NCLEX Questions: Take This Practice Paper For Medical Surgical Nursing
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- 1.
The nurse is performing her admission assessment of a patient. When grading arterial pulses, a 1+ pulse indicates:
- A.
Above normal perfusion.
- B.
Absent perfusion.
- C.
Normal perfusion.
- D.
Diminished perfusion.
Correct Answer
D. Diminished perfusion.Explanation
A 1+ pulse indicates weak pulses and is associated with diminished perfusion. A 4+ is bounding perfusion, a 3+ is increased perfusion, a 2+ is normal perfusion, and 0 is absent perfusion.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Murmurs that indicate heart disease are often accompanied by other symptoms such as:
- A.
Dyspnea on exertion.
- B.
Subcutaneous emphysema
- C.
Thoracic petechiae
- D.
Periorbital edema
Correct Answer
A. Dyspnea on exertion.Explanation
A murmur that indicates heart disease is often accompanied by dyspnea on exertion, which is a hallmark of heart failure. Other indicators are tachycardia, syncope, and chest pain. Subcutaneous emphysema, thoracic petechiae, and perior-bital edema aren’t associated with murmurs and heart disease.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which pregnancy-related physiologic change would place the patient with a history of cardiac disease at the greatest risk of developing severe cardiac problems?
- A.
Decrease heart rate
- B.
Decreased cardiac output
- C.
Increased plasma volume
- D.
Increased blood pressure
Correct Answer
C. Increased plasma volumeExplanation
Pregnancy increase plasma volume and expands the uterine vascular bed, possibly increasing both the heart rate and cardiac output. These changes may cause cardiac stress, especially during the second trimester. Blood pressure during early pregnancy may decrease, but it gradually returns to prepregnancy levels.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The priority nursing diagnosis for the patient with cardiomyopathy is:
- A.
Anxiety related to risk of declining health status
- B.
Ineffective individual coping related to fear of debilitating illness
- C.
Fluid volume excess related to altered compensatory mechanisms.
- D.
Decreased cardiac output related to reduced myocardial contractility.
Correct Answer
D. Decreased cardiac output related to reduced myocardial contractility.Explanation
Decreased cardiac output related to reduced myocardial contractility is the greatest threat to the survival of a patient with cardiomyopathy. The other options can be addressed once cardiac output and myocardial contractility have been restored.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A patient with thrombophlebitis reached her expected outcomes of care. Her affected leg appears pink and warm. Her pedal pulse is palpable and there is no edema present. Which step in the nursing process is described above?
- A.
Planning
- B.
Implementation
- C.
Analysis
- D.
Evaluation
Correct Answer
D. EvaluationExplanation
Evaluation assesses the effectiveness of the treatment plan by determining if the patient has met the expected treatment outcome. Planning refers to designing a plan of action that will help the nurse deliver quality patient care. Implementation refers to all of the nursing interventions directed toward solving the patient’s nursing problems. Analysis is the process of identifying the patient’s nursing problems.Rate this question:
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- 6.
An elderly patient may have sustained a basilar skull fracture after slipping and falling on an icy sidewalk. The nurse knows that basilar skull factures:
- A.
Are the least significant type of skull fracture.
- B.
May have cause cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks from the nose or ears.
- C.
Have no characteristic findings.
- D.
Are always surgically repaired.
Correct Answer
B. May have cause cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks from the nose or ears.Explanation
A basilar skull fracture carries the risk of complications of dural tear, causing CSF leakage and damage to cranial nerves I, II, VII, and VIII. Classic findings in this type of fracture may include otorrhea, rhinorrhea, Battle’s signs, and raccoon eyes. Surgical treatment isn’t always required.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following types of drugs might be given to control increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
- A.
Barbiturates
- B.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
- C.
Anticholinergics
- D.
Histamine receptor blockers
Correct Answer
A. BarbituratesExplanation
Barbiturates may be used to induce a coma in a patient with increased ICP. This decreases cortical activity and cerebral metabolism, reduces cerebral blood volume, decreases cerebral edema, and reduces the brain’s need for glucose and oxygen. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used to decrease ocular pressure or to decrease the serum pH in a patient with metabolic alkalosis. Anticholinergics have many uses including reducing GI spasms. Histamine receptor blockers are used to decrease stomach acidity.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The nurse is teaching family members of a patient with a concussion about the early signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following would she cite as an early sign of increased ICP?
- A.
Decreased systolic blood pressure
- B.
Headache and vomiting
- C.
Dilated pupils that don’t react to light
- D.
Dilated pupils that don’t react to light
Correct Answer
B. Headache and vomitingExplanation
Headache and projectile vomiting are early signs of increased ICP. Decreased systolic blood pressure, unconsciousness, and dilated pupils that don’t reac to light are considered late signs.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Jessie James is diagnosed with retinal detachment. Which intervention is the most important for this patient?
- A.
Admitting him to the hospital on strict bed rest
- B.
Patching both of his eyes
- C.
Referring him to an ophthalmologist
- D.
Preparing him for surgery
Correct Answer
A. Admitting him to the hospital on strict bed restExplanation
Immediate bed rest is necessary to prevent further injury. Both eyes should be patched to avoid consensual eye movement and the patient should receive early referral to an ophthalmologist should treat the condition immediately. Retinal reattachment can be accomplished by surgery only. If the macula is detached or threatened, surgery is urgent; prolonged detachment of the macula results in permanent loss of central vision.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Dr. Bruce Owen, a chemist, sustained a chemical burn to one eye. Which intervention takes priority for a patient with a chemical burn of the eye?
- A.
Patch the affected eye and call the ophthalmologist.
- B.
Administer a cycloplegic agent to reduce ciliary spasm.
- C.
Immediately instill a tropical anesthetic, then irrigate the eye with saline solution.
- D.
Administer antibiotics to reduce the risk of infection
Correct Answer
C. Immediately instill a tropical anesthetic, then irrigate the eye with saline solution.Explanation
A chemical burn to the eye requires immediate instillation of a topical anesthetic followed by irrigation with copious amounts of saline solution. Irrigation should be done for 5 to 10 minutes, and then the pH of the eye should be checked. Irrigation should be continued until the pH of the eye is restored to neutral (pH 7.0): Double eversion of the eyelids should be performed to look for and remove ciliary spasm, and an antibiotic ointment can be administered to reduce the risk of infection. Then the eye should be patched. Parenteral narcotic analgesia is often required for pain relief. An ophthalmologist should also be consulted.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The nurse is assessing a patient and notes a Brudzinski’s sign and Kernig’s sign. These are two classic signs of which of the following disorders?
- A.
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
- B.
Meningitis
- C.
Seizure disorder
- D.
Parkinson’s disease
Correct Answer
B. MeningitisExplanation
A positive response to one or both tests indicates meningeal irritation that is present with meningitis. Brudzinski’s and Kernig’s signs don’t occur in CVA, seizure disorder, or Parkinson’s disease.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A patient is admitted to the hospital for a brain biopsy. The nurse knows that the most common type of primary brain tumor is:
- A.
Meningioma
- B.
Angioma
- C.
Hemangioblastoma
- D.
Glioma
Correct Answer
D. GliomaExplanation
Gliomas account for approximately 45% of all brain tumors. Meningiomas are the second most common, with 15%. Angiomas and hemangioblastomas are types of cerebral vascular tumors that account for 3% of brain tumors.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The nurse should instruct the patient with Parkinson’s disease to avoid which of the following?
- A.
Walking in an indoor shopping mall
- B.
Sitting on the deck on a cool summer evening
- C.
Walking to the car on a cold winter day
- D.
Sitting on the beach in the sun on a summer day
Correct Answer
D. Sitting on the beach in the sun on a summer dayExplanation
The patient with Parkinson’s disease may be hypersensitive to heat, which increases the risk of hyperthermia, and he should be instructed to avoid sun exposure during hot weather.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Gary Jordan suffered a cerebrovascular accident that left her unable to comprehend speech and unable to speak. This type of aphasia is known as:
- A.
Receptive aphasia
- B.
Expressive aphasia
- C.
Global aphasia
- D.
Conduction aphasia
Correct Answer
C. Global apHasiaExplanation
Global aphasia occurs when all language functions are affected. Receptive aphasia, also known as Wernicke’s aphasia, affects the ability to comprehend written or spoken words. Expressive aphasia, also known as Broca’s aphasia, affected the patient’s ability to form language and express thoughts. Conduction aphasia refers to abnormalities in speech repetition.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Kelly Smith complains that her headaches are occurring more frequently despite medications. Patients with a history of headaches should be taught to avoid:
- A.
Freshly prepared meats.
- B.
Citrus fruits.
- C.
Skim milk
- D.
Chocolate
Correct Answer
D. ChocolateExplanation
Patients with a history of headaches, especially migraines, should be taught to keep a food diary to identify potential food triggers. Typical headache triggers include alcohol, aged cheeses, processed meats, and chocolate and caffeine-containing products.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Immediately following cerebral aneurysm rupture, the patient usually complains of:
- A.
Photophobia
- B.
Explosive headache
- C.
Seizures
- D.
Hemiparesis
Correct Answer
B. Explosive headacheExplanation
An explosive headache or “the worst headache I’ve ever had” is typically the first presenting symptom of a bleeding cerebral aneurysm. Photophobia, seizures, and hemiparesis may occur later.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following is a cause of embolic brain injury?
- A.
Persistent hypertension
- B.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
- C.
Atrial fibrillation
- D.
Skull fracture
Correct Answer
C. Atrial fibrillationExplanation
An embolic injury, caused by a traveling clot, may result from atrial fibrillation. Blood may pool in the fibrillating atrium and be released to travel up the cerebral artery to the brain. Persistent hypertension may place the patient at risk for a thrombotic injury to the brain. Subarachnoid hemorrhage and skull fractures aren’t associated with emboli.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Although Ms. Priestly has a spinal cord injury, she can still have sexual intercourse. Discharge teaching should make her aware that:
- A.
She must remove indwelling urinary catheter prior to intercourse.
- B.
She can no longer achieve orgasm.
- C.
Positioning may be awkward.
- D.
She can still get pregnant.
Correct Answer
D. She can still get pregnant.Explanation
Women with spinal cord injuries who were sexually active may continue having sexual intercourse and must be reminded that they can still become pregnant. She may be fully capable of achieving orgasm. An indwelling urinary catheter may be left in place during sexual intercourse. Positioning will need to be adjusted to fit the patient’s needs.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Ivy Hopkins, age 25, suffered a cervical fracture requiring immobilization with halo traction. When caring for the patient in halo traction, the nurse must:
- A.
Keep a wrench taped to the halo vest for quick removal if cardiopulmonary resuscitation is necessary.
- B.
Remove the brace once a day to allow the patient to rest.
- C.
Encourage the patient to use a pillow under the ring.
- D.
Remove the brace so that the patient can shower.
Correct Answer
A. Keep a wrench taped to the halo vest for quick removal if cardiopulmonary resuscitation is necessary.Explanation
The nurse must have a wrench taped on the vest at all times for quick halo removal in emergent situations. The brace isn’t to be removed for any other reason until the cervical fracture is healed. Placing a pillow under the patient’s head may alter the stability of the brace.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The nurse asks a patient’s husband if he understands why his wife is receiving nimodipine (Nimotop), since she suffered a cerebral aneurysm rupture. Which response by the husband indicates that he understands the drug’s use?
- A.
“Nimodipine replaces calcium.”
- B.
“Nimodipine promotes growth of blood vessels in the brain.”
- C.
“Nimodipine reduces the brain’s demand for oxygen.”
- D.
“Nimodipine reduces vasospasm in the brain.”
Correct Answer
D. “Nimodipine reduces vasospasm in the brain.”Explanation
Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that acts on cerebral blood vessels to reduce vasospasm. The drug doesn’t increase the amount of calcium, affect cerebral vasculature growth, or reduce cerebral oxygen demand.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Many men who suffer spinal injuries continue to be sexually active. The teaching plan for a man with a spinal cord injury should include sexually concerns. Which of the following injuries would most likely prevent erection and ejaculation?
- A.
C5
- B.
C7
- C.
T4
- D.
S4
Correct Answer
D. S4Explanation
Men with spinal cord injury should be taught that the higher the level of the lesion, the better their sexual function will be. The sacral region is the lowest area on the spinal column and injury to this area will cause more erectile dysfunction.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Cathy Bates, age 36, is a homemaker who frequently forgets to take her carbamazepine (Tegretol). As a result, she has been experiencing seizures. How can the nurse best help the patient remember to take her medication?
- A.
Tell her take her medication at bedtime.
- B.
Instruct her to take her medication after one of her favorite television shows.
- C.
Explain that she should take her medication with breakfast.
- D.
Tell her to buy an alarm watch to remind her.
Correct Answer
C. Explain that she should take her medication with breakfast.Explanation
Tegretol should be taken with food to minimize GI distress. Taking it at meals will also establish a regular routine, which should help compliance.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Richard Barnes was diagnosed with pneumococcal meningitis. What response by the patient indicates that he understands the precautions necessary with this diagnosis?
- A.
“I’m so depressed because I can’t have any visitors for a week.”
- B.
“Thank goodness, I’ll only be in isolation for 24 hours.”
- C.
“The nurse told me that my urine and stool are also sources of meningitis bacteria.”
- D.
“The doctor is a good friend of mine and won’t keep me in isolation.”
Correct Answer
B. “Thank goodness, I’ll only be in isolation for 24 hours.”Explanation
Patient with pneumococcal meningitis require respiratory isolation for the first 24 hours after treatment is initiated.Rate this question:
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- 24.
In early symptom associated with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) includes:
- A.
Fatigue while talking
- B.
Change in mental status
- C.
Numbness of the hands and feet
- D.
Spontaneous fractures
Correct Answer
A. Fatigue while talkingExplanation
Early symptoms of ALS include fatigue while talking, dysphagia, and weakness of the hands and arms. ALS doesn’t cause a change in mental status, paresthesia, or fractures.Rate this question:
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- 25.
When caring for a patient with esophageal varices, the nurse knows that bleeding in this disorder usually stems from:
- A.
Esophageal perforation
- B.
Pulmonary hypertension
- C.
Portal hypertension
- D.
Peptic ulcers
Correct Answer
C. Portal hypertensionExplanation
Increased pressure within the portal veins causes them to bulge, leading to rupture and bleeding into the lower esophagus. Bleeding associated with esophageal varices doesn’t stem from esophageal perforation, pulmonary hypertension, or peptic ulcers.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Tiffany Black is diagnosed with type A hepatitis. What special precautions should the nurse take when caring for this patient?
- A.
Put on a mask and gown before entering the patient’s room.
- B.
Wear gloves and a gown when removing the patient’s bedpan.
- C.
Prevent the droplet spread of the organism
- D.
Use caution when bringing food to the patient.
Correct Answer
B. Wear gloves and a gown when removing the patient’s bedpan.Explanation
The nurse should wear gloves and a gown when removing the patient’s bedpan because the type A hepatitis virus occurs in stools. It may also occur in blood, nasotracheal secretions, and urine. Type A hepatitis isn’t transmitted through the air by way of droplets. Special precautions aren’t needed when feeding the patient, but disposable utensils should be used.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Discharge instructions for a patient who has been operated on for colorectal cancer include irrigating the colostomy. The nurse knows her teaching is effective when the patient states he’ll contact the doctor if:
- A.
He experiences abdominal cramping while the irrigant is infusing
- B.
He has difficulty inserting the irrigation tube into the stoma
- C.
He expels flatus while the return is running out
- D.
He’s unable to complete the procedure in 1 hour
Correct Answer
B. He has difficulty inserting the irrigation tube into the stomaExplanation
The patient should notify the doctor if he has difficulty inserting the irrigation tube into the stoma. Difficulty with insertion may indicate stenosis of the bowel. Abdominal cramping and expulsion of flatus may normally occur with irrigation. The procedure will often take an hour to complete.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The nurse explains to the patient who has an abdominal perineal resection that an indwelling urinary catheter must be kept in place for several days afterward because:
- A.
It prevents urinary tract infection following surgery
- B.
It prevents urine retention and resulting pressure on the perineal wound
- C.
It minimizes the risk of wound contamination by the urine
- D.
It determines whether the surgery caused bladder trauma
Correct Answer
B. It prevents urine retention and resulting pressure on the perineal woundExplanation
An indwelling urinary catheter is kept in place several days after this surgery to prevent urine retention that could place pressure on the perineal wound. An indwelling urinary catheter may be a source of postoperative urinary tract infection. Urine won’t contaminate the wound. An indwelling urinary catheter won’t necessarily show bladderRate this question:
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- 29.
The first day after, surgery the nurse finds no measurable fecal drainage from a patient’s colostomy stoma. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
- A.
Call the doctor immediately.
- B.
Obtain an order to irrigate the stoma.
- C.
Place the patient on bed rest and call the doctor.
- D.
Continue the current plan of care.
Correct Answer
D. Continue the current plan of care.Explanation
The colostomy may not function for 2 days or more (48 to 72 hours) after surgery. Therefore, the normal plan of care can be followed. Since no fecal drainage is expected for 48 to 72 hours after a colostomy (only mucous and serosanguineous), the doctor doesn’t have to be notified and the stoma shouldn’t be irrigated at this time.Rate this question:
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- 30.
If a patient’s GI tract is functioning but he’s unable to take foods by mouth, the preferred method of feeding is:
- A.
Total parenteral nutrition
- B.
Peripheral parenteral nutrition
- C.
Enteral nutrition
- D.
Oral liquid supplements
Correct Answer
C. Enteral nutritionExplanation
If the patient’s GI tract is functioning, enteral nutrition via a feeding tube is the preferred method. Peripheral and total parenteral nutrition places the patient at risk for infection. If the patient is unable to consume foods by mouth, oral liquid supplements are contraindicated.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which type of solution causes water to shift from the cells into the plasma?
- A.
Hypertonic
- B.
Hypotonic
- C.
Isotonic
- D.
Alkaline
Correct Answer
A. HypertonicExplanation
A hypertonic solution causes water to shift from the cells into the plasma because the hypertonic solution has a greater osmotic pressure than the cells. A hypotonic solution has a lower osmotic pressure than that of the cells. It causes fluid to shift into the cells, possibly resulting in rupture. An isotonic solution, which has the same osmotic pressure as the cells, wouldn’t cause any shift. A solution’s alkalinity is related to the hydrogen ion concentration, not its osmotic effect.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Particles move from an area of greater osmelarity to one of lesser osmolarity through:
- A.
Active transport
- B.
Osmosis
- C.
Diffusion
- D.
Filtration
Correct Answer
C. DiffusionExplanation
Particles move from an area of greater osmolarity to one of lesser osmolarity through diffusion. Active transport is the movement of particles though energy expenditure from other sources such as enzymes. Osmosis is the movement of a pure solvent through a semipermeable membrane from an area of greater osmolarity to one of lesser osmolarity until equalization occurs. The membrane is impermeable to the solute but permeable to the solvent. Filtration is the process by which fluid is forced through a membrane by a difference in pressure; small molecules pass through, but large ones don’t.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which assessment finding indicates dehydration?
- A.
Tenting of chest skin when pinched
- B.
Rapid filling of hand veins
- C.
A pulse that isn’t easily obliterated
- D.
Neck vein distention
Correct Answer
A. Tenting of chest skin when pinchedExplanation
Tenting of chest skin when pinched indicates decreased skin elasticity due to dehydration. Hand veins fill slowly with dehydration, not rapidly. A pulse that isn’t easily obliterated and neck vein distention indicate fluid overload, not dehydration.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which nursing intervention would most likely lead to a hypo-osmolar state?
- A.
Performing nasogastric tube irrigation with normal saline solution
- B.
Weighing the patient daily
- C.
Administering tap water enema until the return is clear
- D.
Encouraging the patient with excessive perspiration to dink broth
Correct Answer
C. Administering tap water enema until the return is clearExplanation
Administering a tap water enema until return is clear would most likely contribute to a hypo-osmolar state. Because tap water is hypotonic, it would be absorbed by the body, diluting the body fluid concentration and lowering osmolarity. Weighing the patient is the easiest, most accurate method to determine fluid changes. Therefore, it helps identify rather than contribute to fluid imbalance. Nasogastric tube irrigation with normal saline solution wouldn’t cause a shift in fluid balance. Drinking broth wouldn’t contribute to a hypo-osmolar state because it doesn’t replace sodium and water lost through excessive perspiration.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which assessment finding would indicate an extracellular fluid volume deficit?
- A.
Bradycardia
- B.
A central venous pressure of 6 mm Hg
- C.
Pitting edema
- D.
An orthostatic blood pressure change
Correct Answer
D. An orthostatic blood pressure changeExplanation
An orthostatic blood pressure indicates an extracellular fluid volume deficit. (The extracellular compartment consists of both the intravascular compartment and interstitial space.) A fluid volume deficit within the intravascular compartment would cause tachycardia, not bradycardia or orthostatic blood pressure change. A central venous pressure of 6 mm Hg is in the high normal range, indicating adequate hydration. Pitting edema indicates fluid volume overload.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A patient with metabolic acidosis has a preexisting problem with the kidneys. Which other organ helps regulate blood pH?
- A.
Liver
- B.
Pancreas
- C.
Lungs
- D.
Heart
Correct Answer
C. LungsExplanation
The respiratory and renal systems act as compensatory mechanisms to counteract-base imbalances. The lungs alter the carbon dioxide levels in the blood by increasing or decreasing the rate and depth of respirations, thereby increasing or decreasing carbon dioxide elimination. The liver, pancreas, and heart play no part in compensating for acid-base imbalances.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The nurse considers the patient anuric if the patient;
- A.
Voids during the nighttime hours
- B.
Has a urine output of less than 100 ml in 24 hours
- C.
Has a urine output of at least 100 ml in 2 hours
- D.
Has pain and burning on urination
Correct Answer
B. Has a urine output of less than 100 ml in 24 hoursExplanation
Anuria refers to a urine output of less than 100 ml in 24 hours. The baseline for urine output and renal function is 30 ml of urine per hour. A urine output of at least 100 ml in 2 hours is within normal limits. Voiding at night is called nocturia. Pain and burning on urination is called dysuria.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which nursing action is appropriate to prevent infection when obtaining a sterile urine specimen from an indwelling urinary catheter?
- A.
Aspirate urine from the tubing port using a sterile syringe and needle
- B.
Disconnect the catheter from the tubing and obtain urine
- C.
Open the drainage bag and pour out some urine
- D.
Wear sterile gloves when obtaining urine
Correct Answer
A. Aspirate urine from the tubing port using a sterile syringe and needleExplanation
To obtain urine properly, the nurse should aspirate it from a port, using a sterile syringe after cleaning the port. Opening a closed urine drainage system increases the risk of urinary tract infection. Standard precautions specify the use of gloves during contract with body fluids; however, sterile gloves aren’t necessary.Rate this question:
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- 39.
After undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy, a patient is retuned to the room with continuous bladder irrigation in place. One day later, the patient reports bladder pain. What should the nurse do first?
- A.
Increase the I.V. flow rate
- B.
Notify the doctor immediately
- C.
Assess the irrigation catheter for patency and drainage
- D.
Administer meperidine (Demerol) as prescribed
Correct Answer
C. Assess the irrigation catheter for patency and drainageExplanation
Although postoperative pain is expected, the nurse should ensure that other factors, such as an obstructed irrigation catheter, aren’t the cause of the pain. After assessing catheter patency, the nurse should administer an analgesic such as meperidine as prescribed. Increasing the I.V. flow rate may worse the pain. Notifying the doctor isn’t necessary unless the pain is severe or unrelieved by the prescribed medication.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A patient comes to the hospital complaining of sudden onset of sharp, severe pain originating in the lumbar region and radiating around the side and toward the bladder. The patient also reports nausea and vomiting and appears pale, diaphoretic, and anxious. The doctor tentatively diagnoses renal calculi and orders flat-plate abdominal X-rays. Renal calculi can form anywhere in the urinary tract. What is their most common formation site?
- A.
Kidney
- B.
Ureter
- C.
Urethra
- D.
Urethra
Correct Answer
A. KidneyExplanation
Renal calculi most commonly from in the kidney. They may remain there or become lodged anywhere along the urinary tract. The ureter, bladder, and urethra are less common sites of renal calculi formation.Rate this question:
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- 41.
A patient comes to the hospital complaining of severe pain in the right flank, nausea, and vomiting. The doctor tentatively diagnoses right ureter-olithiasis (renal calculi). When planning this patient’s care, the nurse should assign highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?
- A.
Pain
- B.
Risk of infection
- C.
Altered urinary elimination
- D.
Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
Correct Answer
A. PainExplanation
Ureterolithiasis typically causes such acute, severe pain that the patient can’t rest and becomes increasingly anxious. Therefore, the nursing diagnosis of pain takes highest priority. Risk for infection and altered urinary elimination are appropriate once the patient’s pain is controlled. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements isn’t appropriate at this time.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The nurse is reviewing the report of a patient’s routine urinalysis. Which of the following values should the nurse consider abnormal?
- A.
Specific gravity of 1.002
- B.
Urine pH of 3
- C.
Absence of protein
- D.
Absence of glucose
Correct Answer
B. Urine pH of 3Explanation
Normal urine pH is 4.5 to 8; therefore, a urine pH of 3 is abnormal and may indicate such conditions as renal tuberculosis, pyrexia, phenylketonuria, alkaptonuria, and acidosis. Urine specific gravity normally ranges from 1.002 to 1.032, making the patient’s value normal. Normally, urine contains no protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, bacteria, casts, or crystals.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A patient with suspected renal insufficiency is scheduled for a comprehensive diagnostic work-up. After the nurse explains the diagnostic tests, the patient asks which part of the kidney “does the work.” Which answer is correct?
- A.
The glomerulus
- B.
Bowman’s capsule
- C.
The nephron
- D.
The tubular system
Correct Answer
C. The nepHronExplanation
The nephron is the kidney’s functioning unit. The glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, and tubular system are components of the nephron.Rate this question:
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- 44.
During a shock state, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system exerts which of the following effects on renal function?
- A.
Decreased urine output, increased reabsorption of sodium and water
- B.
Decreased urine output, decreased reabsorption of sodium and water
- C.
Increased urine output, increased reabsorption of sodium and water
- D.
Increased urine output, decreased reabsorption of sodium and water
Correct Answer
A. Decreased urine output, increased reabsorption of sodium and waterExplanation
As a response to shock, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system alters renal function by decreasing urine output and increasing reabsorption of sodium and water. Reduced renal perfusion stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in an effort to conserve circulating volume.Rate this question:
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- 45.
While assessing a patient who complained of lower abdominal pressure, the nurse notes a firm mass extending above the symphysis pubis. The nurse suspects:
- A.
A urinary tract infection
- B.
Renal calculi
- C.
An enlarged kidney
- D.
A distended bladder
Correct Answer
D. A distended bladderExplanation
The bladder isn’t usually palpable unless it is distended. The feeling of pressure is usually relieved with urination. Reduced bladder tone due to general anesthesia is a common postoperative complication that causes difficulty in voiding. A urinary tract infection and renal calculi aren’t palpable. The kidneys aren’t palpable above the symphysis pubis.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Gregg Lohan, age 75, is admitted to the medical-surgical floor with weakness and left-sided chest pain. The symptoms have been present for several weeks after a viral illness. Which assessment finding is most symptomatic of pericarditis?
- A.
Pericardial friction rub
- B.
Bilateral crackles auscultated at the lung bases
- C.
Pain unrelieved by a change in position
- D.
Third heart sound (S3)
Correct Answer
A. Pericardial friction rubExplanation
A pericardial friction rub may be present with the pericardial effusion of pericarditis. The lungs are typically clear when auscultated. Sitting up and leaning forward often relieves pericarditis pain. An S3 indicates left-sided heart failure and isn’t usually present with pericarditis.Rate this question:
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- 47.
James King is admitted to the hospital with right-side-heart failure. When assessing him for jugular vein distention, the nurse should position him:
- A.
Lying on his side with the head of the bed flat.
- B.
Sitting upright.
- C.
Flat on his back.
- D.
Lying on his back with the head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees.
Correct Answer
D. Lying on his back with the head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees.Explanation
Assessing jugular vein distention should be done when the patient is in semi-Fowler’s position (head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees). If the patient lies flat, the veins will be more distended; if he sits upright, the veins will be flat.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The nurse is interviewing a slightly overweight 43-year-old man with mild emphysema and borderline hypertension. He admits to smoking a pack of cigarettes per day. When developing a teaching plan, which of the following should receive highest priority to help decrease respiratory complications?
- A.
Weight reduction
- B.
Decreasing salt intake
- C.
Smoking cessation
- D.
Decreasing caffeine intake
Correct Answer
C. Smoking cessationExplanation
Smoking should receive highest priority when trying to reduce risk factors for with respiratory complications. Losing weight and decreasing salt and caffeine intake can help to decrease risk factors for hypertension.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is the ratio of chest compressions to ventilations when one rescuer performs cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult?
- A.
15:1
- B.
15:2
- C.
12:1
- D.
12:2
Correct Answer
B. 15:2Explanation
The correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when one rescuer performs CPR is 15:2Rate this question:
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- 50.
When assessing a patient for fluid and electrolyte balance, the nurse is aware that the organs most important in maintaining this balance are the:
- A.
Pituitary gland and pancreas
- B.
Liver and gallbladder.
- C.
Brain stem and heart.
- D.
Lungs and kidneys.
Correct Answer
D. Lungs and kidneys.Explanation
The lungs and kidneys are the body’s regulators of homeostasis. The lungs are responsible for removing fluid and carbon dioxide; the kidneys maintain a balance of fluid and electrolytes. The other organs play secondary roles in maintaining homeostasis.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 14, 2011Quiz Created by
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