A2w051 Ure Quiz, Vol. 3 Ammo Iyaayas

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A2w051 Ure Quiz, Vol. 3 Ammo Iyaayas - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (401) Who is responsible for appointing qualified individuals to become certified munitions inspectors?

    • A.

      A. Executive officer.

    • B.

      B. Unit commander.

    • C.

      C. Element chief.

    • D.

      D. Flight chief.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Flight chief.
    Explanation
    The flight chief is responsible for appointing qualified individuals to become certified munitions inspectors. This role is typically held by a senior enlisted member who oversees the operations and personnel within the flight. As the flight chief, they have the authority to select and designate individuals who possess the necessary qualifications and skills to inspect munitions. This ensures that only competent individuals are entrusted with the important task of inspecting and handling potentially dangerous munitions.

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  • 2. 

    (401) What is the minimum skill-level requirement to be a certified munitions inspector?

    • A.

      A. 3.

    • B.

      B. 5.

    • C.

      C. 7.

    • D.

      D. There is no minimum requirement.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 5.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. 5. This suggests that to be a certified munitions inspector, a minimum skill-level requirement of 5 is necessary. This implies that individuals seeking certification as munitions inspectors must possess a certain level of expertise and knowledge in order to effectively perform their duties. It is important for munitions inspectors to have a solid understanding of the subject matter to ensure the safety and security of the munitions they are inspecting.

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  • 3. 

    (401) Who is responsible for determining and assigning the appropriate condition codes to munitions assets?

    • A.

      A. The flight chief.

    • B.

      B. Munitions inspectors.

    • C.

      C. Munitions accountability personnel.

    • D.

      D. The munitions accountable systems officer (MASO).

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Munitions inspectors.
    Explanation
    Munitions inspectors are responsible for determining and assigning the appropriate condition codes to munitions assets. These inspectors have the knowledge and expertise to assess the condition of the assets and determine the appropriate code that reflects their status. This is crucial for maintaining accurate records and ensuring that the assets are properly managed and accounted for. The flight chief, munitions accountability personnel, and the MASO may have other responsibilities related to munitions management, but determining and assigning condition codes is specifically the role of munitions inspectors.

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  • 4. 

    (401) What type of lot number is assigned to a combination of 5.56 mm ball and tracer packed together for field use?

    • A.

      A. Functional.

    • B.

      B. Regrouped.

    • C.

      C. Assembled.

    • D.

      D. Pseudo.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Functional.
    Explanation
    A combination of 5.56 mm ball and tracer packed together for field use would be assigned a functional lot number. This indicates that the ammunition is ready to be used and has undergone testing to ensure its functionality.

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  • 5. 

    (401) The presence of corrosion represents

    • A.

      A. metal returning to a natural state.

    • B.

      B. blending of compounds in the environment.

    • C.

      C. combining specific alloys to create a specific metal.

    • D.

      D. deterioration of the physical properties of each component of a specific metal.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. metal returning to a natural state.
    Explanation
    The presence of corrosion represents metal returning to a natural state. Corrosion occurs when metals react with their environment, such as oxygen or moisture, causing them to deteriorate and break down. This process is a natural occurrence and can lead to the formation of rust or other types of corrosion on the metal surface. Therefore, the presence of corrosion indicates that the metal is undergoing a natural process of returning to its original state.

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  • 6. 

    (401) What type of corrosion is characterized by damage that marks the surface with lines but pits are not visible to the naked eye?

    • A.

      A. Pitting.

    • B.

      B. Etching.

    • C.

      C. Caked rust.

    • D.

      D. Developed rust.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Etching.
    Explanation
    Etching corrosion is characterized by damage that marks the surface with lines but pits are not visible to the naked eye. This type of corrosion occurs when a corrosive substance dissolves the metal surface, leaving behind visible lines or patterns. It is different from pitting corrosion, where small pits or holes are formed on the surface. Caked rust and developed rust are not specific types of corrosion, so they are not the correct answers.

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  • 7. 

    (401) A munitions item or component with its explosives material completely removed is considered

    • A.

      A. inert.

    • B.

      B. empty.

    • C.

      B. empty.

    • D.

      D. nonexplosive.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. empty.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. empty. A munitions item or component with its explosives material completely removed is considered empty. This means that there is no longer any explosive material present in the item or component, making it safe and non-hazardous.

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  • 8. 

    (401) A munitions item or component never intended or designed to contain explosive material is considered

    • A.

      A. nonexplosive.

    • B.

      B. obsolete.

    • C.

      C. empty.

    • D.

      D. inert.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. nonexplosive.
    Explanation
    A munitions item or component that was never intended or designed to contain explosive material is considered nonexplosive. This means that it does not have the capability to explode or cause an explosion. It may still have other uses or functions, but it does not pose a risk of explosion.

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  • 9. 

    (402) When you encounter a ballooned barrier bag, what document do you follow for specific item instructions?

    • A.

      A. AFI 21−201.

    • B.

      B. AFMAN 91−201.

    • C.

      C. Item’s technical order (TO).

    • D.

      D. Local operating instruction (OI).

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Item’s technical order (TO).
    Explanation
    When encountering a ballooned barrier bag, the specific item instructions should be followed according to the item's technical order (TO). The TO provides detailed guidance and procedures on how to handle and use specific items, including those contained within the barrier bag. It is a comprehensive document that outlines the necessary steps and precautions for proper usage, maintenance, and storage of the item. Therefore, referring to the TO ensures that the correct procedures are followed to avoid any mishaps or damage to the item.

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  • 10. 

    (402) What term is used to conspicuously mark previously opened hermetically sealed containers?

    • A.

      A. UNSEALED.

    • B.

      B. COMPRIMISED SEAL.

    • C.

      C. NOT HERMETICALLY SEALED.

    • D.

      D. PRESSURE SENSITIVE SEALED.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. NOT HERMETICALLY SEALED.
    Explanation
    The term "NOT HERMETICALLY SEALED" is used to conspicuously mark previously opened hermetically sealed containers. This indicates that the container was once sealed but is no longer airtight, potentially compromising the quality or safety of the contents.

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  • 11. 

    (402) A shipping inspection is accomplished to ensure that munitions are properly marked or labeled to meet

    • A.

      A. other munitions.

    • B.

      B. municipal codes.

    • C.

      C. transportation requirements.

    • D.

      D. security forces operating instructions.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. transportation requirements.
    Explanation
    A shipping inspection is conducted to ensure that munitions are properly marked or labeled to meet transportation requirements. This includes ensuring that the munitions are packaged and labeled correctly for safe transportation, in compliance with regulations and guidelines set by transportation authorities. The inspection helps to prevent any potential hazards or accidents during the transportation process, ensuring the safety of both the shipment and the individuals involved. Municipal codes, other munitions, and security forces operating instructions are not directly related to the purpose of a shipping inspection.

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  • 12. 

    (402) What inspection ensures that an item is suitable for its intended use before it is signed over to a user?

    • A.

      A. Periodic (PI).

    • B.

      B. Shipping (SI).

    • C.

      C. Receiving (RI).

    • D.

      D. Pre-issue (PII).

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Pre-issue (PII).
    Explanation
    Pre-issue inspection (PII) ensures that an item is suitable for its intended use before it is signed over to a user. This inspection is conducted to verify that the item meets all the necessary requirements and standards, ensuring its functionality, safety, and quality. It helps to prevent any potential issues or defects that may arise during the item's use, ensuring that it is in proper working condition before it is issued to the user.

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  • 13. 

    (402) Who is responsible for managing the installation’s storage monitoring inspection program?

    • A.

      A. Storage section chief.

    • B.

      B. Munitions flight chief.

    • C.

      C. Senior munitions inspector.

    • D.

      D. Munitions accountable systems officer (MASO).

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Senior munitions inspector.
    Explanation
    The senior munitions inspector is responsible for managing the installation's storage monitoring inspection program. This role involves overseeing and coordinating the inspections of storage facilities to ensure compliance with regulations and safety protocols. The senior munitions inspector is responsible for ensuring that proper storage procedures are followed and that any issues or deficiencies are addressed promptly. They play a crucial role in maintaining the safety and security of the installation's storage areas.

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  • 14. 

    (403) Which response best describes condition code B?

    • A.

      A. Serviceable without qualification.

    • B.

      B. Serviceable with qualification.

    • C.

      C. Serviceable but priority issue.

    • D.

      D. Unserviceable repairable.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Serviceable with qualification.
    Explanation
    Condition code B indicates that an item is serviceable with qualification. This means that the item is in working condition and can be used, but it may have certain limitations or requirements that need to be met in order to ensure its proper functioning. This qualification could be related to specific maintenance procedures, usage restrictions, or other conditions that need to be followed for the item to be considered fully functional and safe to use.

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  • 15. 

    (403) Condition code C is best described as

    • A.

      A. serviceable without qualification.

    • B.

      B. serviceable with qualification.

    • C.

      C. serviceable, priority issue.

    • D.

      D. unserviceable repairable.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. serviceable, priority issue.
    Explanation
    Condition code C is best described as "serviceable, priority issue." This means that the item is in a serviceable condition, but there is a priority issue associated with it. This indicates that the item may require immediate attention or action due to its importance or urgency.

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  • 16. 

    (403) Which selection best describes condition code N?

    • A.

      A. Suspended for emergency combat use only.

    • B.

      B. Serviceable without qualification.

    • C.

      C. Serviceable with qualification.

    • D.

      D. Unserviceable repairable.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Suspended for emergency combat use only.
    Explanation
    Condition code N is described as "Suspended for emergency combat use only." This means that the item is not currently in service but can be used in emergency combat situations. The item may require further maintenance or qualification before it can be fully serviceable, but it is still deemed usable in critical situations.

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  • 17. 

    (403) Which unserviceable item tag is used on munitions that are not economical to repair?

    • A.

      A. DD Form 1574.

    • B.

      B. DD Form 1575.

    • C.

      C. DD Form 1577.

    • D.

      D. DD Form 1577–2.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. DD Form 1577.
    Explanation
    DD Form 1577 is used for unserviceable munitions that are not economical to repair. This form is used to document the disposal of these items, indicating that they are beyond repair and should be removed from inventory. It serves as a record of the disposal process and helps ensure proper accountability for the unserviceable munitions.

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  • 18. 

    (404) Which AFTO IMT Form is used to update item lot history for units that do not directly input inspection results into the combat ammunition system (CAS)?

    • A.

      A. 350.

    • B.

      B. 231.

    • C.

      C. 102.

    • D.

      D. 22.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 102.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. 102. The AFTO IMT Form 102 is used to update item lot history for units that do not directly input inspection results into the combat ammunition system (CAS). This form is used to document the inspection, maintenance, and repair history of ammunition items. It allows units to track and record the history of each item, including any inspections, repairs, or maintenance performed on it. The form ensures that accurate and up-to-date information is maintained for each item, even if the unit does not have direct access to the CAS.

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  • 19. 

    (404) You must update historical records in which database before you can dispose of the AFTO IMT Form 102?

    • A.

      A. Deficiency reporting and investigating system (DRIS).

    • B.

      B. Tactical missile reporting system (TMRS).

    • C.

      C. Ammunition disposition request (ADR).

    • D.

      D. Combat ammunition system (CAS).

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Combat ammunition system (CAS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Combat ammunition system (CAS). The question is asking which database needs to be updated before disposing of the AFTO IMT Form 102. The Combat ammunition system (CAS) is the most appropriate database for tracking and managing ammunition inventory and disposal. By updating the historical records in CAS, the disposal process can be properly documented and tracked.

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  • 20. 

    (404) Which is not a turn-in process program option?

    • A.

      A. Found on base (FOB) turn-in.

    • B.

      B. Complete round turn-in.

    • C.

      C. Serviceable turn-in.

    • D.

      D. Custody turn-in.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Serviceable turn-in.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Serviceable turn-in. This option is not a turn-in process program because it suggests that the item being turned in is still in a usable and functional condition. In a turn-in process, items are typically returned because they are no longer needed, damaged, or defective, and therefore not serviceable. The other options, Found on base (FOB) turn-in, Complete round turn-in, and Custody turn-in, all refer to different types of turn-in processes that are commonly used.

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  • 21. 

    (404) Which combat ammunition system (CAS) report must accompany Non-CAS/DODAAC munitions shipments?

    • A.

      A. Periodic inspection report.

    • B.

      B. Quarterly inspection report.

    • C.

      C. Lot history inspection report.

    • D.

      D. Ammunition disposition report.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Lot history inspection report.
    Explanation
    The Lot history inspection report must accompany Non-CAS/DODAAC munitions shipments. This report provides a detailed record of the lot history, including information on production, storage, and handling of the ammunition. It ensures that the recipient has all the necessary information about the lot to ensure safe and proper handling of the munitions.

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  • 22. 

    (405) What report is used to identify a shipping related problem caused by the shipping activity?

    • A.

      A. Lot History Report.

    • B.

      B. Supply Discrepancy Report.

    • C.

      C. Transportation Discrepancy Report.

    • D.

      D. Product Quality Deficiency Report.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Supply Discrepancy Report.
    Explanation
    The Supply Discrepancy Report is used to identify a shipping related problem caused by the shipping activity. This report is typically used to report any discrepancies or issues with the supply chain, such as missing or damaged items, incorrect quantities, or incorrect shipping addresses. It helps to identify and resolve any problems in the shipping process, ensuring that the correct items are delivered to the correct locations in a timely manner.

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  • 23. 

    (405) The SF Form 364, Report of Discrepancy (ROD), is used to determine what type of discrepancy?

    • A.

      A. Issue.

    • B.

      B. Turn-in.

    • C.

      C. Shipping.

    • D.

      D. Receiving.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Shipping.
    Explanation
    The SF Form 364, Report of Discrepancy (ROD), is used to determine shipping discrepancies. This form is used to report any discrepancies or issues that may arise during the shipping process, such as damaged or missing items, incorrect quantities, or packaging errors. It allows for proper documentation and investigation of the shipping discrepancy to ensure that the correct actions are taken to resolve the issue.

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  • 24. 

    (405) Which of the following is an example of a packaging discrepancy?

    • A.

      A. Item received in the wrong condition code.

    • B.

      B. Unacceptable substitutes shipped.

    • C.

      C. Container markings incorrect.

    • D.

      D. Missing documentation.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Container markings incorrect.
    Explanation
    An example of a packaging discrepancy is when the container markings are incorrect. This means that the labels or markings on the packaging do not accurately represent the contents inside. This can lead to confusion, misidentification, or mishandling of the package during transportation or storage.

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  • 25. 

    (405) When using the transportation discrepancy report (TDR), you are identifying a problem against the

    • A.

      A. person who packaged the assets.

    • B.

      B. carrier who delivered the assets.

    • C.

      C. manufacturer who produced the assets.

    • D.

      D. person who certified the assets for transportation.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. carrier who delivered the assets.
    Explanation
    When using the transportation discrepancy report (TDR), you are identifying a problem against the carrier who delivered the assets. The TDR is a document used to report any discrepancies or issues with the delivery of assets. It allows the recipient to document and communicate any damages, shortages, or other problems that occurred during transportation. By identifying the carrier as the responsible party, the TDR helps ensure that the appropriate actions can be taken to resolve the issue and hold the carrier accountable for any damages or losses.

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  • 26. 

    (405) Which of these is used to report problems and defects on military weapon systems which are caused by the manufacturer?

    • A.

      A. Lot History Report.

    • B.

      B. Supply Discrepancy Report.

    • C.

      C. Transportation Discrepancy Report.

    • D.

      D. Product Quality Deficiency Report.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Product Quality Deficiency Report.
    Explanation
    The Product Quality Deficiency Report is used to report problems and defects on military weapon systems caused by the manufacturer. This report allows for the identification and documentation of quality deficiencies, ensuring that the necessary corrective actions can be taken to address the issues and prevent future occurrences. The report helps to maintain the integrity and reliability of military weapon systems by holding manufacturers accountable for any problems or defects that may arise.

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  • 27. 

    (406) You are required to use TO 11A–1–53 for which inspections of inert and empty munitions items?

    • A.

      A. Pre-issue and returned munitions inspections.

    • B.

      B. Returned munitions inspection and periodic.

    • C.

      C. Pre-issue and shipping inspections.

    • D.

      D. Periodic and shipping inspections.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Pre-issue and shipping inspections.
  • 28. 

    (406) Which word is impressed and stenciled on items that have had their explosive material removed and not replaced?

    • A.

      A. Inert.

    • B.

      B. Empty.

    • C.

      C. Dummy.

    • D.

      D. Practice.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Empty.
    Explanation
    The word "empty" is impressed and stenciled on items that have had their explosive material removed and not replaced. This is done to indicate that the item is no longer dangerous and does not contain any explosive material. The word serves as a visual reminder to anyone handling the item that it is safe and does not pose a risk of explosion.

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  • 29. 

    (406) Four holes, no smaller than ¼ inch, are required to be drilled 90° apart for munitions items

    • A.

      A. procured as inert or empty.

    • B.

      B. displayed on a wall plaque.

    • C.

      C. on permanent display in a museum.

    • D.

      D. stock listed as explosive and have had their explosive filler removed.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. stock listed as explosive and have had their explosive filler removed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. stock listed as explosive and have had their explosive filler removed. This means that the munitions items were originally classified as explosive and contained an explosive filler. However, the explosive filler has been removed, making them safe for display or storage. The requirement to drill four holes, no smaller than ¼ inch, 90° apart is likely a safety measure to further ensure that the items cannot be used as explosives.

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  • 30. 

    (406) The material remaining after a munitions item has had its explosive filler removed by either normal functioning or demilitarization is called

    • A.

      A. hazardous waste.

    • B.

      B. munitions residue.

    • C.

      C. nonexplosive material.

    • D.

      D. obsolete munitions waste.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. munitions residue.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. munitions residue. Munitions residue refers to the material that is left behind after the explosive filler has been removed from a munitions item. This can occur through normal functioning or demilitarization processes. It is important to properly handle and dispose of munitions residue due to its potential hazardous nature.

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  • 31. 

    (406) Where do you place the certificate of clearance after you inspect empty containers?

    • A.

      A. Inside the container.

    • B.

      B. Outside the container.

    • C.

      C. Inside the desiccant port.

    • D.

      D. Next to the identification markings.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Inside the container.
    Explanation
    After inspecting empty containers, it is necessary to place the certificate of clearance inside the container. This ensures that the certificate is easily accessible and can be seen by anyone who opens the container. Placing it inside the container also prevents it from getting lost or damaged during transportation or storage.

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  • 32. 

    (406) What must you do to the old munitions identification before you certify a container as empty?

    • A.

      A. Nothing, the next person may need it.

    • B.

      B. Obliterate all markings on the container.

    • C.

      C. Obliterate the old munitions identification markings.

    • D.

      D. Nothing, as long as you stencil “empty” on the container.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Obliterate the old munitions identification markings.
    Explanation
    To certify a container as empty, you must obliterate the old munitions identification markings. This is important to ensure that there is no confusion or potential danger associated with the container's previous contents. By removing or covering up these markings, it helps to prevent any accidental use or mishandling of the container, as well as ensures clear identification of its empty status.

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  • 33. 

    (407) Which procedure is performed during the initial munitions inspection?

    • A.

      A. Internal inspection of railcars, motor vehicles, or aircraft.

    • B.

      B. Identify the type of any corrosion spotted.

    • C.

      C. Visually inspect vehicle seals.

    • D.

      D. Open all damaged containers.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Visually inspect vehicle seals.
    Explanation
    During the initial munitions inspection, one of the procedures performed is the visual inspection of vehicle seals. This involves visually examining the seals on railcars, motor vehicles, or aircraft to ensure they are intact and have not been tampered with. This is an important step to ensure the security and integrity of the munitions during transportation and storage.

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  • 34. 

    (407) Any vehicle found to be in a hazardous condition is considered

    • A.

      A. suspect.

    • B.

      B. restricted.

    • C.

      C. frustrated.

    • D.

      D. suspended.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. suspect.
    Explanation
    If a vehicle is found to be in a hazardous condition, it means that it poses a potential danger or risk. Therefore, it is reasonable to consider such a vehicle as "suspect" because it raises suspicion regarding its safety and reliability. The term "suspect" implies that further investigation or action may be necessary to address the potential hazards associated with the vehicle.

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  • 35. 

    (408) The governing directive for hazardous materials movement by military air is

    • A.

      A. AFJMAN 24–202.

    • B.

      B. AFMAN 24–204.

    • C.

      C. The orange book.

    • D.

      D. CFR–49.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. AFMAN 24–204.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. AFMAN 24–204. This is the governing directive for hazardous materials movement by military air. It provides the guidelines and regulations for the safe transportation of hazardous materials by the military. The other options, AFJMAN 24–202, the orange book, and CFR–49, are not specifically related to hazardous materials movement by military air.

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  • 36. 

    (408) According to AFMAN 24–204, Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipments, personnel trained and qualified to maintain an item by technical specialty for only those hazardous materials in their specialty are called

    • A.

      A. technical specialists.

    • B.

      B. technical journeymen.

    • C.

      C. subject matter specialists.

    • D.

      D. subject matter journeymen.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. technical specialists.
    Explanation
    According to AFMAN 24-204, personnel trained and qualified to maintain hazardous materials in their specialty are referred to as technical specialists. This implies that they possess specialized knowledge and skills in handling and managing hazardous materials. The term "technical journeymen" does not align with the concept of maintaining hazardous materials, while "subject matter specialists" and "subject matter journeymen" are not mentioned in the given source.

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  • 37. 

    (408) Which organization regulates the movement of explosives by commercial aircraft?

    • A.

      A. HQ USAF.

    • B.

      B. The Air Staff.

    • C.

      C. Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D.

      D. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).
    Explanation
    The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) is the organization that regulates the movement of explosives by commercial aircraft. The FAA is responsible for ensuring the safety and security of civil aviation in the United States. They establish and enforce regulations that govern the transportation of hazardous materials, including explosives, by air. This includes setting standards for packaging, labeling, and handling of explosives to prevent accidents and ensure the safety of passengers and crew on board commercial aircraft.

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  • 38. 

    (408) Which of the following regulates the transportation of explosives and other hazardous materials by water?

    • A.

      A. US Navy.

    • B.

      B. US Coast Guard.

    • C.

      C. Homeland Security.

    • D.

      D. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

    Correct Answer
    B. B. US Coast Guard.
    Explanation
    The US Coast Guard is responsible for regulating the transportation of explosives and other hazardous materials by water. They have the authority to enforce regulations and ensure the safety of maritime transportation, including the handling and transportation of hazardous materials. The Coast Guard plays a crucial role in preventing accidents and protecting the environment from potential hazards associated with the transportation of dangerous goods by water.

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  • 39. 

    (408) The choice for transporting munitions by an ocean-going vessel is the

    • A.

      A. 40-foot MILVAN container.

    • B.

      B. 20-foot MILVAN container.

    • C.

      C. 40-foot ISO container.

    • D.

      D. 20-foot ISO container.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 20-foot ISO container.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. 20-foot ISO container. ISO containers are standardized shipping containers that are widely used for transporting goods by sea. The 20-foot size is one of the most common sizes and is suitable for transporting munitions. The smaller size allows for easier handling and loading onto the vessel. Additionally, using ISO containers ensures compatibility with various transportation modes and simplifies the logistics process.

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  • 40. 

    (409) What United Nations (UN) specification is designed to keep hazardous materials inside containers and away from people and the environment?

    • A.

      A. Performance oriented packaging.

    • B.

      B. Combat ammunition system.

    • C.

      C. Container allocation system.

    • D.

      D. Packaging operations point.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Performance oriented packaging.
    Explanation
    Performance oriented packaging is a United Nations (UN) specification that is designed to keep hazardous materials inside containers and away from people and the environment. This type of packaging is specifically engineered to meet certain performance standards, such as withstanding drops, punctures, and other potential hazards during transportation. It aims to ensure that hazardous materials are securely contained and do not pose a risk to human health or the environment.

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  • 41. 

    (409) When you do not have an original container you can have one built using

    • A.

      A. the special packaging instruction (SPI) drawing.

    • B.

      B. AFMAN 24−204.

    • C.

      C. MIL-STD 129.

    • D.

      D. The item’s technical order (TO).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. the special packaging instruction (SPI) drawing.
    Explanation
    When you do not have an original container, you can have one built using the special packaging instruction (SPI) drawing. The SPI drawing provides detailed instructions on how to construct a container that meets the specific requirements for packaging and transporting a particular item. It includes information such as the dimensions, materials, and construction methods needed to ensure the safe and secure transportation of the item. By following the instructions provided in the SPI drawing, a custom container can be built to meet the specific needs of the item being packaged.

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  • 42. 

    (410) A common document used for shipping munitions from army depots or contract facilities is

    • A.

      A. AF Form 2005.

    • B.

      B. DD Form 1131.

    • C.

      C. DD Form 1149.

    • D.

      D. DD Form 1150.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. DD Form 1149.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. DD Form 1149. DD Form 1149 is a common document used for shipping munitions from army depots or contract facilities. This form is used to provide detailed information about the shipment, including the type and quantity of munitions, the shipping address, and any special handling instructions. It is an important document for ensuring that the correct items are shipped and delivered safely.

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  • 43. 

    (410) When shipping mission capable (MICAP), you have to submit documentation to the transportation management office (TMO) within how many hours of notification?

    • A.

      A. 12.

    • B.

      B. 24.

    • C.

      C. 36.

    • D.

      D. 48.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 24.
    Explanation
    When shipping mission capable (MICAP), it is necessary to submit documentation to the transportation management office (TMO) within 24 hours of notification. This ensures that the necessary paperwork is processed promptly and the shipment can be arranged and executed in a timely manner. Failing to submit the documentation within the specified timeframe may result in delays or complications in the shipping process.

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  • 44. 

    (411) A munitions storage magazine is

    • A.

      A. used for holding cartridges in some firearms types.

    • B.

      B. a building or structure used for storing explosives.

    • C.

      C. a magazine published for munitions specialists.

    • D.

      D. used for shipping munitions by any method.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. a building or structure used for storing explosives.
    Explanation
    A munitions storage magazine is a building or structure specifically designed and used for storing explosives. It is not used for holding cartridges in firearms, nor is it a magazine published for munitions specialists. Additionally, it is not solely used for shipping munitions, but rather for long-term storage and safekeeping of explosives.

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  • 45. 

    (411) What are the two categories of earth-covered magazines?

    • A.

      A. Cover and ultra-cover.

    • B.

      B. Conventional and nuclear.

    • C.

      C. Standard and nonstandard.

    • D.

      D. Above ground and below ground.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Standard and nonstandard.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Standard and nonstandard. Earth-covered magazines are used for storing explosives and ammunition. Standard magazines are designed to meet specific safety requirements and are commonly used for storing small quantities of explosives. Nonstandard magazines, on the other hand, do not meet the standard safety requirements and are used for storing larger quantities of explosives. This categorization helps ensure proper storage and safety protocols are followed based on the quantity of explosives being stored.

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  • 46. 

    (411) Earth-covered magazines have a firebreak of how many feet around the ventilators?

    • A.

      A. 20.

    • B.

      B. 15.

    • C.

      C. 10.

    • D.

      D. 5.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 5.
    Explanation
    Earth-covered magazines have a firebreak of 5 feet around the ventilators. This firebreak is necessary to prevent the spread of fire from the ventilators to the surrounding earth cover. By having a 5-foot firebreak, there is a buffer zone that helps to contain any potential fire and minimize the risk of it spreading further.

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  • 47. 

    (411) What type of facility is normally used to store only class/division 1.3 and 1.4 munitions?

    • A.

      A. Claytile storage warehouse.

    • B.

      B. Modular-constructed igloo.

    • C.

      C. Corbetta magazine.

    • D.

      D. Standard igloo.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Claytile storage warehouse.
    Explanation
    A claytile storage warehouse is normally used to store only class/division 1.3 and 1.4 munitions. This type of facility provides the necessary protection and containment for these types of explosives. Claytile construction offers excellent fire resistance and insulation properties, making it suitable for storing hazardous materials. Additionally, the design of the warehouse can be customized to meet specific storage requirements, such as ventilation and temperature control.

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  • 48. 

    (411) If a lock will not open, what type of lubricant do you use after verifying that the keyway is clear?

    • A.

      A. Hydrogen dioxide.

    • B.

      B. Ammonium nitrate.

    • C.

      C. Molybdenum disulfide.

    • D.

      D. Hydrogen sulfurperoxide.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Molybdenum disulfide.
    Explanation
    Molybdenum disulfide is the correct answer because it is a common lubricant used for locks. It has excellent lubricating properties and is often used in high-friction applications like locks. It helps to reduce friction between the moving parts of the lock, allowing it to open smoothly. Hydrogen dioxide, ammonium nitrate, and hydrogen sulfurperoxide are not suitable lubricants for locks and may even cause damage to the lock mechanism.

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  • 49. 

    (411) How often should you put grease or oil into the lock cylinder when lubricating locks?

    • A.

      A. Never.

    • B.

      B. Monthly.

    • C.

      C. Semiannually.

    • D.

      D. Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Never.
    Explanation
    Lock cylinders should never be lubricated with grease or oil. Grease or oil can attract dirt and debris, causing the lock to become clogged and difficult to operate. Additionally, lubricants can break down over time and become sticky, further hindering the lock's functionality. Instead, lock cylinders should be lubricated with a dry lubricant, such as graphite powder or silicone spray, which will not attract dirt and will keep the lock operating smoothly.

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  • 50. 

    (412) The source document for explosives capacities and controls for each facility in a munitions storage area is the explosives

    • A.

      A. license.

    • B.

      B. waiver.

    • C.

      C. site plan.

    • D.

      D. inventory.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. site plan.
    Explanation
    The source document for explosives capacities and controls for each facility in a munitions storage area is the site plan. This plan provides detailed information about the layout and organization of the storage area, including the locations of different facilities, the capacity of each facility, and the necessary controls and safety measures in place. It helps ensure that the storage area is properly designed and managed to prevent accidents and ensure the safe handling of explosives. A license refers to the permission or authorization to handle explosives, a waiver is an exemption from certain requirements, and an inventory is a list of items or materials present in the storage area.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 09, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Monkeyheads92
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