1.
Which of the following is the correct duration for the first DHCP Renewal message to be sent by the client?
Correct Answer
A. 50% of lease duration
Explanation
The first DHCP Renewal is raised by the client after 50% of the lease has expired.
2.
When the DHCP is declining a clients� renewal request, it informs so with the help of DHCPACK. T/F?
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
When the DHCP is declining a clients� renewal request, it informs so with the help of a negative acknowledgement.
3.
A DHCP server running Windows Server 2003 initialize without authorization. T/F?
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
A DHCP server running Windows Server 2003 can initialize without authorization if the server is located on a subnet that does not transmit a DHCPINFORM message request to other authorized DHCP servers.
4.
Authorization of DHCP servers is not mandatory. T/F?
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Authorizing is not mandatory but is preferred in the Active Directory environment for the purpose of security.
5.
When Active Directory is deployed you cannot implement UNIX based DHCP servers in the network. T/F?
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
UNIX based DHCP servers co-exist with Windows based DHCP servers in the Active Directory environment.
6.
DHCP Authorization is a must to initialize DHCP servers in Active Directory environment. T/F?
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
In an Active Directory environment a DHCP server cannot initialize without authorization from ADS
7.
Which of the following is capable of authorizing a DHCP server?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Windows 2000
D. Windows Server 2003
Explanation
Only OS capable of ADS can authorize DHCP hence it has to be Windows 2000 and Windows Server 2003
8.
Which of the following is used to seclude a range of IP addresses from getting assigned to clients on a network?
Correct Answer
C. Exclusion range
Explanation
To exclude a set of IP addresses from being assigned to clients on the network, you must use the exclusion range property.
9.
Which of the following property will assign a default gateway to a scope?
Correct Answer
D. Router
Explanation
Within the scope options you must choose the �router� property and assign the IP address of the local interface of the router for that network.
10.
Which of the following differentiates a network portion from the host portion of the IP address for a given scope?
Correct Answer
B. Subnet mask
Explanation
The property of the subnet mask is to differentiate or highlight the network portion and mask the host portion of an Ip address.
11.
Which of the following options has the least impact on an entire scope when configured?
Correct Answer
D. Reserved client-level option
Explanation
A reservation client-level option is assigned to only 1 DHCP client and hence makes the least impact as it affects only 1 client.
12.
Which of the following can be used to classify clients on the network based on the hardware?
Correct Answer
A. Vendor-class level
Explanation
The vendor-class option is used by a DHCP server to identify the vendor type and hardware configuration options of a client during the lease process.
13.
It is mandatory for a DHCP relay agent to send broadcast messages to communicate with the DHCP server. T/F?
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
DHCP relay agents can also be configured to communicate with the DHCP server in the Unicast mode.
14.
In a network that has one main office and 4 branches, which of the following would you recommend?
Correct Answer
B. At least 2 DHCP servers and 4 relay agents.
Explanation
For the purpose of fault tolerance as well as load balancing, it is best to have at least 2 DHCP servers in the main office with a relay agent each in the branches.
15.
When a couple of subnets separate a DHCP server from the client, a hop count is significant factor for the client to reach the server. T/F?
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
A hop count is a significant factor when the DHCP server and the client are separated by subnets.
16.
The __________factor helps to analyze the wait time required before transmitting DHCP request to a remote DHCP server when the local one is down.
Correct Answer
B. Boot threshold level
Explanation
In situations where a local DHCP has failed and a remote one has to be accessed, before transmitting a packet to a remote DHCP server, the DHCP relay agent waits for a few seconds. This period is known as boot threshold.
17.
The DHCP server first grants the lease period to the client and then send the acknowledgement. T/F?
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The DHCP server sends the lease period to the client along with the acknowledgement.
18.
Which of the following would help to configure hop count?
Correct Answer
A. DHCP Relay Properties
Explanation
All information related to the relay agent is configured in the DHCP relay properties. This includes hop count as well.
19.
Which of the following is the correct file name for the DHCP database?
Correct Answer
A. DHCP.tmp
Explanation
DHCP.tmp is a temporary file that the DHCP database uses as a swap file during database index maintenance operations. DHCP.mdb is the database file name, the rest of the options have incorrect file extensions.
20.
Why is it required to maintain the DHCP database as per schedule?
Correct Answer
A. Because it is a dynamic environment
Explanation
Any database that is subject to dynamic changes should be maintained as per schedule to avoid database inconsistencies.
21.
Jetpack is used to backup the DHCP database. T/F?
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Jetpack is a compacting tool and not a backup tool
22.
Which of the following will maintain a log of the DHCP database?
Correct Answer
B. J50.log
Explanation
J50.log maintains a log of the database/transactions of the DHCP service.
23.
When is a manual backup of the DHCP database necessary?
Correct Answer
C. As a precaution against database failure
Explanation
A manual backup once in a while or every now and then is necessary especially if the backup will be stored in a location other than the system that is running the DHCP service. This helps to retrieve a DHCP service and bring it back online whenever the server faces a hardware failure or a crash.
24.
Which of the following will help you purge the remote NetBIOS names cache?
Correct Answer
D. Nbtstat �R command
Explanation
Nbtstat -R command can be used to purge and reload the remote cache name table.
25.
Which of the following is a service dedicated to resolving host names to IP address and vice versa?
Correct Answer
A. DNS
Explanation
HOSTS and LMHOSTS are files and not services. WINS resolves NetBIOS names and not host names. DNS is the dedicated service for resolving host names.
26.
Which of the following will help you cler the DNS cache on the client side?
Correct Answer
A. Ipconfig/flushdns
Explanation
The correct command for clearing the DNS name cache on the client side is Ipconfig/flushdns
27.
How is a NetBIOS name resolved in the absence of a WINS service?
Correct Answer
C. Broadcasts
Explanation
In the absence of a WINS service and a absence of a LMHOSTS file, the client will resort to broadcasting a NetBIOS name.
28.
Which of the following is correct about a DNS query?
Correct Answer
A. It is a request that a DNS client resolver makes to a DNS server to obtain the IP address of a host name.
Explanation
A DNS query is a request the DNS client resolver makes to a DNS server to obtain the IP address of either a flat or a hierarchical host name.
29.
A DNS resource record that points to the parent level is known as a SOA record. T/F?
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
A DNS resource record that points to the parent level is known as a root hint.
30.
Which of the following is true about a forwarder?
Correct Answer
A. It is the DNS server designated to receive a request from another DNS that was unable to resolve a client query.
Explanation
A forwarder DNS is a designated server that is capable of accepting an unresolved query of another DNS to which it has been designated as a forwarder.
31.
Which of the following is correct about the Resource Record (RR) type SOA?
Correct Answer
B. It identifies the primary DNS name server for a zone.
Explanation
The RR type SOA is used to identify the primary DNS name server for a zone. It also identifies the e-mail address of the zone administrator. Choice A is incorrect since the RR type NS facilitates delegation by identifying the DNS Servers for each zone. Choice C is incorrect since the RR type PTR locates the DNS name corresponding to an IP address. Choice D is incorrect since the RR type A represents a computer or a device on a network.
32.
Which of the following is possible only on an ADS environment?
Correct Answer
A. Allow only secure dynamic updates
Explanation
Secure updates are possible only if the zones is integrated with Active Directory.
33.
Which of the following is a read-only copy of the original zone?
Correct Answer
B. Secondary zone
Explanation
The secondary zone stores a read-only copy of an existing zone to help balance the load of the primary servers and provide backup.
34.
Which of the following provides and IP address--to--host name mapping?
Correct Answer
B. Reverse lookup zone
Explanation
As the name suggests the reverse lookup zone provides an Ip to name resolution
35.
The DNS service in Windows Server 2003 environment is not capable of Incremental updation. T/F?
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The DNS server in the Windows Server 2003 environment is capable of incremental zone transfer.
36.
Which of the following is mandatory before the secondary server can pull its updates from the Primary DNS?
Correct Answer
C. A notification message from master DNS servers
Explanation
A secondary server can pull its updates from the primary server only after it receives a notification from the Primary or the Master server stating that there are updates to be taken.
37.
Which of the following statements is true of master DNS servers?
Correct Answer
A. It is the server responsible for sending update notifications and updates to the secondary server.
Explanation
The Master DNS could be any DNS server on the network that has a read-write copy of a zone that has been created on it and is capable of sending notifications for those updates to the secondary servers.
38.
DDNS is recommended for all networks today irrespective of their size. T/F?
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Small networks still work efficiently with static or manual updates rather than dynamic environment.
39.
Which of the following best describe DDNS?
Correct Answer
A. It integrates DHCP information for update process
Explanation
DHCP can dynamically update resource records in DNS during a client�s DHCP IP configuration process.
40.
Which of the statements is correct about secure dynamic update?
Correct Answer
A. It is attempted only if the client can prove its identity and has proper credentials to make the update.
Explanation
Secure dynamic update is the process by which a dynamic update happens under the security of the ADS
41.
SOA acts as a proxy for downward compatible clients of DNS. T/F?
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
PTR records and acts as a proxy for downward compatible clients of DNS
42.
Which of the following is required by a client that is intending to self-register itself with a DNS server?
Correct Answer
A. Use this connection�s DNS suffix in DNS registration
Explanation
A client that has to register itself with a DNS server needs a DNS suffix entered in its configuration parameters
43.
Which of the statements is correct about an Active Directory-integrated DNS zone?
Correct Answer
A. It allows secure dynamic updates.
Explanation
An Active Directory--integrated DNS zone uses Active Directory for permitting secure dynamic updates.
44.
Which of the following is true about DNS client configuration?
Correct Answer
D. The Connection Specific Suffix assigns a space to configure a DNS suffix for a particular connection.
Explanation
It can be self configured using the DNS suffix option.
45.
TTL is set for a zone that has been deleted and waiting to be purged. T/F?
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
TTL is set for any Active Directory integrated zone
46.
IPSec can be implemented on IP and IPX networks. T/F?
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
As the name suggests IPSec is meant for security of IP based networks only.
47.
Which of the following cannot be secured by IPSec?
Correct Answer
C. Unencrypted data.
Explanation
Securing data before encryption rules were applied to it is not the responsibility of IPSec.
48.
Which of the following would you use to apply IPSec policies?
Correct Answer
B. IP Security Console
Explanation
You can create a console for your own convenience through the Microsoft Management Console or use the regular IP Security Console through the MMC.
49.
Which of the following does an IPSec certificate contain?
Correct Answer
A. CA related information
Explanation
IPSec certificate contains information relating to the CA that issued the certificate.
50.
Which of the statements is correct about certificates?
Correct Answer
A. They help to authenticate as well encrypt data
Explanation
Certificates are meant to authenticate end users or computers in a communication session as well as encrypt the data is required.