In-garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (Air Force) Quiz 5 Level, Vol 3
5 level, vol 3
- 1.
Resources in Part II of the In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP) are
- A.
Identified
- B.
Distributed
- C.
Allocated
- D.
Stockpiled
Correct Answer
C. AllocatedExplanation
The correct answer is "allocated". In Part II of the In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP), resources are assigned or distributed to specific areas or tasks. This ensures that the necessary resources are appropriately assigned and available for use when needed. "Allocated" is the most appropriate term to describe this process of assigning or distributing resources.Rate this question:
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- 2.
How often is the In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP) reviewed
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Bi-monthly
- C.
Annually
- D.
Bi-annually
Correct Answer
C. AnnuallyExplanation
The In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP) is reviewed on an annual basis. This means that it is evaluated, updated, and adjusted once a year. This periodic review ensures that the plan remains relevant and effective in supporting the needs of the expeditionary site. By conducting an annual review, any changes or developments can be taken into account and necessary adjustments can be made to the plan to ensure its continued success.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) 1, the Services force is composed of active duty, Air Force (AF) Reserve
- A.
Officers and enlisted Airmen
- B.
And Air National Guard (ANG) officers, noncommissioned officers (NCO), and Airmen
- C.
And ANG officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians
- D.
And Air National Guard officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians in functional areas
Correct Answer
D. And Air National Guard officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians in functional areasExplanation
The correct answer is "and Air National Guard officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians in functional areas" because it includes all the mentioned components (officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians) from the Air National Guard and specifies that they are in functional areas. This means that they are assigned to specific roles and responsibilities within the Services force during the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) 1.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What is Services’ highest priority during wartime combat support
- A.
Strategic offensive and defensive missions
- B.
Humanitarian operations throughout the continental United States (CONUS) and all overseas theaters of operation
- C.
Mobilization and deployment of military personnel on prime readiness in base services (RIBS) teams for wartime use in the overseas theater(s) of operation
- D.
Maintaining CONUS based sustaining force capable of carrying out the wartime support requirements, other than strategic mission support
Correct Answer
A. Strategic offensive and defensive missionsExplanation
During wartime combat support, Services' highest priority is to carry out strategic offensive and defensive missions. This means that their main focus is on supporting military operations that involve attacking enemy targets and defending against enemy attacks. This could include tasks such as providing logistical support, transportation, communication, and other services that are necessary for successful offensive and defensive operations.Rate this question:
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- 5.
In a wartime environment, levels of service will increase commensurate with quality of life programs, where possible, after
- A.
M+15
- B.
M+30
- C.
M+45
- D.
M+60
Correct Answer
B. M+30Explanation
In a wartime environment, it is expected that levels of service will increase as time progresses. The answer M+30 suggests that after 30 minutes, there will be an increase in the quality of life programs. This implies that there will be an improvement in the services provided to enhance the well-being and comfort of individuals in the wartime environment.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which document contains time-phased force data, non-unit-related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the operation plan (OPLAN)?
- A.
Unit line number (ULN)
- B.
Force Requirement Number (FRN)
- C.
Time-Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD)
- D.
Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)
Correct Answer
C. Time-pHased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD)Explanation
The document that contains time-phased force data, non-unit-related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the operation plan (OPLAN) is the Time-Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD). This document provides a detailed schedule of the forces, equipment, and supplies needed for the operation, including the timing and sequence of their deployment. It also includes information on transportation requirements and logistical support. The TPFDD is an essential tool for planning and executing military operations and ensuring that the right resources are in the right place at the right time.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A force requirement may require more than one time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) entry due to
- A.
Split sourcing
- B.
Multiple pallets
- C.
Multiple delivery dates
- D.
The need for more than one aircraft
Correct Answer
A. Split sourcingExplanation
The correct answer is split sourcing. Split sourcing refers to the practice of acquiring resources or supplies from multiple sources instead of relying on a single source. In the context of a force requirement, split sourcing may be necessary when the required resources cannot be obtained from a single location or supplier. This could be due to factors such as limited availability, logistical constraints, or the need for specialized expertise. By splitting the sourcing of the required resources, multiple time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) entries may be needed to account for the different sources and ensure timely delivery.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What does the deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) dictate to units
- A.
Tasking
- B.
Manning requirements
- C.
Number of enlisted to deploy
- D.
Number of officers to deploy
Correct Answer
A. TaskingExplanation
The deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) dictates the tasking to units. This means that it outlines the specific tasks and responsibilities that each unit is required to fulfill during a deployment. It provides guidance on what needs to be done and how it should be done, ensuring that all units are clear on their roles and responsibilities. The DRMD helps to ensure that the deployment is organized and efficient, with each unit knowing what is expected of them.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) defines how a unit is structured in regards to what
- A.
Rank and position
- B.
Rank and time in grade
- C.
Position and time-in-grade
- D.
Position and time-in-service
Correct Answer
A. Rank and positionExplanation
The correct answer is Rank and position. The deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) outlines the structure of a unit based on the ranks and positions of its personnel. This document specifies the hierarchy and roles within the unit, ensuring that the right individuals are assigned to appropriate positions based on their rank.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who provides direction to the Services Control Center (SVCC)
- A.
Readiness officer in charge (OIC) or noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)
- B.
Force support commander
- C.
Group commander
- D.
Base commander
Correct Answer
B. Force support commanderExplanation
The Force support commander is responsible for providing direction to the Services Control Center (SVCC). They oversee and coordinate the support services provided to personnel on the base, including dining facilities, lodging, fitness centers, and recreational activities. As the commander in charge of force support operations, they have the authority to guide and direct the SVCC in their day-to-day activities and ensure that the services provided meet the needs of the base population.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What percent of the wartime feeding population is used to determine Services’ support capability
- A.
100
- B.
90
- C.
80
- D.
75
Correct Answer
B. 90Explanation
The correct answer is 90 because it implies that 90% of the wartime feeding population is used to determine Services' support capability. This suggests that a significant portion of the population's needs are being taken into account when assessing the capability of the Services to provide support during wartime.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Who does the unit deployment manager (UDM) provide quarterly training status updates to
- A.
Installation Deployment Officer
- B.
Superintendent
- C.
Force Support Squadron (FSS) commander
- D.
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Center
Correct Answer
C. Force Support Squadron (FSS) commanderExplanation
The Force Support Squadron (FSS) commander is responsible for providing quarterly training status updates to the unit deployment manager (UDM). The FSS commander oversees the force support squadron, which includes various functions such as personnel, manpower, education, and training. As part of their role, they are responsible for tracking and maintaining the training status of personnel within the unit and providing updates to the UDM. This ensures that the UDM has the necessary information to effectively plan and execute unit deployments.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which type of unit type code (UTC) provides nonappropriated fund (NAF) management for a population of 1,100
- A.
RFSRB
- B.
RFSRL
- C.
RFL14
- D.
RFL05
Correct Answer
B. RFSRLExplanation
The correct answer is RFSRL. This unit type code (UTC) provides nonappropriated fund (NAF) management for a population of 1,100.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which force module sets are being phased out
- A.
Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) and Harvest Eagle
- B.
BEAR and Harvest Falcon
- C.
Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon
- D.
Those that are being replaced with Playbook Options
Correct Answer
C. Harvest Eagle and Harvest FalconExplanation
The correct answer is Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon. These force module sets are being phased out, meaning they are being gradually discontinued or replaced with other options. The other options mentioned, BEAR and Harvest Falcon, are not being phased out according to the given information. Additionally, the statement "Those that are being replaced with Playbook Options" does not specify any specific force module sets, so it cannot be determined if it is true or not based on the given information.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which force module contains functional management teams that plan force beddown and mission expansion
- A.
Open the Base
- B.
Operate the Base
- C.
Establish the Base
- D.
Command and control (C2)
Correct Answer
D. Command and control (C2)Explanation
The correct answer is Command and control (C2). Command and control (C2) is the force module that contains functional management teams that plan force beddown and mission expansion. C2 is responsible for coordinating and directing military operations, including the establishment and operation of bases. It involves the management of resources, personnel, and information to ensure effective decision-making and execution of missions. C2 teams play a crucial role in planning and organizing the deployment of forces to support operational objectives.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which force module (FM) includes unit type codes (UTC) with resources capable of bedding down forces for initial operational capability
- A.
Open the Base
- B.
Operate the Base
- C.
Establish the Base
- D.
Command and control (C2)
Correct Answer
C. Establish the BaseExplanation
The force module (FM) that includes unit type codes (UTC) with resources capable of bedding down forces for initial operational capability is the "Establish the Base" force module. This module is responsible for setting up and preparing a base for operations, including providing the necessary facilities and resources for forces to be stationed and operate effectively.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which force module is only deployed to locations where sustainment operations are expected to continue for more than 45 days
- A.
Open the Base
- B.
Operate the Base
- C.
Establish the Base.
- D.
Command and control (C2)
Correct Answer
B. Operate the BaseExplanation
The force module that is only deployed to locations where sustainment operations are expected to continue for more than 45 days is "Operate the Base." This force module is responsible for managing and maintaining the base operations, including logistics, infrastructure, and support services, for an extended period of time. It ensures that the base can effectively support ongoing operations and sustain the needs of personnel and equipment for an extended duration.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Who must complete home station and readiness training (HSRT)
- A.
Subject-to-deploy personnel
- B.
Identified-to-deploy personnel
- C.
All Services military personnel
- D.
Only individuals that have completed Services Combat Training (SCT)
Correct Answer
C. All Services military personnelExplanation
All Services military personnel must complete home station and readiness training (HSRT). This includes personnel from all branches of the military. It is a requirement for all military personnel to undergo this training in order to ensure their readiness and preparedness for deployment. The training covers various aspects such as physical fitness, weapons proficiency, and tactical skills, among others. By completing HSRT, military personnel are better equipped to handle the challenges and demands of their roles and responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How many tiers make up home station and readiness training
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
Home station and readiness training consists of two tiers.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the minimum percentage of personnel that needs home station and readiness training (HSRT) on the operation of the 1 1/2 and 2 1/2 ton truck and 10K forklift
- A.
20
- B.
25
- C.
30
- D.
35
Correct Answer
C. 30 -
- 21.
How many days prior to deploying are deployable unit type codes (UTC) required to attend Force Support Combat Training (FSCT)
- A.
90
- B.
120
- C.
90-120
- D.
90-180
Correct Answer
D. 90-180Explanation
Deployable unit type codes (UTC) are required to attend Force Support Combat Training (FSCT) 90 to 180 days prior to deploying. This means that the UTCs must complete the training between 90 and 180 days before their deployment.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What plays a key role in ensuring all personnel identified for deployment have their affairs in order at all times
- A.
Mobility folders
- B.
Base legal office
- C.
Squadron readiness office
- D.
Installation deployment plan
Correct Answer
A. Mobility foldersExplanation
Mobility folders play a key role in ensuring all personnel identified for deployment have their affairs in order at all times. These folders contain important documents and information related to the individual's deployment, such as personal identification, medical records, financial information, and family care plans. By keeping these folders up to date and organized, the personnel can ensure that they are prepared for deployment and that their affairs are in order. The mobility folders are typically managed by the unit's deployment office or personnel office.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Who is required to develop a written family care plan and document it on an AF Form 357, Family Care Certification
- A.
All Air Force members
- B.
Members with civilian spouses
- C.
All Air Force members with families
- D.
Single parents, dual military couples with dependents, and members with civilian spouses who have unique situations
Correct Answer
D. Single parents, dual military couples with dependents, and members with civilian spouses who have unique situationsExplanation
The correct answer is single parents, dual military couples with dependents, and members with civilian spouses who have unique situations. This is because these individuals have additional responsibilities and circumstances that may require a written family care plan to ensure the well-being and care of their dependents in their absence. Other Air Force members and members with civilian spouses without unique situations may not have the same level of need for a written family care plan.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What information does the Air Force use to assess readiness, determine budgetary allocations, and manage how actions impact unit level readiness
- A.
Unit type codes (UTC)
- B.
Personal accounting symbol (PAS)
- C.
Status of resources and training system (SORTS)
- D.
Designed operational capability (DOC) statement
Correct Answer
C. Status of resources and training system (SORTS)Explanation
The Air Force uses the Status of resources and training system (SORTS) to assess readiness, determine budgetary allocations, and manage how actions impact unit level readiness. SORTS provides information on the status of resources and training for each unit, allowing the Air Force to evaluate their readiness levels and make informed decisions regarding funding and resource allocation. It helps in tracking the availability of personnel, equipment, and training, and enables the Air Force to effectively manage and prioritize their actions to maintain and improve unit readiness.Rate this question:
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- 25.
To whom does the Warfighting Requirements Review (WFRR) working group make recommendations on policy, training, and resource allocation issues
- A.
Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM)
- B.
Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT)
- C.
Air Force Services Agency (AFSVA)
- D.
United States Air Force Academy (USAFA)
Correct Answer
A. Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM)Explanation
The Warfighting Requirements Review (WFRR) working group makes recommendations on policy, training, and resource allocation issues to the Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM).Rate this question:
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- 26.
Who provides the overall direction for Services readiness, training, education, and manpower programs through an integrated approach to sustain Air Force core competencies
- A.
Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM)
- B.
Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT)
- C.
Air Force Services Agency (AFSVA)
- D.
United States Air Force Academy (USAFA)
Correct Answer
A. Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM)Explanation
The Readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM) provides the overall direction for Services readiness, training, education, and manpower programs. They do this through an integrated approach to sustain Air Force core competencies.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Under what program are eligible personnel provided with professional mortuary services, supplies, and related services during peacetime, contingency, or wartime operations
- A.
Current death
- B.
Mortuary affairs
- C.
Concurrent return
- D.
Temporary interment
Correct Answer
A. Current deathExplanation
The correct answer is "Current death". This program provides eligible personnel with professional mortuary services, supplies, and related services during peacetime, contingency, or wartime operations. This includes handling and processing deceased personnel, ensuring proper identification, and coordinating transportation and final disposition arrangements.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict
- A.
Current death
- B.
Mortuary affairs
- C.
Concurrent return
- D.
Temporary interment
Correct Answer
C. Concurrent returnExplanation
During periods of conflict, the preferred method of handling remains is concurrent return. This means that the bodies of deceased individuals are returned to their home country or place of origin as quickly as possible. This allows for proper identification, respectful handling, and burial or cremation according to the deceased's wishes or cultural practices. Concurrent return ensures that the remains are treated with dignity and allows for grieving families to have closure.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Within how many hours of a death notification must a family liaison officer (FLO) be assigned
- A.
72
- B.
24
- C.
36
- D.
48
Correct Answer
B. 24Explanation
A family liaison officer (FLO) must be assigned within 24 hours of a death notification. This is important to provide immediate support and assistance to the family during a difficult time. Assigning a FLO promptly allows them to establish a relationship with the family, gather necessary information, and provide guidance on the next steps and available resources. This ensures that the family receives the necessary support and information they need during the initial stages of the grieving process.Rate this question:
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- 30.
How often will the family liaison officer (FLO) contact the family
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Monthly
- D.
Quarterly
Correct Answer
A. DailyExplanation
The family liaison officer (FLO) will contact the family on a daily basis. This means that the FLO will make regular and consistent contact with the family members each day. This level of frequency ensures that the FLO can provide ongoing support, updates, and assistance to the family as needed. Daily contact allows for open communication and the opportunity to address any concerns or questions that may arise in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Who does the Air Force Survivor Assistance Program (AFSAP) marshal available resources to support
- A.
Family
- B.
Deceased
- C.
Commander
- D.
Family Liaison Officer (FLO)
Correct Answer
A. FamilyExplanation
The Air Force Survivor Assistance Program (AFSAP) marshals available resources to support the family.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What type of flag case is given to the family of the deceased member
- A.
Hardwood
- B.
Plastic
- C.
Metal
- D.
None
Correct Answer
A. HardwoodExplanation
The correct answer is hardwood because it is the type of flag case that is given to the family of the deceased member. Hardwood is a durable and high-quality material that is often used for flag cases as it provides a dignified and respectful way to display and protect the flag. Plastic and metal may also be used for flag cases, but hardwood is typically preferred for its aesthetic appeal and durability. None is not the correct answer as a flag case is usually given to the family of the deceased member.Rate this question:
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- 33.
How many copies of the death certificate are given to the person authorized direct disposition (PADD)
- A.
1
- B.
5
- C.
10
- D.
15
Correct Answer
C. 10Explanation
Ten copies of the death certificate are given to the person authorized for direct disposition (PADD). This is likely because multiple copies may be needed for various purposes such as notifying government agencies, banks, insurance companies, and other relevant parties. Having multiple copies ensures that the authorized person can efficiently handle the necessary paperwork and legal requirements following the death.Rate this question:
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- 34.
How many escorts accompany the remains from the shipping facility to the final destination when those two places are not located in the same place
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
A. OneExplanation
When the shipping facility and the final destination are not located in the same place, only one escort is needed to accompany the remains. This is because the escort's role is to ensure the safe transportation and delivery of the remains, regardless of the distance or location. Having multiple escorts may not be necessary in this scenario, as one escort can effectively carry out the task of accompanying the remains from the shipping facility to the final destination.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which is not an authorized way to transport remains in the continental United States (CONUS)
- A.
Commercial aircraft
- B.
Government aircraft
- C.
Hearse or service car
- D.
Defense Attaché Office (DAO)
Correct Answer
D. Defense Attaché Office (DAO)Explanation
The Defense Attaché Office (DAO) is not an authorized way to transport remains in the continental United States (CONUS). The DAO is responsible for military and defense-related matters in foreign countries, and it does not have the authority or capability to transport remains within the United States. Authorized ways to transport remains in CONUS include commercial aircraft, government aircraft, and a hearse or service car.Rate this question:
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- 36.
When notified of an active duty death, who opens a new case file and documents pertinent information
- A.
Mortuary officer
- B.
Family liaison officer
- C.
Base commander of the deceased
- D.
Person authorized direct disposition
Correct Answer
A. Mortuary officerExplanation
The mortuary officer is responsible for opening a new case file and documenting pertinent information when notified of an active duty death. They are specifically trained in handling the deceased and their remains, ensuring proper procedures and protocols are followed. This includes coordinating with the family, arranging for transportation, and preparing the body for burial or cremation. The mortuary officer plays a crucial role in ensuring that all necessary information is documented and that the deceased is handled with dignity and respect.Rate this question:
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- 37.
How long are mortuary case files kept
- A.
Three years
- B.
Five years
- C.
Ten years
- D.
Permanently
Correct Answer
A. Three yearsExplanation
Mortuary case files are kept for three years. This duration is likely determined based on legal requirements or standard practices in the field. After three years, it is possible that the files are no longer considered necessary for reference or legal purposes, hence they may be discarded or archived.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Taps can be played at a military funeral in all of the following ways except by a
- A.
Professional bugler
- B.
High-quality recorded version the family selects
- C.
Ceremonial bugle if the military service permits
- D.
Ceremonial bugle if the family grants permission
Correct Answer
C. Ceremonial bugle if the military service permitsExplanation
The correct answer is "ceremonial bugle if the military service permits." This means that taps can be played at a military funeral in all of the mentioned ways, except when the military service does not allow the use of a ceremonial bugle.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Who may waive the requirement to provide honors, if necessary, due to requirements of war, contingency operations, or other military requirements
- A.
Secretary of Defense
- B.
Services commander
- C.
Installation commander
- D.
Major Command (MAJCOM) commander
Correct Answer
A. Secretary of DefenseExplanation
The Secretary of Defense may waive the requirement to provide honors, if necessary, due to requirements of war, contingency operations, or other military requirements. This is because the Secretary of Defense is the highest-ranking official in the Department of Defense and has the authority to make decisions and provide waivers in matters related to military operations and requirements.Rate this question:
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- 40.
How often does the Air Force, along with the other Services, submit funeral honors data for inclusion in an annual report to Congress
- A.
Quarterly
- B.
Semi-annually
- C.
Each fiscal year
- D.
Each calendar year
Correct Answer
D. Each calendar yearExplanation
The Air Force, along with the other Services, submits funeral honors data for inclusion in an annual report to Congress each calendar year. This means that the data is collected and compiled once every year, specifically following the calendar year. It is not done quarterly or semi-annually, nor is it based on the fiscal year.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which honor guard member selects the flight color guard, firing party, pallbearer elements, and flag-folding teams
- A.
Officer in charge
- B.
Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)
- C.
Flight NCOIC
- D.
Flight commander
Correct Answer
C. Flight NCOICExplanation
The Flight NCOIC is responsible for selecting the flight color guard, firing party, pallbearer elements, and flag-folding teams. This individual is in charge of overseeing the operations and personnel within the flight, and as such, has the authority to choose the members for these specific duties. The Flight NCOIC is a noncommissioned officer who plays a crucial role in maintaining the discipline and organization within the flight.Rate this question:
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- 42.
How many Airmen, conducting military honors, make up the firing party
- A.
3
- B.
7
- C.
8
- D.
14
Correct Answer
C. 8Explanation
Eight Airmen make up the firing party when conducting military honors.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Who is required to declare death at the casualty collection point (CCP)
- A.
The officer in charge (OIC)
- B.
The noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)
- C.
Survival recovery center (SRC)
- D.
Competent medical authority
Correct Answer
D. Competent medical authorityExplanation
The competent medical authority is required to declare death at the casualty collection point (CCP). This individual has the necessary medical knowledge and expertise to accurately determine if someone is deceased. They are responsible for making this declaration based on their assessment of the individual's vital signs and overall condition. The officer in charge (OIC), noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), and survival recovery center (SRC) may play important roles in managing the CCP, but it is the competent medical authority who has the final say in declaring death.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When would you wash remains
- A.
Never
- B.
Always
- C.
When an aircraft is not leaving within one hour
- D.
When an aircraft is not leaving within two hours
Correct Answer
A. NeverExplanation
The correct answer is "Never" because the question is asking when one would wash remains. However, remains typically refer to the physical remains of a deceased person, and it is not appropriate or necessary to wash them. Therefore, the correct answer is that remains should never be washed.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The Services Control Center provides higher headquarters with a situation report (SITREP) of the mortuary affairs activity at the end of each
- A.
Hour
- B.
Day
- C.
Week
- D.
Month
Correct Answer
B. DayExplanation
The Services Control Center provides a situation report (SITREP) of the mortuary affairs activity at the end of each day. This means that at the end of each day, higher headquarters receive a report from the Services Control Center regarding the mortuary affairs activity. This allows for regular updates and information on the status and progress of the mortuary affairs activity.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Who determines what equipment is available on station that is adequate to the task, given the types of soil and local conditions for the temporary interment site
- A.
Installation commander
- B.
Services commander
- C.
Security forces
- D.
Civil engineers
Correct Answer
D. Civil engineersExplanation
Civil engineers are responsible for determining what equipment is available on a station that is adequate for the task, taking into consideration factors such as the types of soil and local conditions for the temporary interment site. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the requirements and select the appropriate equipment needed for the job. The installation commander, services commander, and security forces may have their own roles and responsibilities, but when it comes to determining the equipment, it is the civil engineers who are in charge.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Who manages search and recovery (S&R) operations and tasks members of other organizations as augmentees
- A.
Communications squadron
- B.
Security forces squadron
- C.
Civil engineers squadron
- D.
Services personnel
Correct Answer
D. Services personnelExplanation
Services personnel manage search and recovery (S&R) operations and task members of other organizations as augmentees. These personnel are responsible for coordinating and overseeing the S&R efforts, ensuring that all necessary resources and support are provided. They work closely with members of other organizations, such as the communications squadron, security forces squadron, and civil engineers squadron, to ensure effective collaboration and efficient execution of S&R tasks.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What personnel determines if/when the area is safe to conduct search and recovery (S&R) operations during non-hostile conditions
- A.
Explosive ordnance disposal (EOD).
- B.
Nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC).
- C.
Temporary interment site members
- D.
Security forces
Correct Answer
D. Security forcesExplanation
Security forces are responsible for determining if and when an area is safe to conduct search and recovery (S&R) operations during non-hostile conditions. They have the expertise and training to assess the security situation and make informed decisions about the safety of conducting S&R operations. This includes evaluating potential threats, assessing the stability of the area, and ensuring that necessary precautions are in place to protect personnel involved in the operations.Rate this question:
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- 49.
At what temperature must remains be refrigerated
- A.
32-34° Fahrenheit (F).
- B.
36-38° F.
- C.
38-40° F.
- D.
40-42° F.
Correct Answer
C. 38-40° F.Explanation
Remains must be refrigerated at a temperature of 38-40° Fahrenheit (F). This temperature range is ideal for slowing down the growth of bacteria and preventing spoilage of the remains. It helps to maintain the quality and safety of the remains for a longer period of time.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What agency should be notified when a fatality mishap occurs for a Fatality Search and Recovery Team determination
- A.
Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)
- B.
HQ USAF Director of Services (HQ USAF/ILV)
- C.
Air Force Services Agency, Mortuary Affairs (AFSVA/SVOM)
- D.
AFSVA Services Operations (AFSVA/SVOH)
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Services Agency, Mortuary Affairs (AFSVA/SVOM)Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Services Agency, Mortuary Affairs (AFSVA/SVOM). This agency should be notified when a fatality mishap occurs for a Fatality Search and Recovery Team determination. They are responsible for handling mortuary affairs within the Air Force and would be the appropriate agency to notify in the event of a fatality.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 19, 2012Quiz Created by
AFTK12