A Quick Pharmacology Test!

1.

Which of the following statement is CORRECT about tramadol?

A.

It modulates pain mainly through inhibition of reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine.
B.

It depresses the respiration in therapeutic doses.
C.

It is a mixed opioid agonist.
D.

It is an alternative to morphine in pre-unaesthetic medication.

Correct Answer
A. It modulates pain mainly through inhibition of reuptake of serotonin and norepinepHrine.

Explanation
Tramadol is a medication that is used to treat moderate to severe pain. It acts by modulating pain through the inhibition of the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. This means that it increases the levels of these neurotransmitters in the brain, which can help to reduce the perception of pain. Tramadol is not a pure opioid agonist, but rather a mixed opioid agonist, meaning it has both opioid and non-opioid mechanisms of action. It is not primarily used as a respiratory depressant, and it is not typically used as an alternative to morphine in pre-anesthetic medication.

Rate this question:

2.

Methadone is used in the treatment of morphine dependence as:

A.

It is a weak opioid agonist that lacks physiological dependence.
B.

It is a pure opioid antagonist.
C.

It reverse the respiratory centre depression induced by morphine.
D.

Its withdrawal symptoms are less and tolerable than those of morphine.

Correct Answer
D. Its withdrawal symptoms are less and tolerable than those of morpHine.

Explanation
Methadone is used in the treatment of morphine dependence because its withdrawal symptoms are less and tolerable than those of morphine. This means that when individuals are trying to stop using morphine, they can use methadone to help manage their withdrawal symptoms in a more manageable way. Methadone is not a weak opioid agonist, pure opioid antagonist, or a drug that reverses the respiratory center depression induced by morphine.

Rate this question:

3.

Which of the following agents is correctly matched with it's adverse effects?

A.

Morphine/ increased intra-biliary pressure.
B.

Pethidine/ Bradycardia.
C.

Scopolamine/ Vomiting.
D.

Tramadol/ respiratory depression.

Correct Answer
A. MorpHine/ increased intra-biliary pressure.

Explanation
Morphine is correctly matched with its adverse effect of increased intra-biliary pressure. Morphine is known to cause spasm of the sphincter of Oddi, which can lead to increased pressure in the biliary system. This can result in complications such as biliary colic, pancreatitis, or cholangitis. It is important to monitor patients receiving morphine for any signs or symptoms of biliary obstruction or dysfunction.

Rate this question:

4.

A 32-year-old patent was admitted in the emergency room suffering from hypotension, bronchospasm, myosis, urinary retention & depressed respiration. He most probably suffers from an overdose of:

A.

Atropine
B.

OPCs
C.

Morphine
D.

Pethidine

Correct Answer
C. MorpHine

Explanation
The patient's symptoms of hypotension, bronchospasm, myosis, urinary retention, and depressed respiration are consistent with an overdose of morphine. Morphine is an opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression, hypotension, and urinary retention as side effects. Additionally, bronchospasm and myosis are also known side effects of morphine overdose. OPCs (organophosphorus compounds) are typically associated with symptoms such as excessive sweating, miosis, and increased bronchial secretions. Atropine is used to treat symptoms such as bronchospasm, myosis, and urinary retention, so it would not be the cause of these symptoms. Pethidine is an opioid analgesic similar to morphine but is less commonly associated with respiratory depression.

Rate this question:

5.

Morphine interferes with peripheral nociceptors by inhibiting the release of excitatory neurotransmitter in afferent nerve ending through:

A.

Activation of adenyl cyclase.
B.

Prevention of Na+ ions influx.
C.

Decrease influx of Ca+2 ions.
D.

Facilitation of efflux of K ions.

Correct Answer
C. Decrease influx of Ca+2 ions.

Explanation
Morphine inhibits the release of excitatory neurotransmitters in afferent nerve endings by decreasing the influx of Ca+2 ions. This is significant because Ca+2 ions play a crucial role in the release of neurotransmitters. By reducing the influx of Ca+2 ions, morphine effectively decreases the release of these excitatory neurotransmitters, which ultimately interferes with peripheral nociceptors and helps alleviate pain.

Rate this question:

6.

On comparing morphine to atropine, the following statement is correct:

A.

They both change pupil size when instilled topically.
B.

They are both contraindicated un BPH.
C.

That both lead to cutaneous flushing and wet skin.
D.

They are used as a pre-anesthetic medication to guard against respiratory centre depression.

Correct Answer
B. They are both contraindicated un BpH.

Explanation
The correct answer is that both morphine and atropine are contraindicated in BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). BPH is a condition characterized by the enlargement of the prostate gland, which can cause urinary symptoms such as difficulty urinating or frequent urination. Both morphine and atropine can worsen these symptoms and are therefore contraindicated in individuals with BPH.

Rate this question:

7.

In the treatment of morphine addiction. the following line of therapy is correct?

A.

Hospitalization and gradual replacement of morphine by pethidine
B.

Immediate administration of single oral dose of naltroxone
C.

Stop morphine and performance of gastric lavage
D.

Gradual withdrawal of morphine and its replacement by methadone

Correct Answer
D. Gradual withdrawal of morpHine and its replacement by methadone

Explanation
Gradual withdrawal of morphine and its replacement by methadone is the correct line of therapy in the treatment of morphine addiction. Methadone is a long-acting opioid agonist that can help reduce withdrawal symptoms and cravings associated with morphine addiction. By gradually tapering off morphine and replacing it with methadone, the patient can safely and effectively transition to a more manageable opioid. This approach allows for a smoother withdrawal process and helps prevent relapse.

Rate this question: