly decrease.
- C.
Increase by only 10 percent.
- D.
Decrease by only 10 percent
Correct Answer
A. Significantly increase.Explanation
When Aeromedical Evacuation (AE) is available, casualty survival rates significantly increase. This means that the presence of AE allows for more effective and efficient transportation of injured individuals to medical facilities, resulting in higher chances of survival. AE provides specialized medical care during transport, ensuring that patients receive the necessary treatment and support during critical moments.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
006- Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has NO impatient beds?
- A.
EMEDS Basic.
- B.
EMEDS +10
- C.
EMEDS +25
- D.
All EMEDS have impatient beds
Correct Answer
A. EMEDS Basic.Explanation
EMEDS Basic is the correct answer because it is the only option that states there are no impatient beds. The other options, EMEDS +10, EMEDS +25, and All EMEDS have impatient beds, imply that there are impatient beds included in those increments. Therefore, EMEDS Basic is the only option that aligns with the statement that there are no impatient beds.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
007- Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debrief (CISD)?
- A.
Mental Health personnel and the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) commander.
- B.
Aerospace Medical Specialist and the AEF or EMEDS commanders.
- C.
Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training.
- D.
The AEF or EMEDS commanders and Aerospace Medical Specialist with additional training.
Correct Answer
C. Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training.Explanation
Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training are qualified to perform a critical incident stress debrief (CISD). This indicates that both mental health professionals and aerospace medical specialists who have received extra training are deemed suitable for conducting a CISD. The involvement of both specialties suggests that a comprehensive approach, addressing both psychological and medical aspects, is necessary for effective debriefing in critical incidents. The other options either do not include both specialties or do not mention the requirement of additional training.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
008- Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification?
- A.
12 hours for routine AE support, and 2 hours for urgent AE support.
- B.
12 hours for routine AE support, and 4 hours for urgent AE support.
- C.
24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support.
- D.
36 hours for routine AE support, and 24 hours for urgent AE support.
Correct Answer
C. 24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support.Explanation
EMEDS Basic requires routine AE support within 24 hours of notification and urgent AE support within 12 hours of notification.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
009- What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25 ?
- A.
32
- B.
51
- C.
86
- D.
94
Correct Answer
C. 86Explanation
The total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25 is 86.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
010- The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level?
- A.
4N000
- B.
4N031
- C.
N051
- D.
4N071
Correct Answer
A. 4N000Explanation
The correct answer is 4N000. This skill level indicates that the Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has no specific skill level assigned. It suggests that the individual is at the entry-level or initial stage of their career in the Air Force.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
011- Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?
- A.
Group Superintendent
- B.
Surgeon general
- C.
Air Force career field manager
- D.
Career development course writer
Correct Answer
C. Air Force career field managerExplanation
The Air Force career field manager is responsible for developing and maintaining the currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP). They oversee the training and education requirements for individuals in the career field, ensuring that they are up to date and relevant. This includes identifying any necessary updates or changes to the CFETP and working with other stakeholders to implement them. The career field manager plays a crucial role in ensuring that individuals in the career field receive the necessary education and training to perform their duties effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
012- What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the career grouping?
- A.
First
- B.
Second
- C.
Third
- D.
Fifth
Correct Answer
A. FirstExplanation
The figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that identifies the career grouping is the first figure.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
013- Who may request a 4N0X1 job inventory?
- A.
Chief Nurse
- B.
Command chief
- C.
Career field manager
- D.
Medical Group commander
Correct Answer
C. Career field managerExplanation
The career field manager may request a 4N0X1 job inventory. This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field, including the allocation of job positions within that field. As such, they have the authority to request a job inventory for the 4N0X1 job, which is likely a specific job within the medical field. The other options, such as the Chief Nurse, Command Chief, and Medical Group commander, may have authority and influence within the medical field, but they do not have the specific role of managing the career field and requesting job inventories.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
014- How often is the 4N0XX job inventory normally completed?
- A.
Every 6 months.
- B.
Annually.
- C.
Every 3 years.
- D.
Every 5 years.
Correct Answer
C. Every 3 years.Explanation
The 4N0XX job inventory is normally completed every 3 years. This suggests that the job inventory is conducted on a triennial basis, meaning it is done once every three years.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
015- Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS) ?
- A.
Commander
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
3-Level
- D.
5-Level
Correct Answer
B. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS). This indicates that the supervisor is in charge of ensuring that the survey is filled out and submitted. The commander, 3-Level, and 5-Level are not mentioned as being responsible for this task, so they are not the correct answers.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
016- Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training?
- A.
Maintain skills.
- B.
Prevent lawsuits.
- C.
Ensure promotion.
- D.
To complete formal training course.
Correct Answer
A. Maintain skills.Explanation
It is required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training in order to maintain their skills. Sustainment training helps them stay up-to-date with the latest practices, procedures, and technologies in their field. By regularly refreshing their knowledge and skills, they can provide the best possible care to patients and ensure that they are competent and proficient in their job. This also helps to enhance the overall quality of healthcare services provided by 4N0X1 personnel.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
017- Required specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in what location?
- A.
Stateside base
- B.
Deployment setting
- C.
Reserve duty station
- D.
Air National Guard base
Correct Answer
B. Deployment settingExplanation
The Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in a deployment setting. This means that the program is specifically intended to ensure that individuals in the Air Force receive the necessary training and qualifications for their specific job while deployed in a foreign or combat zone. The program helps maintain readiness and proficiency in AFSCs even in challenging and high-stress environments.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
018- What timeframe is best to conduct in-service training within your unit?
- A.
During shift change
- B.
On training days
- C.
In the afternoons
- D.
In the morning
Correct Answer
B. On training daysExplanation
In-service training is best conducted on training days because it allows for dedicated time and focus on the training activities. Conducting training during shift change may disrupt the flow of work and cause distractions. Afternoons and mornings may also not be ideal as employees may be more fatigued or less focused during these times. Therefore, scheduling training on designated training days ensures that employees can fully engage in the training without any interruptions or distractions.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
019- The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline
- A.
Patient treatment plans
- B.
Patient treatment milestones
- C.
Training milestones for enlisted within the assigned area
- D.
Training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area
Correct Answer
D. Training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned areaExplanation
The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area. This means that the MTP is a comprehensive plan that sets out the specific training objectives and milestones that need to be achieved by enlisted personnel in a particular area. It helps to ensure that training is structured and organized, and that enlisted personnel are progressing towards their goals in a systematic manner. By providing a clear roadmap for training, the MTP helps to ensure that enlisted personnel are prepared and equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to fulfill their duties effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
020- Duty section job description an the upgrade training plan is kept in the
- A.
Career Field Education Training Plan (CFETP)
- B.
Air Force Training Record (AFTR)
- C.
Specialty Training Standard (STS)
- D.
Master Training Plan (MTP)
Correct Answer
D. Master Training Plan (MTP)Explanation
The Master Training Plan (MTP) is the correct answer because it is the document that contains the duty section job description and the upgrade training plan. The MTP outlines the training requirements and objectives for a specific career field and provides a roadmap for career progression. It includes information on job responsibilities, required training courses, and timelines for completion. The MTP is an important tool for supervisors and trainees to ensure that all necessary training is completed and that individuals are prepared for their assigned duties.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
021- Your first step for creating and editing an Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select which option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu?
- A.
Edit MTP
- B.
View MTP
- C.
Delete MTP
- D.
Create/Edit MTP
Correct Answer
D. Create/Edit MTPExplanation
To create and edit a Master Training Plan (MTP) in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), the first step is to select the option "Create/Edit MTP" from the AFTR Data/MTP menu. This option allows the user to create a new MTP or make changes to an existing one. The other options listed, such as "Edit MTP," "View MTP," and "Delete MTP," are not the first steps in the process of creating and editing an MTP.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
022- What is the Fourth step in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for editing an specialty training standard (STS) Master Training Plan (MTP) tasks?
- A.
The user must enter in as start month, End month, Training days, Training method, Evaluation method and Training aid.
- B.
The user must enter in all fields to complete the MTP information.
- C.
The user must select what method will be used for the training on the task.
- D.
After confirmation, the user is redirected to the Edit MTP tasks page.
Correct Answer
A. The user must enter in as start month, End month, Training days, Training method, Evaluation method and Training aid.Explanation
The fourth step in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for editing an specialty training standard (STS) Master Training Plan (MTP) tasks is for the user to enter in the start month, end month, training days, training method, evaluation method, and training aid. This step is necessary to provide specific details and instructions for the training task.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
023- What two parts divide the Master Training List (MTL) section?
- A.
MTP on the left and STS on the right
- B.
STS on the left and MTL on the right
- C.
797 on the right and 1098 on the left
- D.
UTL on the right and MAJCOM on the left
Correct Answer
B. STS on the left and MTL on the rightExplanation
The correct answer is STS on the left and MTL on the right. This means that the Master Training List (MTL) section is divided into two parts, with the STS (which stands for Specialized Training Standards) on the left and the MTL on the right.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
024- The edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows which certification level requirement to be edited?
- A.
MTP tasks 5 and 7
- B.
MTL tasks 5 and 7
- C.
STS tasks 7 and 5
- D.
UTL tasks 7 and 5
Correct Answer
B. MTL tasks 5 and 7Explanation
The correct answer is MTL tasks 5 and 7. The MTL menu option allows for editing certification level requirements. Specifically, tasks 5 and 7 within the MTL can be edited using this option.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
025- The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) is your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the
- A.
Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty position menu
- B.
Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty position menu
- C.
AFTR Data/Duty position menu
- D.
AFTR duty position menu
Correct Answer
A. Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty position menuExplanation
When creating or editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), the first step is to select the "Create/Edit DTL" option from the AFTR Data/Duty position menu. This option allows the user to access the necessary tools and features to create or make changes to the DTL. The other options listed, such as "Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty position menu" or "AFTR Data/Duty position menu" do not specify the exact action needed to create or edit the DTL. The "AFTR duty position menu" is not mentioned as a step in the process.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
026- Some additional factors must be considered when determining training requirements. What are they?
- A.
Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) tasks.
- B.
No other factors are considered.
- C.
AEF tasks and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements
- D.
Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must be considered when determining training requirements.
Correct Answer
D. Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must be considered when determining training requirements.Explanation
The correct answer is that deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must be considered when determining training requirements. This means that in addition to AEF tasks, there are other factors such as deployment requirements and other factors that drive the need for training that must also be taken into account. These additional factors are important in order to ensure that the training provided is comprehensive and meets all the necessary requirements for the specific situation.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
027- Who or whom do you contact, if there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier?
- A.
Commander
- B.
First Sargent
- C.
Base Training Office
- D.
Unit Training Office
Correct Answer
C. Base Training OfficeExplanation
If there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier, you would contact the Base Training Office. They would be responsible for coordinating and organizing training within the base and would be able to assist in finding a suitable trainer or certifier for the specific requirement.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
028- The total training program leads to
- A.
Lower pay levels
- B.
Higher pay levels
- C.
Higher skill level
- D.
Promotion
Correct Answer
C. Higher skill levelExplanation
The total training program leads to a higher skill level because training programs are designed to enhance the knowledge, abilities, and expertise of individuals. By participating in a comprehensive training program, individuals can acquire new skills, improve existing ones, and gain a deeper understanding of their field. This increased skill level can then lead to various benefits such as career advancement, increased job opportunities, and potentially higher pay levels in the long run.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
029- The step to evaluate a 4N0X1`s competency on a task involve reviewing the
- A.
Behavior exhibited while completing the task; the conditions where the task was performed; and the standards that fall under each task.
- B.
Behavior exhibited while completing the task; and the conditions where the task was performed.
- C.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- D.
Master Task List (MTL)
Correct Answer
A. Behavior exhibited while completing the task; the conditions where the task was performed; and the standards that fall under each task.Explanation
The step to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involves reviewing the behavior exhibited while completing the task, the conditions where the task was performed, and the standards that fall under each task. This comprehensive evaluation allows for a thorough assessment of the individual's performance and ensures that they are meeting the required standards for their role. By considering all these factors, a more accurate evaluation can be made regarding the individual's competency and areas for improvement can be identified.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
030- Which personnel provide specific training information for particular tasks or knowledge?
- A.
Certifier
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
On-the-Job training (OJT) trainer
- D.
Your OJT trainer or supervisor
Correct Answer
D. Your OJT trainer or supervisorExplanation
Your OJT trainer or supervisor is the correct answer because they are responsible for providing specific training information for particular tasks or knowledge. They have the expertise and experience to guide and train individuals in their specific job roles. They can provide hands-on training, instructions, and feedback to ensure that trainees acquire the necessary skills and knowledge required for their job responsibilities.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
031- What does task knowledge identify?
- A.
RN orders
- B.
Physician orders
- C.
Your ability to identify facts, state principles, and analyze.
- D.
Your ability to identify facts, state principles, analyze and evaluate the subject
Correct Answer
D. Your ability to identify facts, state principles, analyze and evaluate the subjectExplanation
Task knowledge refers to the understanding and proficiency in a specific task or subject. It involves being able to identify relevant facts, state underlying principles, analyze information, and evaluate the subject matter critically. This includes the ability to gather and interpret data, apply logical reasoning, and make informed judgments. Therefore, the correct answer suggests that task knowledge identifies an individual's capability to perform all these cognitive processes in relation to a particular task or subject.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
032- To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess your ability?
- A.
Name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task.
- B.
Follow sequence in the proficiency task listing.
- C.
Determine the final step needed to complete task
- D.
Review the CFETP and identify task in the Part I specialty training standard
Correct Answer
A. Name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task.Explanation
To fully understand task knowledge, one step used to assess your ability is to name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task. This step involves being able to identify and describe the various components and tools involved in the task, as well as having a basic understanding of the key facts and information related to the task. By being able to name these parts, tools, and facts, you demonstrate a foundational level of knowledge and comprehension of the task at hand.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
033- To fully understand subject knowledge, the steps to assess your ability include
- A.
Analyzing task knowledge with another airman in upgrade training
- B.
Analyzing facts and principles and draw conclusions about the subject
- C.
Reviewing manufacturer`s material on subject knowledge
- D.
Identify detailed facts and acronyms about the subject
Correct Answer
B. Analyzing facts and principles and draw conclusions about the subjectExplanation
To fully understand subject knowledge, it is important to analyze the facts and principles related to the subject and draw conclusions based on them. This involves critically examining the information and determining its significance and implications. By doing so, one can gain a deeper understanding of the subject and make informed judgments and decisions. This step helps in consolidating knowledge and developing a comprehensive understanding of the subject matter.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
034- What information is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) ?
- A.
Job qualification standard training start and complete date
- B.
AF Form 623 II, On the Job Training Record Continuation Sheet
- C.
Start and complete date with trainee, trainer and certifier initials(if applicable)
- D.
AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training Qualification Training Packages
Correct Answer
C. Start and complete date with trainee, trainer and certifier initials(if applicable)Explanation
When each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), the information that is updated includes the start and complete date of the task, as well as the initials of the trainee, trainer, and certifier (if applicable). This information helps to track the progress and completion of the training, ensuring that all necessary tasks have been successfully learned and demonstrated.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
035- Each time an Airman changes duty positions (transfer from another base or work center), the supervisor must perform
- A.
A re-evaluation
- B.
An initial evaluation
- C.
An Enlisted Progress Report (EPR)
- D.
An Annual Progress Report (APR)
Correct Answer
B. An initial evaluationExplanation
When an Airman changes duty positions, the supervisor must perform an initial evaluation. This evaluation is necessary to assess the Airman's skills, knowledge, and performance in their new position. It helps the supervisor understand the Airman's strengths and areas for improvement, and allows them to provide appropriate guidance and support. The initial evaluation is crucial in ensuring that the Airman is properly integrated into their new role and can effectively contribute to the team's mission.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
036- After achieving training and knowledge, what is the 1st question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level?
- A.
Can I do simple parts of the task?
- B.
Can I do most parts of the task?
- C.
How many supplies are needed?
- D.
How much equipment is needed?
Correct Answer
A. Can I do simple parts of the task?Explanation
The first question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level is "Can I do simple parts of the task?" This question helps assess your ability to handle the basic and fundamental aspects of the task. By evaluating your proficiency in performing simple parts, you can gauge your overall skill level and identify areas that may require improvement or further training.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
037- After achieving training and knowledge what is the last question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level?
- A.
How many people can I train?
- B.
How many continuing education hours did I achieve?
- C.
Can I do all parts of the task? I need only a spot check of completed work.
- D.
Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can tell or show others how to do the task?
Correct Answer
D. Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can tell or show others how to do the task?Explanation
The last question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level is whether you can do the complete task quickly and accurately, and if you can tell or show others how to do the task. This question assesses not only your own ability to perform the task, but also your level of understanding and ability to teach others. It indicates a high level of proficiency and mastery in the subject matter.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
038- The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and train critiques or surveys are used to document
- A.
Weekly training procedures
- B.
Objective effectiveness
- C.
Quarterly training steps
- D.
Training effectiveness
Correct Answer
D. Training effectivenessExplanation
The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and train critiques or surveys are used to document training effectiveness. These documents are utilized to track and record the effectiveness of the training programs in the Air Force. They provide a means to evaluate the success of the training procedures and make any necessary improvements or adjustments.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
039- If training is effective, what should trainees remember?
- A.
The requirements to successfully complete the job
- B.
Advanced requirements to complete the job
- C.
50% of their training information
- D.
80% of their training information
Correct Answer
A. The requirements to successfully complete the jobExplanation
Trainees should remember the requirements to successfully complete the job if the training is effective. This means that they should have a clear understanding of what is expected of them in order to perform their job successfully. Remembering the advanced requirements or a certain percentage of their training information is not as important as knowing the basic requirements to complete the job.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
040- What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness ?
- A.
Review test questions
- B.
Review class survey
- C.
Analyze if 90 percent actively participated in training process
- D.
Analyze if everyone actively participated in training process
Correct Answer
D. Analyze if everyone actively participated in training processExplanation
One of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness is to analyze if everyone actively participated in the training process. This means assessing whether all individuals who were supposed to be involved in the training actually took part and engaged in the activities. By evaluating the level of participation, trainers can determine if the training was effective in reaching and involving all the necessary individuals. This method helps in identifying any gaps or issues in participation, which can be addressed to improve the overall effectiveness of the training program.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
041- Name one of three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field
- A.
Allergy/Immunization technician.
- B.
Emergency room technician
- C.
Neurology technician
- D.
Vascular technician
Correct Answer
C. Neurology technicianExplanation
One of the three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field is the Neurology technician. This means that within the 4N0X1 career field, individuals can specialize in working as technicians in the field of neurology. They would be responsible for assisting in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders, performing tests and procedures related to the nervous system, and providing care to patients with neurological conditions.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
042- Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training begins
- A.
With meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626
- B.
With meeting the requirements in the Officer Classification Directory and ETCA
- C.
By submitting your last Enlisted Progress Report (EPR) and fitness test score.
- D.
By submitting your last achievement medal and quarterly award
Correct Answer
A. With meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626Explanation
The correct answer is to meet the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626. This means that in order to successfully recommend formal training, one must ensure that they fulfill the requirements stated in these documents. These documents likely outline the necessary qualifications, prerequisites, and procedures for enrolling in formal training programs. By meeting these requirements, individuals can ensure that they are eligible and prepared to pursue the recommended formal training.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
043- What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor?
- A.
Complete all duty position training requirements
- B.
Qualification Training Packages (QTP) for assignment position; complete all duty position training requirements
- C.
Basic Life Support (BLS) certification; QTP for assigned position; complete all duty position requirements
- D.
National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements
Correct Answer
D. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirementsExplanation
To apply for a technical training instructor position, one must complete the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification, as well as the Qualification Training Packages (QTP) for the assigned position. Additionally, they must fulfill all duty position training requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
044- What must you meet prior to applying for retraining?
- A.
Retainability requirements
- B.
Eligibility requirements
- C.
PCS requirements
- D.
PCA requirements
Correct Answer
B. Eligibility requirementsExplanation
Prior to applying for retraining, one must meet the eligibility requirements. This means that there are certain criteria or qualifications that an individual must fulfill in order to be eligible for retraining. These requirements could include factors such as job performance, length of service, or specific skills and qualifications needed for the retraining program. Meeting these eligibility requirements is necessary to ensure that the individual is suitable and qualified for the retraining opportunity.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
045- What is the criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airman applying for retraining?
- A.
Technical Training school grade point average
- B.
Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery Scores
- C.
Number of achievement medals
- D.
Last three EPRs
Correct Answer
D. Last three EPRsExplanation
The Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board ranks Airmen applying for retraining based on their last three EPRs. EPRs, or Enlisted Performance Reports, provide a comprehensive evaluation of an Airman's performance, including their job performance, leadership abilities, and overall contributions to the Air Force. By considering the last three EPRs, the QRP board can assess an Airman's consistency and sustained performance over a period of time, which helps in determining their suitability for retraining opportunities.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
046- The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the
- A.
Career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed
- B.
Base force of each AF special experience identifier (SEI) as needed
- C.
Unit force of each AF shredout as needed
- D.
Career force of the AF squadron
Correct Answer
A. Career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as neededExplanation
The correct answer is to balance the career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed. This means that the overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to ensure that there is a balanced distribution of personnel across different AFSCs in order to meet the needs and demands of the Air Force. This helps to ensure that there are enough personnel with the necessary skills and expertise in each AFSC to effectively carry out their duties and responsibilities.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
047- To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS), click on
- A.
Course list
- B.
My profile
- C.
Administration
- D.
Training records
Correct Answer
D. Training recordsExplanation
To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), you need to log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS) and navigate to the "Training records" section. This is where you can view and manage your training records within the AFTR system.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
048- the procedures to update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base, Unit, or WorkCentre is performed by clicking
- A.
My profile and editing root and sub Organizations
- B.
Administration and editing Organizations
- C.
Root and sub Organizations
- D.
Sub Organizations
Correct Answer
A. My profile and editing root and sub OrganizationsExplanation
The correct answer is "My profile and editing root and sub Organizations." To update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base, Unit, or WorkCentre, the procedure involves accessing "My profile" and then making changes to the root and sub Organizations within the profile. This allows for accurate and up-to-date information to be reflected in the User Location section.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
049- If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the code in the user training information?
- A.
Base training manager
- B.
Unit training manager
- C.
Unit deployment manager
- D.
Curriculum development manager
Correct Answer
B. Unit training managerExplanation
The correct answer is Unit training manager. When the training status code changes, the person responsible for updating the code in the user training information is the Unit training manager. They are in charge of managing the training of individuals within the unit and ensuring that all training records are accurate and up to date. They have the authority to make changes to the training code and ensure that the appropriate training is assigned to each individual.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
050- What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates?
- A.
Master Training List (MTL)
- B.
Master Training Plan (MTP)
- C.
AF 623 Part I
- D.
AF 623 Part II
Correct Answer
D. AF 623 Part IIExplanation
AF 623 Part II is the correct answer because this section of the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is specifically used to update the start and complete dates of career development courses (CDCs). The AF 623 Part II section focuses on the individual's training and education, including CDCs, and allows for the documentation of start and completion dates to track the progress and completion of these courses.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jul 24, 2018Quiz Created by
Erica Funke
Back to top