Age 2A672 (Vol 1)

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| By Lo973k3p

Lo973k3p

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 681

Questions: 88 | Attempts: 297 | Updated: Mar 19, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

(001) What is the simplest form of matter?
- A.
  
  Mixture.
- B.
  
  Electrons.
- C.
  
  Element.
- D.
  
  Compund.
Correct Answer
C. Element.

Explanation
The correct answer is Element. An element is the simplest form of matter because it consists of only one type of atom. It cannot be broken down into simpler substances through chemical means. Elements are represented by symbols on the periodic table and there are currently 118 known elements.

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2.

(001) In an atom, what electrons contain the most energy?
- A.
  
  Valence electrons.
- B.
  
  Orbiting electrons.
- C.
  
  K shell electrons.
- D.
  
  The energy is shared equally by all electrons.
Correct Answer
A. Valence electrons.

Explanation
Valence electrons contain the most energy in an atom. These are the electrons located in the outermost energy level or shell of an atom. Valence electrons are involved in chemical reactions and bonding with other atoms, which requires energy. Therefore, they have the highest energy compared to the electrons in other shells or energy levels.

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3.

(001) If there are eight electrons in the outer most shell of an atom, then it is considered
- A.
  
  Charged.
- B.
  
  Stable.
- C.
  
  Unstable.
- D.
  
  Complete.
Correct Answer
B. Stable.

Explanation
An atom with eight electrons in its outermost shell is considered stable because it has achieved a full valence shell, which is the most stable configuration for an atom. The outermost shell, also known as the valence shell, is responsible for the atom's chemical behavior and interactions with other atoms. When the valence shell is complete with eight electrons, the atom is less likely to gain or lose electrons, making it stable and less reactive.

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4.

(001) Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known as
- A.
  
  Insulators.
- B.
  
  Conductors.
- C.
  
  Stable atoms.
- D.
  
  Semiconductors.
Correct Answer
A. Insulators.

Explanation
Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known as insulators. Insulators are materials that do not conduct electricity easily because their electrons are tightly bound to their atoms and do not move freely. This means that they cannot carry an electric current. In contrast, conductors allow the easy flow of electrons and can carry electricity. Stable atoms refer to atoms that have a full outer electron shell, while semiconductors are materials that have properties in between those of conductors and insulators.

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5.

(001) The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move
- A.
  
  Inward.
- B.
  
  Inward, then outward.
- C.
  
  Outward.
- D.
  
  Outward, then inward.
Correct Answer
C. Outward.

Explanation
The correct answer is outward because positive ions have a deficiency of electrons, resulting in an overall positive charge. As a result, the electrostatic field lines around a positive ion move away from the ion, indicating an outward direction. This movement occurs due to the repulsion between like charges, causing the field lines to spread out and move away from the positive ion.

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6.

(001) The force required to move free electrons through a conductor is known as
- A.
  
  Current.
- B.
  
  Negative charge.
- C.
  
  Voltage.
- D.
  
  Electrostatic force.
Correct Answer
C. Voltage.

Explanation
Voltage is the force or potential difference that drives the flow of electrons through a conductor. It is the measure of the energy per unit charge required to move the electrons. Current, on the other hand, refers to the actual flow of electrons. Negative charge and electrostatic force are not accurate terms to describe the force required to move electrons through a conductor.

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7.

(002) What are factors that affect the resistance of a material?
- A.
  
  Area, weight, and state of material.
- B.
  
  Temperature, weight, and state of material.
- C.
  
  Area, temperature, and type of material.
- D.
  
  Temperature, type of material, and state of material.
Correct Answer
C. Area, temperature, and type of material.

Explanation
The factors that affect the resistance of a material are its area, temperature, and type of material. The resistance of a material is directly proportional to its area, meaning that a larger area will result in higher resistance. Temperature also affects resistance, as an increase in temperature leads to an increase in resistance. Additionally, the type of material plays a role in resistance, as different materials have different resistivities.

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8.

(002) What is the resistance in a circuit if the power rating is 40 watts and total current is 2 amps?
- A.
  
  40 ohms.
- B.
  
  10 ohms.
- C.
  
  20 ohms.
- D.
  
  0.5 ohms.
Correct Answer
C. 20 ohms.

Explanation
The power rating of a circuit is given by the formula P = I^2 * R, where P is the power, I is the current, and R is the resistance. In this question, we are given that the power rating is 40 watts and the total current is 2 amps. By rearranging the formula, we can solve for the resistance R = P / I^2. Substituting the given values, we get R = 40 / 2^2 = 40 / 4 = 10 ohms. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 ohms.

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0
1
9.

(002) In a series-parallel circuit, find RT (total resistance) if series resistor R1 = 7 ohms, and parallel resistors R2 and R3 = 8 ohms.
- A.
  
  23 ohms.
- B.
  
  11 ohms.
- C.
  
  15 ohms.
- D.
  
  8 ohms.
Correct Answer
B. 11 ohms.

Explanation
In a series-parallel circuit, the total resistance (RT) can be calculated by adding the resistances of the series resistors and the reciprocal of the sum of the reciprocals of the parallel resistors. In this case, the series resistor R1 has a resistance of 7 ohms. The parallel resistors R2 and R3 have a combined resistance of 8 ohms. Therefore, the total resistance is calculated as 7 + (1/(1/8 + 1/8)) = 7 + (1/(1/4)) = 7 + 4 = 11 ohms.

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10.

(002) In a series-parallel circuit, the series current at I1 = 9 amps; in the two parallel branches, I2 = 5 amps; and the value of I3 is not listed. Use Ohm's law to find the value of I3 and IT.
- A.
  
  I3 = 5 amps and IT = 14 amps.
- B.
  
  I3 = 4 amps and IT = 9 amps.
- C.
  
  I3 = 4 amps and IT = 18 amps..
- D.
  
  Not enough information to solve.
Correct Answer
B. I3 = 4 amps and IT = 9 amps.

Explanation
The given question provides information about the series current (I1 = 9 amps) and the current in one of the parallel branches (I2 = 5 amps). To find the value of I3 and IT, we can use Ohm's law, which states that current (I) is equal to voltage (V) divided by resistance (R). Since the resistance is not provided, we cannot directly calculate the values of I3 and IT. Therefore, the correct answer is "Not enough information to solve."

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11.

(002) In a series-parallel circuit, total voltage is 12 volts, the value of E1 in the series portions of the circuit is unknown. There are two parallel branches (E2 = 3 volts) and the value of E3 in the second parallel branch is unknown. Using Ohm's law, find the value of E1 and E3.
- A.
  
  E3 = 9 volts and E1 = 3 volts.
- B.
  
  E3 = 9 volts and E1 = 12 volts.
- C.
  
  E3 = 3 volts and E1 = 9 volts.
- D.
  
  E3 = 3 volts and E1 = 6 volts.
Correct Answer
C. E3 = 3 volts and E1 = 9 volts.

Explanation
In a series-parallel circuit, the total voltage across the circuit is equal to the sum of the voltages across each component. Given that the total voltage is 12 volts and E2 is 3 volts, the remaining voltage (12 - 3 = 9 volts) must be divided between E1 and E3. Since E1 is in the series portion of the circuit, it must have the same voltage as the total voltage (9 volts). Therefore, E1 = 9 volts. E3, being in the parallel branch with E2, must have the same voltage as E2 (3 volts). Therefore, E3 = 3 volts.

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12.

(002) What is the difference between an open and a short?
- A.
  
  An open causes resistance to decrease; a short causes resistance to increase.
- B.
  
  No current flow in an open circuit; excessive current flow in a shorted component.
- C.
  
  Minimum voltage development across the open component; maximum voltage development across the shorted component.
- D.
  
  Excessive current flow in an open circuit; no current flow in a shorted component.
Correct Answer
B. No current flow in an open circuit; excessive current flow in a shorted component.

Explanation
An open circuit refers to a break or discontinuity in the circuit, which prevents the flow of current. Therefore, there is no current flow in an open circuit. On the other hand, a short circuit occurs when there is an unintended connection between two points of a circuit with low resistance, causing excessive current flow. Hence, there is excessive current flow in a shorted component.

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13.

(003) When voltage is induced into a conductor by a relative motion between the conductor and a magnetic field this principle is known as
- A.
  
  Magnetism.
- B.
  
  Reluctance.
- C.
  
  Direct current.
- D.
  
  Electromagnetic induction.
Correct Answer
D. Electromagnetic induction.

Explanation
Electromagnetic induction is the principle where voltage is induced into a conductor by the relative motion between the conductor and a magnetic field. This phenomenon was discovered by Michael Faraday in the early 19th century and is the basis for the operation of generators and transformers. It explains how electrical energy can be generated by moving a magnet through a coil of wire or by changing the magnetic field within a coil.

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14.

(003) In an inductive circuit, what is meant by current lags voltage by 90 degrees?
- A.
  
  Current is maximum when voltage is zero; voltage is maximum when current is zero.
- B.
  
  Current is zero when voltage is zero; voltage is maximum when current is maximum.
- C.
  
  If current decreases, voltage aids the decrease.
- D.
  
  If current increases, voltage aids the increase.
Correct Answer
A. Current is maximum when voltage is zero; voltage is maximum when current is zero.

Explanation
In an inductive circuit, the current lags voltage by 90 degrees means that the current reaches its maximum value when the voltage is zero, and the voltage reaches its maximum value when the current is zero. This is because in an inductive circuit, the current takes time to build up due to the presence of inductance, causing it to lag behind the voltage.

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15.

(004) What is the basic principle of operation for transformers?
- A.
  
  Mutual induction.
- B.
  
  Magnetic induction.
- C.
  
  Counterelectromotive force.
- D.
  
  Primary and secondary induction.
Correct Answer
A. Mutual induction.

Explanation
The basic principle of operation for transformers is mutual induction. This means that when an alternating current flows through the primary coil, it creates a changing magnetic field which induces a voltage in the secondary coil. This voltage can be stepped up or stepped down depending on the ratio of turns in the primary and secondary coils. Mutual induction is the fundamental concept that allows transformers to efficiently transfer electrical energy from one circuit to another.

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16.

(004) What transformer winding acts as a conductor and provides the path into which the voltage is induced?
- A.
  
  Field.
- B.
  
  Primary.
- C.
  
  Secondary.
- D.
  
  Stationary.
Correct Answer
C. Secondary.

Explanation
The secondary winding of a transformer acts as a conductor and provides the path into which the voltage is induced. When an alternating current flows through the primary winding, it creates a changing magnetic field which induces a voltage in the secondary winding. This voltage can then be used to power electrical devices or be further transformed to a different voltage level. The secondary winding is typically designed to have a different number of turns than the primary winding, allowing for voltage transformation.

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17.

(005) If the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, how is capacitance affected?
- A.
  
  Capacitance increases.
- B.
  
  Capacitance decreases.
- C.
  
  Electrons are distorted and scattered.
- D.
  
  Electrostatic force between the plates decreases.
Correct Answer
A. Capacitance increases.

Explanation
When the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, the distance between the plates decreases, resulting in an increase in the capacitance. This is because capacitance is directly proportional to the surface area of the plates and inversely proportional to the distance between them. Therefore, increasing the size of the plates increases the surface area, which in turn increases the capacitance.

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18.

(005) What statement best describes a capacitive circuit?
- A.
  
  Has the ability to conduct in all directions when gated or discharged.
- B.
  
  Has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other.
- C.
  
  Applied voltage leads current by 90 degrees.
- D.
  
  Current leads applied voltage by 90 degrees.
Correct Answer
D. Current leads applied voltage by 90 degrees.

Explanation
A capacitive circuit is characterized by the ability of the current to lead the applied voltage by 90 degrees. This means that the current reaches its peak value before the voltage does in the circuit. Capacitors store electrical energy and release it when the voltage changes, causing the current to flow. Due to the storage and release of energy in the capacitor, the current leads the voltage in a capacitive circuit.

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19.

(005) In what type of circuit(s) does a capacitor oppose any change in voltage?
- A.
  
  Alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC)
- B.
  
  Pulsating DC.
- C.
  
  AC.
- D.
  
  Pure DC.
Correct Answer
C. AC.

Explanation
A capacitor opposes any change in voltage in an AC circuit because it can store and release electrical energy in response to the alternating current. In an AC circuit, the voltage constantly changes direction and magnitude, and the capacitor resists these changes by storing energy when the voltage is increasing and releasing energy when the voltage is decreasing. This behavior allows the capacitor to oppose any sudden changes in voltage and stabilize the circuit. In contrast, in a DC circuit, the voltage remains constant, so a capacitor does not oppose any change in voltage.

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20.

(006) What statement best describes a diode?
- A.
  
  Is a three-terminal device.
- B.
  
  Has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other.
- C.
  
  Is a five-terminal device.
- D.
  
  Has the ability to conduct in all directions when gated or discharged.
Correct Answer
B. Has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other.

Explanation
A diode is a two-terminal device that allows current to flow in only one direction and blocks it in the opposite direction. This is achieved by the presence of a PN junction, which acts as a one-way valve for electric current. When the diode is forward-biased, it allows current to flow freely, but when it is reverse-biased, it acts as an insulator and prevents current from passing through. Therefore, the statement "Has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other" accurately describes a diode.

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21.

(006) What are the minority carriers in P-type material?
- A.
  
  Neutrons.
- B.
  
  Holes.
- C.
  
  Electrons.
- D.
  
  Protons.
Correct Answer
C. Electrons.

Explanation
In P-type material, the majority carriers are holes, which are positively charged. Minority carriers, on the other hand, are the minority type of charge carriers present in the material. In P-type material, the minority carriers are electrons, which are negatively charged. These electrons are generated due to thermal excitation or impurity doping, and they can move through the material, but their concentration is much lower compared to the majority carriers (holes).

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22.

(007) The area of a semiconductor where P-type material is joined to N-type material is known as
- A.
  
  Dielectric region.
- B.
  
  Depletion region.
- C.
  
  Depletion field.
- D.
  
  PN region.
Correct Answer
B. Depletion region.

Explanation
The area where P-type material is joined to N-type material in a semiconductor is called the depletion region. This region is formed due to the diffusion of charge carriers from one type of material to the other, creating a region depleted of majority charge carriers. This depletion region acts as a barrier to the flow of current, and it plays a crucial role in the operation of various semiconductor devices such as diodes and transistors.

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23.

(007) A junction diode has how many PN junctions(s)?
- A.
  
  1.
- B.
  
  2.
- C.
  
  3.
- D.
  
  4.
Correct Answer
A. 1.

Explanation
A junction diode has only one PN junction. This junction is formed by the combination of a P-type semiconductor and an N-type semiconductor. The P-type region has an excess of positively charged holes, while the N-type region has an excess of negatively charged electrons. The junction between the two regions forms a depletion region, which acts as a barrier to the flow of current in one direction. Therefore, a junction diode has only one PN junction.

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24.

(007) If a negative potential is connected to the cathode and a positive potential is connected to the anode of a PN junction, the diode is
- A.
  
  Reverse biased.
- B.
  
  Turned on.
- C.
  
  Forward biased.
- D.
  
  Not allowing current to flow.
Correct Answer
C. Forward biased.

Explanation
When a negative potential is connected to the cathode and a positive potential is connected to the anode of a PN junction, it creates a forward bias. In this configuration, the positive potential at the anode repels the majority charge carriers in the P-region towards the junction, while the negative potential at the cathode repels the majority charge carriers in the N-region towards the junction. This reduces the width of the depletion region and allows current to flow through the diode. Hence, the diode is forward biased.

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25.

(008) In a circuit using a bridge rectifier, how many diodes are forward biased during the first cycle of alternating current (AC)?
- A.
  
  4.
- B.
  
  3.
- C.
  
  2.
- D.
  
  1.
Correct Answer
C. 2.

Explanation
In a circuit using a bridge rectifier, there are two diodes that are forward biased during the first cycle of alternating current (AC). The bridge rectifier is a configuration of four diodes that allows the current to flow in one direction by alternating the forward bias of the diodes. During the positive half-cycle of the AC input, two diodes are forward biased and allow the current to flow through them, while the other two diodes are reverse biased and block the current. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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26.

(009) How is a zener diode connected in a circuit to regulate voltage?
- A.
  
  In parallel to the load.
- B.
  
  In series with the load.
- C.
  
  In parallel to the resistor.
- D.
  
  In series with the resistor.
Correct Answer
A. In parallel to the load.

Explanation
A zener diode is connected in parallel to the load in a circuit to regulate voltage. When connected in this way, the zener diode acts as a voltage regulator by maintaining a constant voltage across the load, regardless of variations in the input voltage. This is achieved by allowing current to flow through the zener diode when the voltage across the load exceeds the zener voltage, effectively limiting the voltage to the desired level.

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27.

(009) How is the zener diode connected in a circuit to protect the load?
- A.
  
  In parallel to the resistor.
- B.
  
  In series with the load.
- C.
  
  In parallel to the load.
- D.
  
  Forward biased.
Correct Answer
C. In parallel to the load.

Explanation
The zener diode is connected in parallel to the load in order to protect it. When the voltage across the load exceeds the breakdown voltage of the zener diode, it starts conducting and provides a low-resistance path for the excess current to flow through. This prevents the voltage from rising further and protects the load from damage. Connecting the zener diode in parallel ensures that it only conducts when necessary, while allowing the load to operate normally under normal voltage conditions.

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28.

(090) What is the primary use of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR)?
- A.
  
  Electronic switch.
- B.
  
  Voltage regulator.
- C.
  
  Circuit amplifier.
- D.
  
  Spike protector.
Correct Answer
A. Electronic switch.

Explanation
A silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) is primarily used as an electronic switch. It is a semiconductor device that allows current to flow in one direction and blocks it in the opposite direction until triggered by a control signal. This makes it suitable for applications where precise control of power flow is required, such as in motor control, lighting control, and power supply circuits. It can handle high current and voltage levels, making it an efficient and reliable choice for switching applications.

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29.

(010) The silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) has how many layers?
- A.
  
  1.
- B.
  
  2.
- C.
  
  3.
- D.
  
  4.
Correct Answer
D. 4.

Explanation
The silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) is a four-layer semiconductor device. It consists of three PN junctions and four layers of alternating P and N-type material. The four layers are represented by P-N-P-N configuration, with the middle N-type layer acting as the gate. This structure allows the SCR to control the flow of electric current by using a small gate current to trigger a large current flow through the device.

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30.

(010) In order to turn off a silicone-controlled rectifier (SCR), the current must drop below the
- A.
  
  Trigger current.
- B.
  
  Holding current.
- C.
  
  Variable current.
- D.
  
  Breakdown current.
Correct Answer
B. Holding current.

Explanation
When turning off a silicone-controlled rectifier (SCR), the current must drop below the holding current. The holding current is the minimum current required to keep the SCR in the off state once it has been triggered. If the current drops below this threshold, the SCR will turn off. The trigger current, on the other hand, is the minimum current required to initially turn on the SCR. Variable current and breakdown current are not relevant to turning off the SCR.

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31.

(011) If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, what type of transistor is it?
- A.
  
  N-type.
- B.
  
  P-type.
- C.
  
  NPN.
- D.
  
  PNP.
Correct Answer
C. NPN.

Explanation
If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, it indicates that the transistor is an NPN type. In an NPN transistor, the majority charge carriers are negative electrons, and the arrow represents the direction of the conventional current flow. The arrow pointing away from the base signifies that the current flows from the emitter to the base and then to the collector in an NPN transistor.

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32.

(011) What is the major difference between an NPN transistor and a PNP transistor?
- A.
  
  A PNP transistor can only be used as a regulator.
- B.
  
  An NPN transistor can only be used as a switch.
- C.
  
  Direction of current flow.
- D.
  
  Number of junctions.
Correct Answer
C. Direction of current flow.

Explanation
The major difference between an NPN transistor and a PNP transistor is the direction of current flow. In an NPN transistor, the current flows from the collector to the emitter, while in a PNP transistor, the current flows from the emitter to the collector. This difference in current flow direction is due to the arrangement of the semiconductor materials and the doping of the transistor.

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33.

(011) The most positive point in a PNP bipolar transistor is the
- A.
  
  Emitter.
- B.
  
  Load circuit.
- C.
  
  Collector.
- D.
  
  Base.
Correct Answer
A. Emitter.

Explanation
The most positive point in a PNP bipolar transistor is the emitter. In a PNP transistor, the emitter is doped with a higher concentration of positive charge carriers (holes) compared to the base and collector regions. This creates a forward bias between the emitter and base junction, allowing current to flow from the emitter to the base. The emitter is responsible for injecting majority charge carriers into the base region, which then controls the transistor's overall operation. Therefore, the emitter is considered the most positive point in a PNP bipolar transistor.

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34.

(011) The circuit in the bipolar transistor that carries 5 percent of the current flow is the
- A.
  
  Emitter-collector circuit.
- B.
  
  Control circuit.
- C.
  
  Base circuit.
- D.
  
  Load circuit.
Correct Answer
B. Control circuit.

Explanation
The control circuit in a bipolar transistor is responsible for regulating the flow of current between the emitter and collector. It acts as a switch, allowing or blocking the flow of current based on the input signal at the base. This circuit plays a crucial role in controlling the amplification and operation of the transistor. The emitter-collector circuit, on the other hand, is the main current-carrying path, while the base circuit provides the input signal. The load circuit is the external circuit connected to the transistor for utilizing its output.

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35.

(012) What happens if the emitter-base (E-B) current is increased in a transistor amplifier?
- A.
  
  Resistance decreases and current through the load circuit decreases.
- B.
  
  Resistance increases and current flow decreases.
- C.
  
  Current decreases through the emitter-collector (E-C) circuit.
- D.
  
  Current increases through the E-C circuit.
Correct Answer
D. Current increases through the E-C circuit.

Explanation
If the emitter-base (E-B) current is increased in a transistor amplifier, it will cause the current to increase through the emitter-collector (E-C) circuit. This is because the E-B current controls the amount of current flowing through the E-C circuit. By increasing the E-B current, more current is allowed to flow through the E-C circuit, resulting in an increase in current through that circuit.

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36.

What are the three leads in a unijunction transistor (UJT) called?
- A.
  
  Anode, cathode, and gate.
- B.
  
  Emitter, base 1, and base 2.
- C.
  
  Emitter, collector, and base.
- D.
  
  Common emitter, common collector, and common base.
Correct Answer
B. Emitter, base 1, and base 2.

Explanation
The three leads in a unijunction transistor (UJT) are called emitter, base 1, and base 2.

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37.

(013) The emitter in a unijunction transistor (UJT) always points toward the
- A.
  
  Base 1 lead.
- B.
  
  Collector.
- C.
  
  Emitter.
- D.
  
  Gate.
Correct Answer
A. Base 1 lead.

Explanation
In a unijunction transistor (UJT), the emitter always points toward the base 1 lead. This is because the base 1 lead is the primary input terminal for the UJT, and the emitter is connected to the base 1 lead through a resistor. The emitter is responsible for controlling the current flow between the two base terminals, and its orientation towards the base 1 lead facilitates this control. The collector, on the other hand, is connected to the external circuit and is not directly involved in controlling the UJT's operation.

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38.

(013) What controls the firing time of the unijunction transistor (UJT)?
- A.
  
  Intrinsic standoff ratio.
- B.
  
  Resistance in the circuit.
- C.
  
  Capacitance in the circuit.
- D.
  
  Resistance and capacitance in the circuit.
Correct Answer
D. Resistance and capacitance in the circuit.

Explanation
The firing time of a unijunction transistor (UJT) is controlled by the resistance and capacitance in the circuit. The resistance determines the charging time of the capacitor, while the capacitance determines the rate at which the capacitor charges. By adjusting these values, the firing time of the UJT can be controlled.

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39.

(013) A metal oxide varistor (MOV) is made up of how many semiconductors?
- A.
  
  2.
- B.
  
  3.
- C.
  
  4.
- D.
  
  5.
Correct Answer
A. 2.

Explanation
A metal oxide varistor (MOV) is made up of two semiconductors. This is because an MOV is a type of voltage-dependent resistor that is used to protect electrical devices from excessive voltage. It is made up of a ceramic material that contains zinc oxide, which acts as a semiconductor. When the voltage across the MOV exceeds its threshold, the zinc oxide conducts and absorbs the excess energy, protecting the connected device. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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40.

(014) What component of the voltage regulator compensates for losses in the power cable by sensing changes in current flow?
- A.
  
  Load rheostat.
- B.
  
  No load rheostat.
- C.
  
  Line drop switch.
- D.
  
  Voltage adjustment rheostat.
Correct Answer
A. Load rheostat.

Explanation
The load rheostat is the component of the voltage regulator that compensates for losses in the power cable by sensing changes in current flow. It adjusts the voltage output to ensure that the desired voltage is maintained despite any losses in the power cable. This helps to regulate the voltage and prevent fluctuations that could potentially damage electrical equipment.

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41.

(014) The portion of the voltage regulator that supplies exciter field voltage is transformer
- A.
  
  (T1) and rectifier (B3).
- B.
  
  (T3) and rectifier (B2).
- C.
  
  (T2) and rectifier (B1)
- D.
  
  (T1) and rectifier (CR26).
Correct Answer
D. (T1) and rectifier (CR26).

Explanation
The correct answer is (T1) and rectifier (CR26). This is because the exciter field voltage is supplied by the transformer (T1) and rectifier (CR26). The transformer steps down the voltage from the main power source, while the rectifier converts the alternating current (AC) into direct current (DC) to supply the exciter field. Therefore, (T1) and rectifier (CR26) are the components responsible for supplying the exciter field voltage in the voltage regulator.

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42.

(015) Refer to foldout 1. After performing an operational check of the A/M32A-86D generator set, you proceed to shut the unit down. After the generator stops, you notice the engine on light continues to glow. What is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
  
  S46 Open.
- B.
  
  S48 open
- C.
  
  S46 closed.
- D.
  
  S48 closed.
Correct Answer
D. S48 closed.

Explanation
The probable cause of the engine on light continuing to glow after shutting down the A/M32A-86D generator set is that S48, which is a switch or circuit related to the engine, is closed. This means that the switch or circuit is still providing power or completing a connection, causing the engine on light to remain illuminated.

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43.

(015) Refer to foldout 1. During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, you get no response when you place S13 in the GENERATE position. A check of voltage at J8, terminal N, shows 12 volts direct current (VDC). What is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
  
  M4 is open.
- B.
  
  S53 is open.
- C.
  
  K23 is open
- D.
  
  K16 is open.
Correct Answer
B. S53 is open.

Explanation
The probable cause of the trouble is that S53 is open. This means that the switch S53, which is responsible for controlling the generator set, is not making a connection or is not functioning properly. As a result, when S13 is placed in the GENERATE position, there is no response because the necessary circuit is not being completed.

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44.

(015) Refer to foldout 1. You are operating an A/M32A-86D generator set at governed speed, but voltage doesn't build up. What is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
  
  S1 is in the automatic position.
- B.
  
  R61 is turned fully clockwise.
- C.
  
  K16 contacts are closing.
- D.
  
  K23 contacts are open.
Correct Answer
D. K23 contacts are open.

Explanation
The probable cause of the trouble is that the K23 contacts are open. When the K23 contacts are open, it means that the exciter field circuit is not energized. This prevents the generator from building up voltage. The exciter field circuit is responsible for creating the magnetic field that induces voltage in the generator. If the K23 contacts are open, the exciter field circuit remains de-energized and voltage cannot be built up.

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45.

(015) During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, what position do you place control switch S13 in to move the fuel rack and increase the engine speed to 2,000 revolutions per minute (RPM)?
- A.
  
  IDLE.
- B.
  
  GENERATE.
- C.
  
  BUILD UP VOLTS.
- D.
  
  AUTO TEST BANK.
Correct Answer
B. GENERATE.

Explanation
During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, the control switch S13 should be placed in the GENERATE position in order to move the fuel rack and increase the engine speed to 2,000 RPM.

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46.

(015) Refer to foldout 1. During an operational check of the A/M32A-86D generator set, the shutdown solenoid energizes immediately after the engine run indicator illuminates. What is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
  
  S49 shorted.
- B.
  
  S46 open.
- C.
  
  S48 open.
- D.
  
  S22 stuck open.
Correct Answer
A. S49 shorted.

Explanation
The shutdown solenoid energizing immediately after the engine run indicator illuminates indicates a probable cause of S49 being shorted. A shorted S49 would cause the shutdown solenoid to receive power as soon as the engine run indicator is activated, leading to the immediate energization of the solenoid.

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47.

(015) Refer to foldout 1. During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, the low coolant light (DS50) illuminates, but the unit does not shut down. What is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
  
  DS50.
- B.
  
  S48 is closed.
- C.
  
  A2.
- D.
  
  S55 is closed.
Correct Answer
C. A2.

Explanation
The probable cause of the low coolant light (DS50) illuminating but the unit not shutting down is that S55 is closed.

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48.

(016) What component controls the strength of the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field L2?
- A.
  
  Automatic manual switch S1.
- B.
  
  Voltage regulator VR1.
- C.
  
  Time delay relay K14.
- D.
  
  Excitation relay K16.
Correct Answer
B. Voltage regulator VR1.

Explanation
The voltage regulator VR1 controls the strength of the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field L2. A voltage regulator is responsible for maintaining a constant output voltage level regardless of changes in input voltage or load conditions. In this case, VR1 regulates the voltage supplied to the generator exciter field, which determines the strength of the field. By adjusting the voltage, VR1 controls the strength of the exciter field, ensuring that it is at the desired level for optimal generator performance.

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49.

(016) What component on an A/M32A-86D generator is used to manually increase output voltage?
- A.
  
  Auto/Manual switch S1.
- B.
  
  Test bank switch S202.
- C.
  
  Excitation relay K16.
- D.
  
  Voltage rheostat R61.
Correct Answer
D. Voltage rheostat R61.

Explanation
The voltage rheostat R61 is used to manually increase the output voltage on an A/M32A-86D generator. A rheostat is a variable resistor that can be adjusted to control the flow of current in a circuit. By increasing the resistance with the voltage rheostat, the output voltage of the generator can be increased. The other options, such as the Auto/Manual switch S1, Test bank switch S202, and Excitation relay K16, do not have the specific function of manually increasing the output voltage.

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50.

(016) Refer to foldout 1. Where is the best point to check voltage to the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field?
- A.
  
  J8, terminal V-X
- B.
  
  VR1, terminal C-R.
- C.
  
  J8, terminal D-F
- D.
  
  Automatic-manual switch S1.
Correct Answer
C. J8, terminal D-F

Explanation
The best point to check voltage to the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field is at J8, terminal D-F.

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Current Version
Mar 19, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Oct 09, 2016

Quiz Created by
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Age 2A672 (Vol 1)

(001) What is the simplest form of matter?

(001) In an atom, what electrons contain the most energy?

(001) If there are eight electrons in the outer most shell of an atom, then it is considered

(001) Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known as

(001) The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move

(001) The force required to move free electrons through a conductor is known as

(002) What are factors that affect the resistance of a material?

(002) What is the resistance in a circuit if the power rating is 40 watts and total current is 2 amps?

(002) In a series-parallel circuit, find RT (total resistance) if series resistor R1 = 7 ohms, and parallel resistors R2 and R3 = 8 ohms.

(002) In a series-parallel circuit, the series current at I1 = 9 amps; in the two parallel branches, I2 = 5 amps; and the value of I3 is not listed. Use Ohm's law to find the value of I3 and IT.

(002) In a series-parallel circuit, total voltage is 12 volts, the value of E1 in the series portions of the circuit is unknown. There are two parallel branches (E2 = 3 volts) and the value of E3 in the second parallel branch is unknown. Using Ohm's law, find the value of E1 and E3.

(002) What is the difference between an open and a short?

(003) When voltage is induced into a conductor by a relative motion between the conductor and a magnetic field this principle is known as

(003) In an inductive circuit, what is meant by current lags voltage by 90 degrees?

(004) What is the basic principle of operation for transformers?

(004) What transformer winding acts as a conductor and provides the path into which the voltage is induced?

(005) If the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, how is capacitance affected?

(005) What statement best describes a capacitive circuit?

(005) In what type of circuit(s) does a capacitor oppose any change in voltage?

(006) What statement best describes a diode?

(006) What are the minority carriers in P-type material?

(007) The area of a semiconductor where P-type material is joined to N-type material is known as

(007) A junction diode has how many PN junctions(s)?

(007) If a negative potential is connected to the cathode and a positive potential is connected to the anode of a PN junction, the diode is

(008) In a circuit using a bridge rectifier, how many diodes are forward biased during the first cycle of alternating current (AC)?

(009) How is a zener diode connected in a circuit to regulate voltage?

(009) How is the zener diode connected in a circuit to protect the load?

(090) What is the primary use of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR)?

(010) The silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) has how many layers?

(010) In order to turn off a silicone-controlled rectifier (SCR), the current must drop below the

(011) If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, what type of transistor is it?

(011) What is the major difference between an NPN transistor and a PNP transistor?

(011) The most positive point in a PNP bipolar transistor is the

(011) The circuit in the bipolar transistor that carries 5 percent of the current flow is the

(012) What happens if the emitter-base (E-B) current is increased in a transistor amplifier?

What are the three leads in a unijunction transistor (UJT) called?

(013) The emitter in a unijunction transistor (UJT) always points toward the

(013) What controls the firing time of the unijunction transistor (UJT)?

(013) A metal oxide varistor (MOV) is made up of how many semiconductors?

(014) What component of the voltage regulator compensates for losses in the power cable by sensing changes in current flow?

(014) The portion of the voltage regulator that supplies exciter field voltage is transformer

(015) Refer to foldout 1. After performing an operational check of the A/M32A-86D generator set, you proceed to shut the unit down. After the generator stops, you notice the engine on light continues to glow. What is a probable cause of this trouble?

(015) Refer to foldout 1. During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, you get no response when you place S13 in the GENERATE position. A check of voltage at J8, terminal N, shows 12 volts direct current (VDC). What is a probable cause of this trouble?

(015) Refer to foldout 1. You are operating an A/M32A-86D generator set at governed speed, but voltage doesn't build up. What is a probable cause of this trouble?

(015) During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, what position do you place control switch S13 in to move the fuel rack and increase the engine speed to 2,000 revolutions per minute (RPM)?

(015) Refer to foldout 1. During an operational check of the A/M32A-86D generator set, the shutdown solenoid energizes immediately after the engine run indicator illuminates. What is a probable cause of this trouble?

(015) Refer to foldout 1. During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, the low coolant light (DS50) illuminates, but the unit does not shut down. What is a probable cause of this trouble?

(016) What component controls the strength of the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field L2?

(016) What component on an A/M32A-86D generator is used to manually increase output voltage?

(016) Refer to foldout 1. Where is the best point to check voltage to the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field?