4N051 Set B Vol 1

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  • 1/108 Questions

    One of the most common and seroius complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is

    • Pelvic inflammatory disease
    • Irregular menstral cycles
    • Vaginal discharge
    • Chlamydia
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4N051 Set B Vol 1 - Quiz
About This Quiz

This quiz titled '4n051 set b vol 1' assesses knowledge on pathogens, disease transmission, and infection stages. It is designed for learners aiming to understand infectious diseases, focusing on aspects like pathogen types, incubation periods, and precautions in medical settings.

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  • 2. 

    The body's first step in the healing process is

    • Inflammation

    • Collecting

    • Infection

    • Bruising

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation
    Explanation
    Inflammation is the body's initial response to injury or infection. When tissues are damaged, the body releases certain chemicals that cause blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable. This allows immune cells to enter the affected area, where they can fight off any potential pathogens and remove debris. Inflammation also helps to increase blood flow to the area, which delivers necessary nutrients and oxygen for healing. Therefore, inflammation is an essential step in the healing process as it helps to initiate the repair and regeneration of damaged tissues.

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  • 3. 

    When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm. you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?

    • Begin suturing

    • Flush the wound

    • Dig out the debris with an allis clamp

    • Soak the wound in an antibiotic solution

    Correct Answer
    A. Flush the wound
    Explanation
    The next step would be to flush the wound. This is important to remove any foreign material or debris from the wound, which can help prevent infection and promote healing. Flushing the wound with a sterile solution, such as saline, can help clean the wound thoroughly and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • 4. 

    In the Air Force, how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance?

    • Daily

    • Weekly

    • Bimonthly

    • Monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    Emergency equipment and supplies in a crash ambulance should be checked daily in the Air Force. This is important to ensure that all necessary equipment is in working order and fully stocked in case of an emergency. Regular checks help to identify any issues or deficiencies that may need to be addressed promptly, ensuring that the ambulance is always prepared to respond effectively to any situation.

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  • 5. 

    When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?

    • Age

    • Name

    • Chieft complaint

    • Medications and allergies

    Correct Answer
    A. Name
    Explanation
    When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, the name should not be broadcast. This is because sharing a patient's name over the radio can potentially violate their privacy and confidentiality. It is important to protect the patient's identity and only share necessary information for medical purposes.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

    • Antigen

    • Antibody

    • Pathogen

    • Micro-organism

    Correct Answer
    A. Pathogen
    Explanation
    A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It can be a bacterium, virus, fungus, or parasite. Pathogens invade the body and can disrupt normal bodily functions, leading to illness. They can be transmitted through various means such as direct contact, contaminated food or water, or through the air. Understanding pathogens is crucial in preventing and treating infectious diseases.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaution?

    • Airborne

    • Droplet

    • Contact

    • Enteric

    Correct Answer
    A. Enteric
    Explanation
    Enteric is not a type of transmission-based precaution. Transmission-based precautions are infection control measures used to prevent the spread of specific infectious agents. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that are spread through small airborne particles, droplet precautions are used for diseases that are spread through larger droplets, and contact precautions are used for diseases that are spread through direct contact with an infected person or contaminated surfaces. Enteric precautions, on the other hand, refer to specific precautions taken for diseases that are spread through the gastrointestinal tract, such as by fecal-oral route.

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  • 8. 

    Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored,negative air pressure?

    • Droplet

    • Contact

    • Airborne

    • Respiratory

    Correct Answer
    A. Airborne
    Explanation
    Airborne transmission-based precautions require monitoring and negative air pressure. This means that the room or area where the patient is located should have a ventilation system that ensures air flows into the room but does not escape into other areas. This prevents the spread of infectious particles that may be suspended in the air, such as those transmitted by tuberculosis or measles. Monitoring is necessary to ensure that the negative air pressure is maintained and that the precautions are effective in preventing the spread of the airborne pathogens.

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  • 9. 

    When asking the patient if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses or if he or she has ever had eye problems prior to conducting an Optec 2300 Vision Tester exam, the patient's responses will determine

    • Sequence of test performance

    • The patient's eligibility for care

    • If glasses are provided free of charge

    • How soon an appointment hsould be made

    Correct Answer
    A. Sequence of test performance
    Explanation
    The patient's responses to questions about glasses, contact lenses, and eye problems will determine the sequence of test performance. This means that the order in which the tests are conducted will be based on the patient's answers. For example, if the patient wears contact lenses, certain tests may need to be performed before others to ensure accuracy. Similarly, if the patient has a history of eye problems, specific tests may be prioritized. By understanding the patient's eye history and needs, the healthcare professional can tailor the test sequence accordingly.

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  • 10. 

    What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?

    • Iron

    • Soy

    • Niacin

    • Calcium

    Correct Answer
    A. Iron
    Explanation
    Iron is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. Iron is a crucial component of hemoglobin, as it binds to oxygen and allows it to be transported to different tissues and organs. Without sufficient iron, the body cannot produce enough hemoglobin, leading to a condition called iron deficiency anemia. Therefore, iron is essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin.

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  • 11. 

    Any artifical products or features which appear on an electocardiogram tracing are called

    • Artifacts

    • Disturbances

    • Random waves

    • Deflection waves

    Correct Answer
    A. Artifacts
    Explanation
    Artifacts are any artificial products or features that appear on an electrocardiogram tracing. These can be caused by various factors such as patient movement, electrode placement errors, electrical interference, or equipment malfunction. Artifacts can mimic abnormal cardiac activity and can lead to misinterpretation of the ECG. Therefore, it is important to identify and eliminate artifacts to obtain an accurate interpretation of the patient's heart rhythm.

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  • 12. 

    The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provdie caluable infromation to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called

    • Expanded primary survey

    • Secondary survey

    • Trauma history

    • Scene sizeup

    Correct Answer
    A. Scene sizeup
    Explanation
    Scene sizeup refers to the action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT). This involves evaluating the safety of the scene, determining the mechanism of injury, identifying the number of patients, and gathering any additional information that may be relevant for the EMT's response. This initial assessment helps the EMT prioritize care and make informed decisions about the appropriate treatment and transportation of the patients involved.

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  • 13. 

    When preparing to unload a patient from an ambulance, what should you do first?

    • Turn the oxygen off in the ambulance

    • Ensure all straps are secured on the patient

    • Make a list of supplies that need to be restocked

    • Place an emergency medical technician on either side of the stretcher as it is rolled out

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure all straps are secured on the patient
    Explanation
    Before unloading a patient from an ambulance, it is important to ensure that all straps are secured on the patient. This is crucial for the safety and stability of the patient during the unloading process. By securing the straps, it helps prevent any potential injuries or falls while transferring the patient from the ambulance to a stretcher or another medical facility. This step should be prioritized to ensure the well-being of the patient and to maintain a smooth and safe unloading process.

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  • 14. 

    Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?

    • Range of motion (ROM)

    • Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)

    • Purified protein derivation (PPD)

    • Alert verbal painful unresponsive (AVPU)

    Correct Answer
    A. Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)
    Explanation
    Emergency medical technicians (EMTs) use the acronym PSD, which stands for Painful, swollen deformity, to describe a possible fracture in the field. This acronym is used because a fracture often causes pain, swelling, and deformity in the affected area. By using the PSD acronym, EMTs can quickly communicate the possibility of a fracture to other medical professionals and provide appropriate care and treatment.

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  • 15. 

    Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?

    • Illness

    • Virulence

    • Incubation

    • Convalescence

    Correct Answer
    A. Incubation
    Explanation
    The stage of infection that refers to the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease is called incubation. During this stage, the infectious agent is multiplying within the body, but the person does not yet show any signs or symptoms of the disease. This period can vary depending on the specific infectious agent and the individual's immune response.

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  • 16. 

    An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is

    • A storage cart

    • An isolation cart

    • The suppl room

    • The nurse's station

    Correct Answer
    A. An isolation cart
    Explanation
    An isolation cart is an acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit because it provides a designated space to store necessary supplies and equipment for the isolation unit. It allows for easy access to items needed for patient care without having to leave the isolation area. This helps maintain infection control protocols by minimizing the risk of contamination from outside sources. The isolation cart can be stocked with personal protective equipment, medications, and other essential items, ensuring that healthcare providers have everything they need within close proximity to the patient.

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  • 17. 

    Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen

    • During a blood transfusion

    • As a result of not using table salt

    • When an individual is unable to sink in water

    • Through an excessive amount of fluid loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Through an excessive amount of fluid loss
    Explanation
    The correct answer is through an excessive amount of fluid loss. Sodium chloride, also known as salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps maintain fluid balance in the body. When there is a significant loss of fluids through sweating, vomiting, diarrhea, or excessive urination, it can lead to a deficiency of sodium chloride. This deficiency can cause symptoms such as muscle cramps, weakness, dizziness, and low blood pressure. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

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  • 18. 

    When can the minor surgery procedure begin?

    • When the provider says it times

    • After the consent form is signed

    • Once a set of vitals signs are repeated

    • Only after housekeeping has cleaned the room

    Correct Answer
    A. After the consent form is signed
    Explanation
    The minor surgery procedure can begin after the consent form is signed. This is because obtaining informed consent from the patient is a crucial step before any medical procedure can take place. It ensures that the patient fully understands the risks, benefits, and alternatives of the procedure and gives their voluntary agreement to proceed. Once the consent form is signed, the healthcare provider has legal and ethical permission to begin the surgery.

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  • 19. 

    In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only

    • When the senior medical technician on board approves it

    • When local protocol authorizes it

    • During the response phase

    • During the transport phase

    Correct Answer
    A. When local protocol authorizes it
    Explanation
    The correct answer is when local protocol authorizes it. This means that the use of lights and sirens on an ambulance call in the Air Force is only permitted when it is approved by the local protocol. This indicates that there are specific guidelines and regulations in place that determine when the use of lights and sirens is necessary and appropriate during an ambulance call.

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  • 20. 

    If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide

    • High concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask

    • Ventilations with a bage-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen

    • High concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask

    • Low concentration oxygen with nasal cannula

    Correct Answer
    A. Ventilations with a bage-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen
    Explanation
    If the patient is not alert and their breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, it indicates a potential respiratory distress or failure. In such cases, providing ventilations with a bage-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen is the most appropriate intervention. This method ensures that the patient receives adequate oxygen supply and helps in maintaining proper ventilation. The BVM allows for manual control of ventilation, while the high-flow oxygen ensures a higher concentration of oxygen is delivered to the patient's lungs. This combination helps in improving oxygenation and supporting the patient's breathing until further medical intervention can be provided.

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  • 21. 

    Which basic human need category is rest included in?

    • Safety

    • Security

    • Self-esteem

    • Physiological

    Correct Answer
    A. Physiological
    Explanation
    Rest is included in the physiological category of basic human needs. This category refers to the fundamental biological requirements for survival, such as food, water, sleep, and shelter. Rest is essential for the body to recover and rejuvenate, allowing for proper functioning and overall well-being. Therefore, it falls under the physiological category as a necessary need for human beings.

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  • 22. 

    Plasma lipids include what three substances?

    • Vitamins, minerals, and herbs

    • Water, sucrose, and polyunsaturated fats

    • Nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and glucosaccaride

    • Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol

    Correct Answer
    A. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol
    Explanation
    Plasma lipids are a type of fat found in the bloodstream. They are essential for various bodily functions. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol are the three main substances that make up plasma lipids. Triglycerides are the most common type of fat in the body and are used for energy storage. Phospholipids are important for cell structure and function. Cholesterol is necessary for the production of hormones, vitamin D, and bile acids. These three substances play vital roles in maintaining overall health and are included in plasma lipids.

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  • 23. 

    What step should you take before operating a glucose meter?

    • Read the operating instructions

    • Confirm the order with a co-worker

    • Choose a sitre to obtain a blood sample

    • Ask all family members to leave the room

    Correct Answer
    A. Read the operating instructions
    Explanation
    Before operating a glucose meter, it is important to read the operating instructions. This step is crucial as it provides essential information on how to properly use and handle the device. By reading the instructions, one can understand the correct procedure for obtaining accurate blood glucose readings and avoid any potential errors or mishaps. It ensures that the user is aware of all the necessary precautions and guidelines to follow while operating the glucose meter effectively and safely.

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  • 24. 

    The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through

    • Cilia

    • Sneezing

    • Handwashing

    • The lumphatic system

    Correct Answer
    A. Cilia
    Explanation
    The correct answer is cilia. Cilia are tiny hair-like structures found in the mucous membrane that help filter and trap foreign bodies such as dust, pollen, and bacteria. They move in coordinated waves, pushing the trapped particles out of the respiratory system and preventing them from entering further into the body. Sneezing and handwashing are not directly involved in the filtration process, although they can help remove some foreign bodies from the respiratory system. The lymphatic system is responsible for the removal of waste and toxins from the body, but it is not directly related to the filtration of foreign bodies in the mucous membrane.

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  • 25. 

    A rapid trauma assessment is performed on  a patient with

    • A significant mechanism of injury and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

    • An insignificant mechanism of injury and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

    • A significant mechanism of ingury and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

    • An insignificant mechanism of injury and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

    Correct Answer
    A. A significant mechanism of injury and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
    Explanation
    A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with a significant mechanism of injury and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are. This means that when a patient has experienced a significant mechanism of injury, such as a severe car accident or a fall from a height, the healthcare provider will prioritize assessing and addressing the injuries in the area of the body that pose the greatest danger to the patient's life or well-being. This approach ensures that immediate attention is given to the most critical injuries first, potentially saving the patient's life or preventing further harm.

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  • 26. 

    When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal document you shold pay particular attention to and fix if it is not correct is the

    • Electrocardiogram tracing date and time

    • Code blue record of events

    • Ambulance run sheet

    • Doctor's note

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrocardiogram tracing date and time
    Explanation
    When setting up a cardiac monitor, it is important to pay particular attention to and fix the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing date and time. This is because accurate recording of the date and time on the ECG tracing is crucial for proper patient care and documentation. It helps healthcare professionals track the progression of cardiac events, monitor changes over time, and ensure accurate interpretation of the ECG data. Additionally, correct date and time documentation is essential for legal purposes, such as in case of any medical disputes or legal investigations.

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  • 27. 

    What is the most serious type of meningitis?

    • Viral

    • Serum

    • Bacterial

    • Pneumococcal

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacterial
    Explanation
    Bacterial meningitis is the most serious type of meningitis because it is caused by bacteria that can rapidly multiply and spread in the bloodstream, leading to inflammation of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. This type of meningitis can cause severe complications, such as brain damage, hearing loss, and even death, if not promptly treated with antibiotics. Viral meningitis, on the other hand, is usually less severe and resolves on its own without specific treatment. Serum and pneumococcal are not types of meningitis, but rather terms related to blood and a specific bacterium, respectively.

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  • 28. 

    What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department?

    • You must don a gown,mask, and gloves prior to transporting the patient

    • Notify all hospital personnel so they can take necessary precautions

    • Give the patient a gown,mask, and gloves to wear before transport

    • Hospital policy does not permit transport of infectious patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Give the patient a gown,mask, and gloves to wear before transport
    Explanation
    When transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department, it is important to give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport. This is because these protective measures help to prevent the spread of infection to others and maintain a safe environment. By providing the patient with these items, it reduces the risk of transmission of infectious agents and ensures the safety of both the patient and healthcare personnel.

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  • 29. 

    Potassium helps to maintain

    • Facial muscle tone

    • Clarity of eye sight

    • Heartbeat regulation

    • Alertness in the cerebellum

    Correct Answer
    A. Heartbeat regulation
    Explanation
    Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining the normal functioning of the heart. It helps regulate the electrical impulses that control the heartbeat, ensuring that the heart beats at a steady and regular pace. Potassium also helps in maintaining the balance of fluids in the body, which is essential for proper heart function. Therefore, it is responsible for heartbeat regulation.

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  • 30. 

    When checking the eyes during a neurological exam, the pupils should

    • Constrict quickly and simultaneously

    • Dilate quickly and simultaneously

    • Constrict quickly and separately

    • Dilate quickly and separately

    Correct Answer
    A. Constrict quickly and simultaneously
    Explanation
    During a neurological exam, checking the eyes involves assessing the pupillary response. The pupils should constrict quickly and simultaneously when exposed to light. This response indicates that the cranial nerves responsible for controlling the pupils are functioning properly. If the pupils were to dilate quickly and simultaneously, it could suggest an abnormality in the neurological system. Similarly, if the pupils were to constrict or dilate quickly but separately, it could indicate a dysfunction in the coordination of the pupillary response. Therefore, the correct answer is that the pupils should constrict quickly and simultaneously.

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  • 31. 

    While examining a patient that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise behind the ear, what injury should you suspect?

    • Hematoma

    • Cushing reflex

    • Basal skull fracture

    • Parietal skull fracture

    Correct Answer
    A. Basal skull fracture
    Explanation
    A bruise behind the ear is a common sign of a basal skull fracture. This type of fracture occurs at the base of the skull and can be caused by a significant impact or force to the head. The presence of a bruise behind the ear suggests that there may be bleeding or damage to the tissues and blood vessels in that area, which is consistent with a basal skull fracture. It is important to suspect this injury in order to provide appropriate medical care and further evaluation to the patient.

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  • 32. 

    While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and stated that he has splashed a chemical in his eye, what should you determine first?

    • The patient's visual acuity

    • If the patient is experiencing any pain

    • Whether the patient is authorized care in the facility

    • If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type

    Correct Answer
    A. If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type
    Explanation
    In this scenario, it is important to determine if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type. This is because contact lenses can trap chemicals against the eye, causing further damage. Different types of contact lenses may require different treatment approaches. By identifying if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type, the healthcare professional can provide appropriate and timely care to minimize any potential complications or harm to the patient's eye.

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  • 33. 

    When using a mask in an isolation unit. put the mask on

    • After entering the unit. and take it off before leaving

    • After entering the unit, and take it off after leaving

    • Before entering, and take it off before leaving

    • Before entering, and take it off after leaving

    Correct Answer
    A. Before entering, and take it off before leaving
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "before entering, and take it off before leaving." This means that the mask should be put on before entering the isolation unit and taken off before leaving the unit. This ensures that the mask is worn while inside the unit to prevent the spread of any airborne particles, and is removed before leaving to avoid carrying any contaminants outside of the unit.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?

    • Blood pressure screenings

    • Assessing current fitness status

    • Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants

    • Providing sercives designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood pressure screenings
    Explanation
    Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they are a common and important component of health assessments. By regularly monitoring employees' blood pressure, companies can identify potential health risks and provide appropriate interventions or resources to promote a healthy lifestyle. Blood pressure screenings can help detect conditions such as hypertension or other cardiovascular problems, allowing for early intervention and prevention.

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  • 35. 

    Half-normal saline solution is represented by

    • 0.2%

    • 0.40%

    • 0.45%

    • 0.50%

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.45%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.45% because a half-normal saline solution is typically represented by a concentration of 0.45%. This means that the solution contains 0.45 grams of salt per 100 milliliters of water, resulting in a concentration of 0.45%.

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  • 36. 

    During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away?

    • To allow the blood to clot

    • To prevent spillage of blood

    • It contains phagocytes,which may interfere with test results

    • It contains epithelial cells, which may interefere with test results

    Correct Answer
    A. It contains epithelial cells, which may interefere with test results
    Explanation
    The first drop of blood is wiped away during a skin puncture because it contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results. Epithelial cells are cells that line the surfaces of the body, including the skin. These cells can contaminate the blood sample and potentially affect the accuracy of the test results. By wiping away the first drop of blood, any potential interference from the epithelial cells is minimized, ensuring more accurate test results.

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  • 37. 

    The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter (mg/dl) is

    • 40 to 100 mg/dl

    • 70 to 115 mg/dl

    • 90 to 150 mg/dl

    • 120 to 200 mg/dl

    Correct Answer
    A. 70 to 115 mg/dl
    Explanation
    The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter (mg/dl) is 70 to 115 mg/dl. This range is considered normal because it indicates a healthy level of glucose in the blood after an overnight fast. Glucose is the main source of energy for the body, and maintaining it within this range ensures proper functioning of various organs and systems. Higher or lower levels of fasting blood glucose may indicate the presence of diabetes or other health conditions.

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  • 38. 

    What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization?

    • Cleaning

    • Disinfection

    • Pasteurization

    • Decontamination

    Correct Answer
    A. Cleaning
    Explanation
    The first step in preparing objects for sterilization is cleaning. This involves removing dirt, debris, and organic material from the objects to ensure that they are free from any potential contaminants. Cleaning is necessary before any further sterilization methods can be applied, as sterilization is most effective on clean surfaces. Disinfection, pasteurization, and decontamination are all important steps in the sterilization process, but they come after the initial cleaning step.

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  • 39. 

    What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs?

    • Babinski

    • Grasping

    • Rooting

    • Moro

    Correct Answer
    A. Moro
    Explanation
    The Moro reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs. This reflex is also known as the startle reflex and is a normal response in newborns. It is believed to be a protective mechanism that helps the infant respond to potential dangers and stimuli in their environment.

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  • 40. 

    Full maturation of a wound is evident when

    • New capillaries form

    • The scar is deep red in color

    • The scaring is white and glossy

    • A scab completely covers the wound

    Correct Answer
    A. The scaring is white and glossy
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the scaring is white and glossy." When a wound fully matures, the scar tissue that forms can become white and glossy in appearance. This is a result of collagen fibers aligning and strengthening over time. The scar may also become less noticeable and blend in with the surrounding skin. The formation of new capillaries, a deep red color, or the presence of a scab are not indicative of full maturation of a wound.

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  • 41. 

    Deficiency is respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called

    • Metabolic acidosis

    • Metabolic alkalosis

    • Respiratory acidosis

    • Respiratory alkalosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory acidosis
    Explanation
    Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is a build-up of carbon dioxide in the blood due to slow or irregular shallow respirations. This leads to an imbalance in the body's pH levels, resulting in an acidic environment. Metabolic acidosis, on the other hand, is caused by an increase in acid production or a decrease in bicarbonate levels in the body, unrelated to respiratory issues. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by an increase in bicarbonate levels, while respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilation, leading to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels.

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  • 42. 

    A proctoscopy is an inspection of the

    • Rectum

    • Sigmoid colon

    • Ascending colon

    • Transverse colon

    Correct Answer
    A. Rectum
    Explanation
    A proctoscopy is a medical procedure that involves the inspection of the rectum. It allows doctors to examine the rectal area for any abnormalities or signs of disease. During a proctoscopy, a thin, flexible tube with a light and camera on the end is inserted into the rectum to provide a clear view of the rectal lining. This procedure helps in the diagnosis and evaluation of conditions such as hemorrhoids, rectal bleeding, rectal polyps, and inflammation. By examining the rectum, doctors can gather important information about a patient's gastrointestinal health and determine the appropriate course of treatment.

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  • 43. 

    Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria?

    • Sporozoa

    • Chlamydia

    • Rickettsiae

    • Mysoplasma

    Correct Answer
    A. Sporozoa
    Explanation
    Sporozoa is the correct answer because it is a classification of organisms that includes the parasites responsible for causing malaria. These organisms are single-celled and have complex life cycles that involve both human and mosquito hosts. They are transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes and cause the disease by invading and multiplying within red blood cells.

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  • 44. 

    Which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells?

    • Vitamins A

    • Vitamins K

    • Ascorbic acid

    • B-complex vitamins

    Correct Answer
    A. B-complex vitamins
    Explanation
    B-complex vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells. This group of vitamins includes vitamin B12, folate, and other B vitamins. Vitamin B12 is essential for the synthesis of DNA, which is important for the production of red blood cells. Folate helps in the formation of red blood cells and prevents certain types of anemia. Other B vitamins, such as vitamin B6 and riboflavin, also play a role in the production and maturation of red blood cells. Therefore, B-complex vitamins are necessary for the proper functioning and production of red blood cells.

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  • 45. 

    A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age

    • 12 months

    • 18 months

    • 24 months

    • 30 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 months
    Explanation
    A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age 24 months because by this age, most children have gone through a significant growth spurt and have developed enough to reach this weight milestone. At 24 months, toddlers have been exposed to a variety of foods and have developed their eating skills, which contributes to their weight gain. Additionally, their physical activity levels have increased, helping them to build muscle and gain weight. Therefore, by the age of 24 months, it is expected for a toddler to weigh four times their birth weight.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

    • Protect against disease at the cellular level

    • The body's only defense against infection

    • Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body

    • Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect against disease at the cellular level
    Explanation
    Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are responsible for protecting the body against diseases at the cellular level. They play a crucial role in the immune system by identifying and destroying foreign substances, such as bacteria and viruses, that may cause harm to the body. Leukocytes are involved in various immune responses, including inflammation and antibody production, to ensure the body's defense against infection and disease.

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  • 47. 

    In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's

    • Temperature

    • Complaint of a headache

    • History of cardiac arrhythmias

    • Physical deformity of the left leg

    Correct Answer
    A. Complaint of a headache
    Explanation
    In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's complaint of a headache. This is because subjective information refers to the symptoms or concerns expressed by the patient themselves. Headache is a common symptom that can provide valuable insights into the patient's condition and help healthcare professionals in making an accurate diagnosis and determining the appropriate course of treatment.

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  • 48. 

    If you see a clear fluid running out of the ears, you should

    • Immediately place the patient in an upright position

    • Collect a sample for testing at the hospital

    • Pack the ears and nose with sterile gauze

    • Not block the fluid from drainage

    Correct Answer
    A. Not block the fluid from drainage
    Explanation
    When a clear fluid is running out of the ears, it could indicate a condition called cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, which is a serious medical concern. Blocking the fluid from draining can lead to increased pressure in the skull, potentially causing further complications. It is important not to block the fluid from drainage and seek immediate medical attention to determine the cause of the leakage and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • 49. 

    Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organsims?

    • Medical sepsis

    • Medical asepsis

    • Surgical sepsis

    • Surgical asepsis

    Correct Answer
    A. Surgical asepsis
    Explanation
    Surgical asepsis refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms. This term specifically relates to procedures performed in a surgical setting, where it is crucial to maintain a sterile environment to prevent infections. Surgical asepsis involves techniques such as hand hygiene, wearing sterile gloves and gowns, and using sterile instruments and supplies to minimize the risk of introducing harmful micro-organisms into the surgical site.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 17, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Lowtron

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