Contract Management Quiz Questions And Answers
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- 1.
Who is responsible for the accuracy and the submission of individual contract action reports (CAR)?
- A.
Contract specialist.
- B.
Contracting officer (CO).
- C.
Plans and programs flight chief.
- D.
Head of the contracting activity (HCA).
Correct Answer
B. Contracting officer (CO).Explanation
The contracting officer (CO) is responsible for the accuracy and submission of individual contract action reports (CAR). As the individual with the authority to enter into contracts on behalf of the government, the CO is responsible for ensuring that all contract actions are accurately documented and reported. This includes maintaining the accuracy of the CAR and submitting it in a timely manner. The CO plays a crucial role in ensuring transparency and accountability in the contract management process.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which type of reporting is used for multiple contract actions accomplished away from the contracting office during contingencies, peacekeeping operations, or other remote locations?
- A.
Express reporting.
- B.
Specialized reporting.
- C.
Multiple contract action reporting.
- D.
Individual contract action reporting.
Correct Answer
A. Express reporting.Explanation
Express reporting is the correct answer because it is used for multiple contract actions that are accomplished away from the contracting office during contingencies, peacekeeping operations, or other remote locations. This type of reporting allows for quick and efficient communication of contract actions in these situations, ensuring that the necessary information is relayed in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Select the contract action that is not reported to the Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG).
- A.
Modification.
- B.
Blanket purchase agreements (BPA).
- C.
Purchases made at AbilityOne service stores.
- D.
Government purchase card (GPC) purchases exceeding $25,000.
Correct Answer
C. Purchases made at AbilityOne service stores.Explanation
Purchases made at AbilityOne service stores are not reported to the Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG). AbilityOne is a federal program that provides employment opportunities for individuals with disabilities through government contracts. These purchases are exempt from reporting requirements because they are made through a specific program outside of the traditional procurement process.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Responsibility for performing all inspections and tests as required by the contract, unless otherwise stated, rests with the
- A.
Customer.
- B.
Contractor.
- C.
Base supply
- D.
Contracting officer representative (COR).
Correct Answer
B. Contractor.Explanation
The correct answer is contractor. The responsibility for performing all inspections and tests as required by the contract lies with the contractor. This means that it is the contractor's duty to ensure that all necessary inspections and tests are carried out according to the terms of the contract. The customer, base supply, and contracting officer representative (COR) do not have this specific responsibility as stated in the question.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The government acceptance of noncomplex commercial items is prescribed in Federal Acquisition Regulation clause
- A.
52.212–1, Instructions to Offerors—Commercial Items.
- B.
52.212–2, Evaluation—Commercial Items.
- C.
52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items.
- D.
52.212–5, Contract Terms and Conditions Required to Implement Statutes or Executive Orders—Commercial Items.
Correct Answer
C. 52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items.Explanation
The correct answer is 52.212-4, Contract Terms and Conditions-Commercial Items. This Federal Acquisition Regulation clause specifically addresses the contract terms and conditions for commercial items. It outlines the standard terms and conditions that apply to contracts for the acquisition of commercial items, including provisions related to inspection, acceptance, warranties, and payment. This clause is relevant to the government's acceptance of noncomplex commercial items, as it provides the necessary contractual framework for such acquisitions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Ordinarily, which option is given to a contractor when a notice of rejection for nonconformance is not issued in a timely manner and government acceptance is implied as a matter of law?
- A.
Subtract cost of nonconforming supplies from invoice.
- B.
Request government return of nonconforming supplies to vendor.
- C.
Correct or replace any nonconforming supplies at a discount to the government.
- D.
Correct or replace any nonconforming supplies when they can be provided within the required delivery date.
Correct Answer
D. Correct or replace any nonconforming supplies when they can be provided within the required delivery date.Explanation
When a notice of rejection for nonconformance is not issued in a timely manner and government acceptance is implied as a matter of law, the contractor is given the option to correct or replace any nonconforming supplies when they can be provided within the required delivery date. This means that the contractor has the responsibility to rectify any issues with the supplies and ensure that they meet the required standards before delivering them to the government. This option allows the contractor to fulfill their contractual obligations and ensure that the government receives conforming supplies within the specified timeframe.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Identify the Web-based portal system that provides for electronic invoicing, receipt, and acceptance.
- A.
MyInvoice.
- B.
Electronic Vendor Pay.
- C.
Wide Area Work Flow (WAWF).
- D.
Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG).
Correct Answer
C. Wide Area Work Flow (WAWF).Explanation
Wide Area Work Flow (WAWF) is the correct answer because it is a web-based portal system that allows for electronic invoicing, receipt, and acceptance. It is commonly used by the U.S. Department of Defense and other federal agencies to streamline the procurement process and facilitate electronic transactions between vendors and government entities. MyInvoice, Electronic Vendor Pay, and Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG) are not specifically designed for electronic invoicing, receipt, and acceptance, making them incorrect answers.Rate this question:
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- 8.
To adhere to prompt payment guidelines, government payment is due within how many days after government acceptance of supplies delivered or services performed?
- A.
10.
- B.
20.
- C.
30.
- D.
40.
Correct Answer
C. 30.Explanation
To adhere to prompt payment guidelines, government payment is due within 30 days after government acceptance of supplies delivered or services performed. This means that once the government has accepted the supplies or services, they have 30 days to make the payment.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Primary responsibility for collecting government contract debts resides with the
- A.
Payment office.
- B.
Contracting officer (CO).
- C.
Defense Accounting Agency.
- D.
Defense Contract Audit Agency (DCAA).
Correct Answer
A. Payment office.Explanation
The primary responsibility for collecting government contract debts resides with the payment office. This is because the payment office is responsible for processing payments and managing the financial transactions related to government contracts. They are in charge of ensuring that contractors are paid on time and accurately, and they also have the authority to collect any outstanding debts owed by contractors. The contracting officer (CO) is responsible for awarding and administering contracts, but their role does not typically include debt collection. The Defense Accounting Agency and Defense Contract Audit Agency may have some involvement in the process, but the payment office has the primary responsibility.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The base contracting office prepares an evaluation of contractor performance for
- A.
All contracts.
- B.
All service contracts.
- C.
Contracts that exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
- D.
Construction contracts exceeding the micro-purchase threshold.
Correct Answer
C. Contracts that exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).Explanation
The base contracting office prepares an evaluation of contractor performance for contracts that exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT). This means that only contracts that are above a certain dollar amount will be evaluated for contractor performance. This evaluation helps to assess the contractor's ability to meet the requirements of the contract and deliver satisfactory results. By focusing on contracts that exceed the SAT, the base contracting office can prioritize their resources and ensure that evaluations are conducted for the most significant contracts.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Subpart 4.8 establishes procedures for maintaining contract files to ensure uniformity from one activity to another. This is important to
- A.
Resolve all conflicts between the government and the contractor.
- B.
Ensure the government will not be found at fault in the case of litigation.
- C.
Provide protection for the contracting officer (CO) by holding the government responsible for contracting actions.
- D.
Ensure all documents regarding contract actions are kept in conformance with agency regulations for file location and maintenance.
Correct Answer
D. Ensure all documents regarding contract actions are kept in conformance with agency regulations for file location and maintenance.Explanation
The correct answer is to ensure all documents regarding contract actions are kept in conformance with agency regulations for file location and maintenance. This is important because maintaining contract files in a uniform manner ensures consistency and standardization across different activities. It allows for easy access and retrieval of documents, ensures compliance with agency regulations, and facilitates effective contract management and oversight.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which action must be taken prior to serving a contractor with a preliminary notice of the government’s intent to exercise an option?
- A.
Validate the need.
- B.
Ensure funds are available.
- C.
Make a determination of fair price and reasonableness.
- D.
Synopsize the government’s intent to exercise the option.
Correct Answer
A. Validate the need.Explanation
Before serving a contractor with a preliminary notice of the government's intent to exercise an option, it is necessary to validate the need. This means confirming that there is a legitimate requirement for the option to be exercised. This step ensures that the government is not unnecessarily committing to additional work or expenses. It helps to assess whether the option aligns with the project's objectives and requirements. By validating the need, the government can make informed decisions and avoid any potential wastage of resources.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Unless otherwise specified, the government typically must provide how many days’ notice of its intent to exercise an option period prior to contract expiration?
- A.
7.
- B.
30.
- C.
45.
- D.
60.
Correct Answer
D. 60.Explanation
The government typically must provide 60 days' notice of its intent to exercise an option period prior to contract expiration. This allows both parties to have sufficient time to review and negotiate any changes or modifications to the contract before it expires. Providing a longer notice period ensures that there is ample time for discussions and avoids any last-minute rush or confusion.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which is not required to be accomplished by the contracting officer (CO) to exercise an option?
- A.
Ensure funds are available.
- B.
Obtain representations and certifications.
- C.
Ensure the option fulfills an existing government need.
- D.
Check the System for Award Management (SAM) exclusions.
Correct Answer
B. Obtain representations and certifications.Explanation
To exercise an option, the contracting officer (CO) needs to ensure that funds are available, ensure the option fulfills an existing government need, and check the System for Award Management (SAM) exclusions. However, obtaining representations and certifications is not required to exercise an option. Representations and certifications are typically obtained during the initial contract award process, and they do not need to be re-obtained when exercising an option.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which option does the government have if it fails to provide the necessary notifications required by the contract and still desires to exercise an option period?
- A.
Exercise the government’s unilateral right to the option.
- B.
Terminate the contract and resolicit as a new requirement.
- C.
Obtain contractor concurrence and execute the option bilaterally.
- D.
Issue a change order directing the contractor to continue performance under the current contract.
Correct Answer
C. Obtain contractor concurrence and execute the option bilaterally.Explanation
If the government fails to provide the necessary notifications required by the contract and still desires to exercise an option period, it can obtain contractor concurrence and execute the option bilaterally. This means that the government must seek agreement from the contractor and mutually execute the option to continue the contract. This option allows both parties to come to a mutual agreement and proceed with the contract, despite the government's failure to provide the necessary notifications.Rate this question:
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- 16.
If the contractor has yet to deliver or begin performance on an order and the government needs to make a change not affecting cost of the item or delivery, to which type of agreement should the government attempt to have the contractor agree?
- A.
No-cost change to the contract without modification.
- B.
No-cost change to the contract with a bilateral modification.
- C.
Unilateral modification authorizing a restocking charge only.
- D.
No-cost termination and award a new contract that includes the necessary change.
Correct Answer
A. No-cost change to the contract without modification.Explanation
If the government needs to make a change to an order that does not affect the cost of the item or delivery, they should attempt to have the contractor agree to a no-cost change to the contract without modification. This means that the government can make the change without needing to modify the existing contract or incur any additional costs.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A determination of whether additional contract work is in- or out-of-scope is made by
- A.
Legal counsel.
- B.
The requiring activity.
- C.
The contracting officer (CO).
- D.
The head of the contracting agency (HCA).
Correct Answer
A. Legal counsel.Explanation
The correct answer is legal counsel. When determining whether additional contract work is in- or out-of-scope, legal counsel plays a crucial role. They provide guidance and advice based on their expertise in contract law and regulations. Legal counsel ensures that the decision aligns with legal requirements, contractual obligations, and potential risks. They assess the scope of work, contractual terms, and any relevant laws or regulations to make an informed determination. This helps to maintain compliance and mitigate any legal issues that may arise during the contract process.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Identify the situation of an in-scope change.
- A.
There is a material change between the original contract and the requested change.
- B.
Work is the same or similar in nature to work already identified in the contract.
- C.
New work that circumvents the Competition in Contracting Act.
- D.
A mutual agreement between the contractor and customer.
Correct Answer
B. Work is the same or similar in nature to work already identified in the contract.Explanation
The situation of an in-scope change is when the work requested is the same or similar in nature to work already identified in the contract. This means that the requested change does not introduce any new or different work, but rather aligns with the existing scope of work in the contract. This ensures that the change can be easily integrated into the current project without significant disruptions or additional resources.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A release of claims is required from contractors after an equitable adjustment has been agreed upon to
- A.
Prevent on-going negotiation requests from subcontractors.
- B.
Prevent unauthorized personnel from representing the contractor in negotiations.
- C.
Help contractors understand all legal ramifications of a supplemental agreement.
- D.
Help avoid controversy over supplemental agreements resulting from unilateral modifications.
Correct Answer
D. Help avoid controversy over supplemental agreements resulting from unilateral modifications.Explanation
A release of claims is required from contractors after an equitable adjustment has been agreed upon to help avoid controversy over supplemental agreements resulting from unilateral modifications. This means that by obtaining a release of claims, the contractor ensures that there will be no disputes or disagreements regarding any additional changes or modifications made to the original agreement without the consent of all parties involved. This helps maintain clarity and transparency in the contractual process, preventing any potential conflicts or controversies from arising.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which action may a contractor take if an equitable adjustment agreement could not be reached and no release of claims was signed?
- A.
Nullify the contracting officer’s (CO) final decision under the Disputes clause
- B.
Nullify the CO’s final decision under the Changes clause.
- C.
Dispute the CO’s final decision under the Disputes clause.
- D.
Dispute the CO’s final decision under the Changes clause.
Correct Answer
C. Dispute the CO’s final decision under the Disputes clause.Explanation
If an equitable adjustment agreement could not be reached and no release of claims was signed, a contractor may choose to dispute the contracting officer's (CO) final decision under the Disputes clause. The Disputes clause provides a mechanism for resolving disagreements between the contractor and the government, allowing the contractor to challenge the CO's decision and seek a resolution through the dispute resolution process outlined in the contract.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which modification authority must be cited, if any, when making administrative changes to a contract using the Standard Form (SF) 30?
- A.
52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items.
- B.
52.243–4, Changes.
- C.
52.243–7, Notification of Changes.
- D.
No further authority must be cited.
Correct Answer
D. No further authority must be cited.Explanation
When making administrative changes to a contract using the Standard Form (SF) 30, no further authority needs to be cited. This means that the modifications can be made without referencing any specific regulation or clause. The SF 30 allows for administrative changes to be made without the need for additional authorization. Therefore, the correct answer is that no further authority must be cited.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A termination for convenience of the government
- A.
Is not a final termination action.
- B.
May be upgraded to a termination for default.
- C.
Can be used to protect a contractor’s reputation.
- D.
Is used if the government is uncertain whether a termination for default or convenience is appropriate.
Correct Answer
D. Is used if the government is uncertain whether a termination for default or convenience is appropriate.Explanation
A termination for convenience of the government is used if the government is uncertain whether a termination for default or convenience is appropriate. This means that when the government is unsure about the grounds for termination, they can choose to terminate the contract for convenience instead. This allows them to protect the contractor's reputation and avoid any potential legal disputes that may arise from a termination for default. It provides a flexible option for the government to end the contract without placing blame on the contractor.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How may a termination for convenience of a fixed-price contract be settled?
- A.
Inventory or total-cost basis.
- B.
Inventory or adjusted-cost basis.
- C.
Total-price or total-cost basis.
- D.
Total-price or adjusted-cost basis.
Correct Answer
A. Inventory or total-cost basis.Explanation
A termination for convenience of a fixed-price contract can be settled using either an inventory or total-cost basis. This means that the settlement can be based on the value of the remaining inventory or on the total costs incurred by the contractor. This allows for a fair and reasonable settlement that takes into account the actual costs and inventory involved in the contract.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A total-cost basis settlement may be used for terminations for convenience when pre-approved by the
- A.
Contracting officer (CO).
- B.
Terminating squadron commander.
- C.
Terminating contracting flight chief.
- D.
Terminating contracting officer (TCO).
Correct Answer
D. Terminating contracting officer (TCO).Explanation
A total-cost basis settlement may be used for terminations for convenience when pre-approved by the terminating contracting officer (TCO). This means that the TCO has the authority to approve such settlements. The terminating squadron commander and terminating contracting flight chief do not have the same level of authority as the TCO in approving total-cost basis settlements. Therefore, the correct answer is the terminating contracting officer (TCO).Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which termination consideration is not considered when determining whether to terminate a contract for default?
- A.
Value of contractor assets.
- B.
Specific excuses for the failure.
- C.
Urgency of need for the supplies.
- D.
Ability of the contractor to liquidate guaranteed loans.
Correct Answer
A. Value of contractor assets.Explanation
When determining whether to terminate a contract for default, the value of contractor assets is not considered as a termination consideration. The termination decision is usually based on factors such as specific excuses for the failure, urgency of need for the supplies, and the ability of the contractor to liquidate guaranteed loans. The value of contractor assets is not relevant in this context as it does not directly impact the decision to terminate the contract.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How many days is a contractor given to correct a cure notice warning from the time it is received?
- A.
5.
- B.
10.
- C.
15.
- D.
20.
Correct Answer
B. 10.Explanation
A contractor is given 10 days to correct a cure notice warning from the time it is received. This means that once the contractor receives the notice, they have a period of 10 days to address and rectify the issues or deficiencies mentioned in the notice. It is important for the contractor to take prompt action within this timeframe to avoid further consequences or potential termination of the contract.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A show cause notice ensures the contractor
- A.
Understands their company’s predicament.
- B.
Will not receive a termination for default notice.
- C.
Understands the government’s cause for extending the contract time line.
- D.
Understands the government’s cause for issuing a termination for default within the next 10 days.
Correct Answer
A. Understands their company’s predicament.Explanation
A show cause notice is a formal communication that is issued to a contractor in order to provide them with an opportunity to explain or justify their actions or behavior. By receiving a show cause notice, the contractor is made aware of the problems or challenges faced by their company. This allows them to understand the predicament their company is in and take necessary actions to address the issues.Rate this question:
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- 28.
When is the contractor’s right to proceed further under the contract terminated?
- A.
Upon receipt of the show cause notice.
- B.
After all appeals have been exhausted.
- C.
Upon receipt of the termination notice.
- D.
Once the terminating squadron commander’s decision is finalized.
Correct Answer
C. Upon receipt of the termination notice.Explanation
The contractor's right to proceed further under the contract is terminated upon receipt of the termination notice. This means that once the contractor receives a notice of termination from the relevant authority, they are no longer allowed to continue with any further actions or obligations outlined in the contract. This termination notice serves as the official notification that the contract is being terminated and the contractor's rights and responsibilities are coming to an end.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The contracting officer (CO) should exercise the government’s right to terminate a contract for commercial items only when such a termination
- A.
Can be done at no cost to the government.
- B.
Can be completed within 14 working days.
- C.
Is mutually agreeable among both parties.
- D.
Would be in the best interest of the government.
Correct Answer
D. Would be in the best interest of the government.Explanation
The correct answer is "would be in the best interest of the government." This means that the contracting officer should only terminate a contract for commercial items if it is determined to be the most advantageous decision for the government. This ensures that the government's interests are protected and that any termination is justified and beneficial.Rate this question:
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- 30.
When termination is for the government’s convenience, what does a contractor use to show charges resulting from the termination for which the contractor is entitled to be paid?
- A.
Government furnished payroll and termination forms.
- B.
An affidavit of charges signed by the contractor’s accountant.
- C.
Records from the contractor’s standard record keeping system.
- D.
Paid invoices from suppliers and certified payrolls from subcontractors.
Correct Answer
C. Records from the contractor’s standard record keeping system.Explanation
When termination is for the government's convenience, the contractor would use records from their standard record keeping system to show charges resulting from the termination for which they are entitled to be paid. These records would provide evidence of the costs incurred by the contractor due to the termination, such as labor, materials, and other expenses. The contractor's standard record keeping system would typically include documentation such as invoices, receipts, and financial statements, which can be used to support their claim for payment.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A contractor is liable to the government for all rights and remedies provided by law if the contract is
- A.
Annulled.
- B.
Cancelled.
- C.
Terminated for cause.
- D.
Terminated for the government’s convenience.
Correct Answer
C. Terminated for cause.Explanation
If a contract is terminated for cause, it means that one party has failed to fulfill their obligations or has breached the terms of the contract. In this scenario, the contractor is held responsible for their actions or inactions, and as a result, they are liable to the government for any legal rights and remedies that are provided by the law. This implies that the contractor may have to compensate the government for any damages or losses incurred due to their termination for cause.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Under the Contract Terms and Conditions–Commercial Items clause, a contractor is required to notify the contracting officer (CO) of an excusable delay
- A.
Within five work days before the scheduled delivery date.
- B.
As soon as a meeting can be held with the functional area.
- C.
After the contractor receives a cure notice for late delivery.
- D.
As soon as possible after commencement of any excusable delay.
Correct Answer
D. As soon as possible after commencement of any excusable delay.Explanation
The correct answer is "as soon as possible after commencement of any excusable delay." This means that the contractor should notify the contracting officer as soon as they become aware of any delay that is considered excusable under the contract terms and conditions. It emphasizes the importance of prompt communication between the contractor and the contracting officer to ensure transparency and proper handling of any delays that may affect the scheduled delivery date.Rate this question:
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- 33.
When a contractor notifies the contracting office of the intent not to accept a unilateral purchase order, the contracting office
- A.
Issues a cure notice to the contractor.
- B.
Proceeds with cancellation of the order.
- C.
Proceeds with termination of the order.
- D.
Issues a letter directing the contractor to continue to perform.
Correct Answer
B. Proceeds with cancellation of the order.Explanation
When a contractor notifies the contracting office of the intent not to accept a unilateral purchase order, the contracting office proceeds with cancellation of the order. This means that the contracting office will terminate the purchase order and not proceed with the transaction. The contractor's decision not to accept the purchase order prompts the cancellation, indicating that the order will not be fulfilled.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which action is taken by the contracting officer (CO) if a contractor does not accept the cancellation of a purchase order or claims that costs were incurred as a result of beginning performance?
- A.
Issues a show cause notice.
- B.
Allows the contractor to continue performance.
- C.
Processes the cancellation as a termination action.
- D.
Takes no action if the government’s requirement is no longer needed.
Correct Answer
C. Processes the cancellation as a termination action.Explanation
If a contractor does not accept the cancellation of a purchase order or claims that costs were incurred as a result of beginning performance, the contracting officer (CO) will process the cancellation as a termination action. This means that the CO will formally end the contract and any further obligations or responsibilities between the government and the contractor will be terminated. This action is taken to ensure that the government is not held liable for any costs incurred by the contractor due to the cancellation of the purchase order.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The DD Form 1597, Contract Closeout Check-List, is used when closing out
- A.
Contracts valued above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
- B.
Contracts valued above the micro-purchase threshold.
- C.
Only cost-type contracts exceeding the SAT.
- D.
All contracts regardless of value.
Correct Answer
A. Contracts valued above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).Explanation
The DD Form 1597, Contract Closeout Check-List, is used when closing out contracts valued above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT). This means that the form is specifically designed for contracts that exceed a certain monetary value, which is determined by the SAT. It is not used for contracts valued above the micro-purchase threshold or only for cost-type contracts exceeding the SAT. Additionally, it is not used for all contracts regardless of value.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which organization needs to be notified when a contract containing classified material is complete and ready to be closed?
- A.
Defense Security Service (DSS).
- B.
Defense Contract Audit Agency (DCAA).
- C.
Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA).
- D.
Defense Finance and Accounting Services (DFAS).
Correct Answer
A. Defense Security Service (DSS).Explanation
When a contract containing classified material is complete and ready to be closed, the organization that needs to be notified is the Defense Security Service (DSS). The DSS is responsible for ensuring the protection of classified information and safeguarding national security. They oversee the security aspects of defense contracts and need to be informed when such contracts are completed to ensure proper handling and disposal of classified material.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Firm-fixed-price contracts, other than those using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP), should be closed within
- A.
6 months after the date of final payment.
- B.
6 months after the date the contracting officer (CO) receives evidence of physical completion.
- C.
8 months after the date of final payment.
- D.
8 months after the date the CO receives evidence of physical completion.
Correct Answer
B. 6 months after the date the contracting officer (CO) receives evidence of pHysical completion. -
- 38.
Which action is taken to close a contract if the contractor goes bankrupt?
- A.
Get approval from your immediate supervisor.
- B.
Coordinate with the office of general counsel.
- C.
Get approval from your small business specialist.
- D.
Coordinate with your quality assurance specialist.
Correct Answer
B. Coordinate with the office of general counsel.Explanation
When a contractor goes bankrupt, coordinating with the office of general counsel is the appropriate action to take in order to close the contract. The office of general counsel is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance in legal matters, including bankruptcy. They will be able to guide and assist in the necessary steps to close the contract in a bankrupt situation. Getting approval from your immediate supervisor, small business specialist, or quality assurance specialist would not be the appropriate action in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The quality assurance surveillance plan (QASP) is applied to all
- A.
Service contracts.
- B.
Construction contracts.
- C.
Performance-based service contracts (PBSC).
- D.
Service contracts greater than $5 million.
Correct Answer
C. Performance-based service contracts (PBSC).Explanation
The correct answer is performance-based service contracts (PBSC). The reason for this is that the Quality Assurance Surveillance Plan (QASP) is specifically designed to be applied to PBSCs. PBSCs are contracts that focus on the desired outcomes and performance standards rather than the specific methods or processes used to achieve those outcomes. The QASP helps to ensure that the contractor meets these performance standards and delivers the desired outcomes. Therefore, the QASP is not applied to all service contracts, construction contracts, or service contracts greater than $5 million, but specifically to performance-based service contracts.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Who is responsible for managing quality controls and ensuring that performance meets the terms of the contract based on the quality assurance surveillance plan (QASP)?
- A.
Contractor.
- B.
Contract Specialist.
- C.
Acquiring customer.
- D.
Contracting officer representative (COR).
Correct Answer
A. Contractor.Explanation
The contractor is responsible for managing quality controls and ensuring that performance meets the terms of the contract based on the quality assurance surveillance plan (QASP). This means that it is the contractor's duty to implement and maintain quality control measures to ensure that the work being performed meets the required standards and specifications outlined in the contract. They are also responsible for addressing any issues or deficiencies in performance and taking corrective actions as necessary. The contract specialist, acquiring customer, and contracting officer representative (COR) may have roles in overseeing the contract, but the ultimate responsibility for managing quality controls lies with the contractor.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The Air Force can only authorize a personal service contract for which two types of services?
- A.
Health care and custodial.
- B.
Professional and health care.
- C.
Consultant and grounds maintenance.
- D.
Health care and grounds maintenance.
Correct Answer
B. Professional and health care.Explanation
The Air Force can only authorize a personal service contract for two types of services: professional and health care. This means that the Air Force can only enter into contracts for services that require specialized knowledge or skills, such as legal, engineering, or technical services, as well as health care services. Other types of services, such as custodial, consultant, or grounds maintenance, would not be eligible for personal service contracts according to Air Force regulations.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Who decides if a post-award orientation is necessary?
- A.
Contractor.
- B.
Contracting Officer.
- C.
Functional commander.
- D.
Quality assurance flight chief.
Correct Answer
B. Contracting Officer.Explanation
The contracting officer is responsible for determining whether a post-award orientation is necessary. This orientation is typically conducted after a contract has been awarded to ensure that both the contractor and the government agency fully understand their roles, responsibilities, and expectations. The contracting officer is in the best position to make this decision as they have the necessary knowledge and authority to assess the specific contract and determine if an orientation is needed.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Consider all of these factors when determining the necessity of a post-award orientation except
- A.
Extent of subcontracting.
- B.
Complexity of the contract.
- C.
Contractor’s financial status.
- D.
Contractor’s performance history.
Correct Answer
C. Contractor’s financial status.Explanation
The post-award orientation is a process that occurs after a contract has been awarded to a contractor. It is designed to ensure that the contractor understands all the requirements and expectations of the contract. Factors that are typically considered during this orientation include the extent of subcontracting, the complexity of the contract, and the contractor's performance history. However, the contractor's financial status is not typically a factor that is considered during the post-award orientation. Therefore, it is the exception in this case.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Identify the document that is used to guide discussions during a contract post-award conference.
- A.
Contracting officer’s (CO) Post-Award Guide.
- B.
Contract Administrator’s Post-Award Guide.
- C.
Department of Defense (DD) Form 1484, Post-Award Conference Record.
- D.
DD Form 1485, Contract Administrator Post-Award Checklist.
Correct Answer
C. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1484, Post-Award Conference Record.Explanation
The Department of Defense (DD) Form 1484, Post-Award Conference Record, is the document that is used to guide discussions during a contract post-award conference. This form is specifically designed for recording and documenting important information and decisions made during the conference. It helps to ensure that all parties involved have a clear understanding of the contract requirements and expectations. The form serves as a reference for future discussions and actions related to the contract.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A contracting officer (CO) might use a post-award letter in lieu of a conference when
- A.
Requested by the requiring activity.
- B.
A contractor is new to government contracting.
- C.
The contract contains complex or special requirements.
- D.
An incumbent contractor is awarded a new contract and the terms and requirements have minor or no changes.
Correct Answer
D. An incumbent contractor is awarded a new contract and the terms and requirements have minor or no changes.Explanation
A post-award letter may be used by a contracting officer instead of a conference when an incumbent contractor is awarded a new contract and there are only minor or no changes to the terms and requirements. This suggests that the contracting officer may opt for a post-award letter as a more efficient and streamlined method of communication, rather than convening a conference.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Whose responsibility is it to educate and train personnel designated as contracting officer representatives (COR)?
- A.
Supervisor.
- B.
Contracting officer (CO).
- C.
Functional commander.
- D.
Quality assurance program coordinator.
Correct Answer
B. Contracting officer (CO).Explanation
The responsibility to educate and train personnel designated as contracting officer representatives (COR) lies with the contracting officer (CO). The CO is responsible for overseeing and managing the contracting process, which includes training and providing guidance to CORs. CORs serve as the liaison between the CO and the contractor, ensuring that the terms of the contract are met. Therefore, it is essential for the CO to educate and train CORs to effectively carry out their responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 47.
If a preconstruction conference is to be held, it must be held
- A.
Prior to the start of work at the work site.
- B.
Within 10 work days before the start of work.
- C.
Within 10 work days of the date requested by the requiring activity.
- D.
Within 10 work days of the date the contract exceeded the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
Correct Answer
A. Prior to the start of work at the work site.Explanation
The correct answer is "prior to the start of work at the work site." This means that the preconstruction conference should be held before any work begins at the actual work site. It is important to have this conference beforehand to ensure that all parties involved understand the project requirements, scope, and any specific instructions or conditions related to the work site. Holding the conference prior to the start of work allows for effective planning, coordination, and communication among the project team, minimizing potential issues or delays once the work begins.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which contract clause provides for assessment of damages against the contractor for late performance?
- A.
Suspension of Work.
- B.
Liquidated Damages.
- C.
Inspection of Construction.
- D.
Delay of Contractor Performance.
Correct Answer
B. Liquidated Damages.Explanation
The correct answer is Liquidated Damages. This contract clause allows for the assessment of damages against the contractor if they fail to complete the project within the agreed-upon timeframe. Liquidated damages are predetermined and specified in the contract as a reasonable estimate of the actual damages that the owner would incur due to the delay. This clause ensures that the contractor has an incentive to complete the project on time and compensates the owner for any losses caused by the delay in performance.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Identify the contract clause that protects the government from latent defects in construction.
- A.
Inspection and Warranty.
- B.
Inspection of Construction.
- C.
Use and Protection Prior to Completion.
- D.
Specifications and Drawings for Construction.
Correct Answer
B. Inspection of Construction.Explanation
The contract clause that protects the government from latent defects in construction is "Inspection of Construction." This clause ensures that the government has the right to inspect the construction work to identify any hidden or latent defects that may not be apparent during the initial inspection. By including this clause in the contract, the government can hold the contractor responsible for any defects that may arise after the completion of the construction project. This helps to protect the government from any financial or legal liabilities that may arise due to latent defects in the construction.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When the government occupies a building prior to completion of construction without final acceptance, the one-year warranty period begins
- A.
When final acceptance occurs.
- B.
At a time negotiated by the parties.
- C.
The day after final payment is made.
- D.
At the time the government takes possession.
Correct Answer
D. At the time the government takes possession.Explanation
When the government occupies a building prior to completion of construction without final acceptance, the one-year warranty period begins at the time the government takes possession. This means that once the government starts using the building, the warranty period starts, regardless of whether the construction is fully completed or final acceptance has been given. This ensures that any issues or defects that may arise during the government's occupancy are covered by the warranty.Rate this question:
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Apr 07, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 09, 2020Quiz Created by
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