1.
A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. During examination, the nurse notes a papular lesion on the perineum. Which initial action is most appropriate?
Correct Answer
B. Report the finding to the doctor
Explanation
Any lesion should be reported to the doctor. This can indicate a herpes lesion. Clients with open lesions related to herpes are delivered by Cesarean section because there is a possibility of transmission of the infection to the fetus with direct contact to lesions. It is not enough to document the finding, so documenting the finding is incorrect. The physician must make the decision to perform a C-section, making preparing the client for a C-section incorrect. It is not enough to continue primary care, so continuing primary care as prescribed is incorrect.
2.
A client with a diagnosis of HPV is at risk for which of the following?
Correct Answer
B. Cervical cancer
Explanation
The client with HPV is at higher risk for cervical and vaginal cancer related to this STI. She is not at higher risk for the other cancers mentioned like hodgkin’s lymphoma , multiple myeloma , and ovarian cancer, so those are incorrect.
3.
During the initial interview, the client reports that she has a lesion on the perineum. Further investigation reveals a small blister on the vulva that is painful to touch. The nurse is aware that the most likely source of the lesion is:
Correct Answer
B. Herpes
Explanation
A lesion that is painful is most likely a herpetic lesion. A chancre lesion associated with syphilis is not painful, so Syphilis is incorrect. Condylomata lesions are painless warts, so Condylomata is incorrect. Gonorrhea does not present as a lesion, but is exhibited by a yellow discharge.
4.
A client visiting a family planning clinic is suspected of having an STI. The best diagnostic test for treponema pallidum is:
Correct Answer
C. Florescent treponemal antibody (FTA)
Explanation
Florescent treponemal antibody (FTA) is the test for treponema pallidum. VDRL and RPR are screening tests done for syphilis. The Thayer-Martin culture is done for gonorrhea.
5.
A 15-year-old primigravida is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of HELLP syndrome. Which laboratory finding is associated with HELLP syndrome?
Correct Answer
D. Elevated hepatic enzymes
Explanation
The criteria for HELLP is hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. Elevated blood glucose level is not associated with HELLP. Platelets are decreased, not elevated, in HELLP syndrome as stated in other choices. The creatinine levels are elevated in renal disease and are not associated with HELLP syndrome .
6.
The nurse is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client with preeclampsia. Which method is used to elicit the biceps reflex?
Correct Answer
A. The nurse places her thumb on the muscle inset in the antecubital space and taps the thumb briskly with the reflex hammer.
Explanation
The nurse loosely suspends the client’s arm in an open hand while tapping the back of the client’s elbow elicits the triceps reflex, so it is incorrect. The nurse instructs the client to dangle her legs as the nurse strikes the area below the patella with the blunt side of the reflex hammer elicits the patella reflex, making it incorrect.The nurse instructs the client to place her arms loosely at her side as the nurse strikes the muscle insert just above the wrist elicits the radial nerve, so it is incorrect.
7.
A primigravida with diabetes is admitted to the labor and delivery unit at 34 weeks gestation. Which doctor’s order should the nurse question?
Correct Answer
B. Brethine 10mcg IV
Explanation
Brethine is used cautiously because it raises the blood glucose levels. Magnesium sulfate 4gm (25%) IV , Stadol 1mg IV, and Ancef 2gm IVPB are all medications that are commonly used in the diabetic client, so they are incorrect.
8.
A diabetic multigravida is scheduled for an amniocentesis at 32 weeks gestation to determine the L/S ratio and phosphatidyl glycerol level. The L/S ratio is 1:1 and the presence of phosphatidylglycerol is noted. The nurse’s assessment of this data is:
Correct Answer
C. The infant is at high risk for respiratory distress syndrome.
Explanation
When the L/S ratio reaches 2:1, the lungs are considered to be mature. The infant will most likely be small for gestational age and will not be at risk for birth trauma. The L/S ratio does not indicate congenital anomalies, and the infant is not at risk for intrauterine growth retardation, .
9.
Which observation in the newborn of a diabetic mother would require immediate nursing intervention?
Correct Answer
C. Jitteriness
Explanation
Jitteriness is a sign of seizure in the neonate. Crying, wakefulness, and yawning are expected in the newborn, so Crying , Wakefulness, and Yawning are incorrect.
10.
The nurse caring for a client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate must closely observe for side effects associated with drug therapy. An expected side effect of magnesium sulfate is:
Correct Answer
B. Hypersomnolence
Explanation
The client is expected to become sleepy, have hot flashes, and be lethargic. A decreasing urinary output, absence of the knee-jerk reflex, and decreased respirations indicate toxicity, so these answers are incorrect.
11.
The client has elected to have epidural anesthesia to relieve labor pain. If the client experiences hypotension, the nurse would:
Correct Answer
D. Increase the rate of the IV infusion
Explanation
If the client experiences hypotension after an injection of epidural anesthetic, the nurse should turn her to the left side, apply oxygen by mask, and speed the IV infusion. If the blood pressure does not return to normal, the physician should be contacted. Epinephrine should be kept for emergency administration. Answer A is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position (head down) will allow the anesthesia to move up above the respiratory center, thereby decreasing the diaphragm’s ability to move up and down and ventilate the client.The IV rate should be increased, not decreased. In administering oxygen, the oxygen should be applied by mask, not cannula.
12.
A client has cancer of the pancreas. The nurse should be most concerned about which nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer
A. Alteration in nutrition
Explanation
Cancer of the pancreas frequently leads to severe nausea and vomiting and altered nutrition. The other problems are of lesser concern.
13.
The nurse is caring for a client with ascites. Which is the best method to use for determining early ascites?
Correct Answer
C. Daily measurement of abdominal girth
Explanation
Measuring with a paper tape measure and marking the area that is measured is the most objective method of estimating ascites. Inspecting and checking for fluid waves are more subjective, so answers inspection of the abdomen for enlargement and bimanual palpation for hepatomegaly are incorrect. Palpation of the liver will not tell the amount of ascites; thus, assessment for a fluid wave is incorrect.
14.
The client arrives in the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. Nursing assessment findings include BP 80/34, pulse rate 120, and respirations 20. Which is the client’s most appropriate priority nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer
B. Fluid volume deficit
Explanation
The vital signs indicate hypovolemic shock. They do not indicate cerebral tissue perfusion, airway clearance, or sensory perception alterations.
15.
The home health nurse is visiting an 18-year-old with osteogenesis imperfecta. Which information obtained on the visit would cause the most concern? The client:
Correct Answer
A. Likes to play football
Explanation
The client with osteogenesis imperfecta is at risk for pathological fractures and is likely to experience these fractures if he participates in contact sports. The client might experience symptoms of hypoxia if he becomes dehydrated or deoxygenated; extreme exercise, especially in warm weather, can exacerbate the condition. Other choices are not factors for concern.
16.
The nurse working the organ transplant unit is caring for a client with a white blood cell count of During evening visitation, a visitor brings a basket of fruit. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer
D. Tell the family members to take the fruit home
Explanation
The client with neutropenia should not have fresh fruit because it should be peeled and/or cooked before eating. He should also not eat foods grown on or in the ground or eat from the salad bar. The nurse should remove potted or cut flowers from the room as well. Any source of bacteria should be eliminated, if possible.Other answer choices will not help prevent bacterial invasions.
17.
The nurse is caring for the client following a laryngectomy when suddenly the client becomes nonresponsive and pale, with a BP of 90/40 systolic. The initial nurse’s action should be to:
Correct Answer
B. Increase the infusion of Dextrose in normal saline
Explanation
In clients who have not had surgery to the face or neck, the answer would be placing the client in Trendelenburg position ; however, in this situation, this could further interfere with the airway. Increasing the infusion and placing the client in supine position would be better. Administering atropine intravenously is incorrect because it is not necessary at this time and could cause hyponatremia and further hypotension. Moving the emergency cart to the bedside is not necessary at this time.
18.
The client admitted 2 days earlier with a lung resection accidentally pulls out the chest tube. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the management of chest tubes?
Correct Answer
C. Cover the insertion site with a Vaseline gauze
Explanation
If the client pulls the chest tube out of the chest, the nurse’s first action should be to cover the insertion site with an occlusive dressing. Afterward, the nurse should call the doctor, who will order a chest x-ray and possibly reinsert the tube. Other answer choices are not the first action to be taken.
19.
client being treated with sodium warfarin has a Protime of 120 seconds. Which intervention would be most important to include in the nursing care plan?
Correct Answer
A. Assess for signs of abnormal bleeding
Explanation
The normal Protime is 12–20 seconds. A Protime of 120 seconds indicates an extremely prolonged Protime and can result in a spontaneous bleeding episode. Other answer choices may be needed at a later time but are not the most important actions to take first.
20.
Which selection would provide the most calcium for the client who is 4 months pregnant?
Correct Answer
C. A cup of yogurt
Explanation
The food with the most calcium is the yogurt. Other answer choices are good choices, but not as good as the yogurt, which has approximately 400mg of calcium.
21.
The client with preeclampsia is admitted to the unit with an order for magnesium sulfate. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the possible side effects of magnesium sulfate?
Correct Answer
C. The nurse inserts a Foley catheter.
Explanation
The client receiving magnesium sulfate should have a Foley catheter in place, and hourly intake and output should be checked. There is no need to refrain from checking the blood pressure in the right arm. A padded tongue blade should be kept in the room at the bedside, just in case of a seizure, but this is not related to the magnesium sulfate infusion. Darkening the room is unnecessary, so other answer choices are incorrect.
22.
A 6-year-old client is admitted to the unit with a hemoglobin of 6g/dL. The physician has written an order to transfuse 2 units of whole blood. When discussing the treatment, the child’s mother tells the nurse that she does not believe in having blood transfusions and that she will not allow her child to have the treatment. What nursing action is most appropriate?
Correct Answer
D. Notify the pHysician of the mother’s refusal
Explanation
If the client’s mother refuses the blood transfusion, the doctor should be notified. Because the client is a minor, the court might order treatment. Asking the mother to leave while the blood transfusion is in progress is incorrect. Because it is not the primary responsibility for the nurse to encourage the mother to consent or explain the consequences, these choices are incorrect.
23.
A client is admitted to the unit 2 hours after an explosion causes burns to the face. The nurse would be most concerned with the client developing which of the following?
Correct Answer
B. Laryngeal edema
Explanation
The nurse should be most concerned with laryngeal edema because of the area of burn. The next priority should be hypovolemia , as well as hyponatremia and hypokalemia, but these answers are not of primary concern so are incorrect.
24.
The nurse is evaluating nutritional outcomes for an elderly client with bulimia. Which data best indicates that the plan of care is effective?
Correct Answer
D. The client gains weight.
Explanation
The client with anorexia shows the most improvement by weight gain. Selecting a balanced diet does little good if the client will not eat, making it incorrect. The hematocrit might improve by several means, such as blood transfusion, but that does not indicate improvement in the anorexic condition; therefore, it is incorrect. The tissue turgor indicates fluid stasis, not improvement of anorexia, so it is incorrect.
25.
The client with anorexia shows the most improvement by weight gain. Selecting a balanced diet does little good if the client will not eat, so answer A is incorrect. The hematocrit might improve by several means, such as blood transfusion, but that does not indicate improvement in the anorexic condition; therefore, answer B is incorrect. The tissue turgor indicates fluid stasis, not improvement of anorexia, so answer C is incorrect.
Correct Answer
D. Paresthesia of the toes
Explanation
At this time, pain beneath the cast is normal. The client’s toes should be warm to the touch, and pulses should be present. Paresthesia is not normal and might indicate compartment syndrome. Therefore, pain beneath the cast, warm toes , and pedal pulses weak and rapid are incorrect.