Air Force CDC 3D151: Client Systems Journeyman! Trivia Questions Quiz

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By H3NTA1
H
H3NTA1
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 85
| Attempts: 85 | Questions: 100
Please wait...
Question 1 / 100
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. Which of these is a task completed by the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?

Explanation

The unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager is responsible for completing all of the tasks mentioned. They brief users on the proper use of PWCS equipment, implement a unit-level customer education program, and turn in excess equipment over to the base PWCS manager. This means that the correct answer is "All of the above."

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Air Force CDC 3D151: Client Systems Journeyman! Trivia Questions Quiz - Quiz

Air Force CDC 3D151: Client Systems Journeyman! This trivia Questions Quiz is designed to help you see just how attentive you have been throughout the training and if it is enough to earn you the pass certificate. How about you give it a shot and get to see if you... see moreneed to have another study session before the exams are due. All the best! see less

Tell us your name to personalize your report, certificate & get on the leaderboard!
2. What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?

Explanation

To create a new ticket, the tool that must be used is Remedy user. Remedy user is the specific tool within the Remedy software that allows users to generate new tickets. It is designed for ticket creation and management, providing a user-friendly interface for this purpose. By using Remedy user, users can easily create new tickets and input all the necessary details and information related to the issue or request they are submitting.

Submit
3. The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes what type of database and is located where?

Explanation

The correct answer is Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB. This means that the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system uses an Oracle database, and this database is located at Wright-Patterson Air Force Base.

Submit
4. Each cell in a service area has what tower and transceiver assembly that transmits to and receives from the cell phones in that area?

Explanation

The correct answer is Central. In a service area, each cell has a central tower and transceiver assembly that is responsible for transmitting and receiving signals from cell phones in that area. The central tower acts as a hub for communication, ensuring that the signals are properly transmitted and received within the cell's coverage area.

Submit
5. What are the voice messages encoded into when making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

Explanation

When making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), voice messages are encoded into packets. VoIP breaks down the voice data into small packets, which are then transmitted over the internet. These packets contain the encoded voice information along with necessary addressing and routing information. By dividing the voice data into packets, it becomes easier to transmit and manage the data efficiently over the internet.

Submit
6. What percent packet loss should a network expect in order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

Explanation

In order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), a network should expect a packet loss of less than 1 percent. This is because VoIP requires real-time transmission of voice data, and any significant packet loss can result in poor call quality and dropped calls. Therefore, maintaining a low packet loss percentage is crucial for ensuring a smooth and reliable VoIP communication experience.

Submit
7. How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to endpoint in order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

Explanation

In order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), the one-way delay from endpoint to endpoint should be less than 150 milliseconds. This is because any delay greater than this can result in poor call quality, including noticeable delays and interruptions in the audio. Therefore, a delay of less than 150 milliseconds is necessary to ensure a smooth and seamless VoIP experience.

Submit
8. What are the two different types of current used for power?

Explanation

The correct answer is 110 v and 220 v. These values represent the standard voltages used for power in most residential and commercial settings. The lower voltage of 110 v is typically used for smaller appliances and lighting, while the higher voltage of 220 v is used for larger appliances and machinery.

Submit
9. Which of these statements pertains to configuration management?

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that all of the statements listed pertain to configuration management. The first statement involves identifying and documenting the characteristics of a Configuration Item (CI). The second statement involves recording and reporting the status of change processing and implementation. The third statement involves controlling changes to the characteristics of a CI. Therefore, all three statements are related to configuration management.

Submit
10. In electrical power equipment, the generator can be two types, reciprocating or

Explanation

The question is asking about the types of generators in electrical power equipment. The correct answer is "a turbine engine" because turbines are commonly used as generators in power plants. Turbine engines are efficient and powerful, making them suitable for generating large amounts of electricity. Reciprocating engines, on the other hand, are typically used in smaller applications such as backup generators. Batteries, while they can store and release electrical energy, are not considered generators as they do not produce electricity themselves.

Submit
11. Which does not fit the "Peaceful Purposes" clause of using the International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system?

Explanation

The International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system is primarily intended for peaceful purposes, such as providing communication and connectivity services for humanitarian, commercial, and safety applications. Military use involving armed conflict does not align with the peaceful purposes clause, as it implies the use of the system for aggressive actions and warfare. The other options mentioned, such as armed forces use for the protection of the wounded, UN peacekeeping use, and armed forces use for self-defense within the limitations of the UN charter, are more in line with the peaceful purposes clause as they focus on humanitarian and defensive actions.

Submit
12. What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise?

Explanation

Signal-to-noise ratio is the ratio used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise. It indicates the level of the desired signal compared to the level of the unwanted noise. A higher signal-to-noise ratio indicates a stronger desired signal and less interference from noise, resulting in better signal quality. Percentage of modulation, selectivity, and distortion are not directly related to measuring the desired signal strength relative to background noise.

Submit
13. What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?

Explanation

Symmetric cryptography offers the advantage of speed. In this encryption technique, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, making the process faster compared to asymmetric cryptography. With symmetric cryptology, data can be encrypted and decrypted quickly, making it ideal for applications that require efficient and rapid encryption, such as real-time communication and large-scale data transfers.

Submit
14. Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?

Explanation

Asymmetric cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time compared to symmetric cryptology system. This is because in asymmetric cryptology, two different keys are used for encryption and decryption, which requires more computational resources and time compared to symmetric cryptology where a single key is used for both encryption and decryption.

Submit
15. Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?

Explanation

The given question asks for an encryption type that is not related to telecommunications. Narrowband, network, and bulk are all encryption types commonly used in telecommunications. However, "open" does not refer to a specific encryption type and is not directly associated with telecommunications encryption. Therefore, "open" is the correct answer as it does not fit the category of telecommunications encryption.

Submit
16. Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

Explanation

AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log, is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to record visitors into restricted areas. This form serves as a register log to keep track of individuals who enter restricted areas, providing a record of their visit for security and accountability purposes. The other forms listed are not related to recording visitors into restricted areas, making them incorrect choices.

Submit
17. Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Secure Terminal Equipment (STE). STE is a secure voice telephone that can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN). It provides encryption and authentication features to ensure secure communication over the network. STU, CT, and PGPfone are not specifically designed for ISDN and may not have the necessary security features required for secure communication on ISDN.

Submit
18. What is the maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–E100?

Explanation

The maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)-E100 is 165 for full-duplex and 100 for half-duplex. This means that when the TACLANE-E100 is operating in full-duplex mode, it can achieve a maximum throughput of 165 Mbps, while in half-duplex mode, the maximum throughput is 100 Mbps.

Submit
19. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro can acquire an Internet Protocol (IP) address by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) on which side?

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro can acquire an IP address by DHCP on either the ciphertext or plaintext side. This means that it can obtain an IP address regardless of whether the data is encrypted or not.

Submit
20. Who coordinates the management of personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets for the installation commander?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Base communications and information systems officer (CSO). The CSO is responsible for coordinating the management of personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets for the installation commander. They oversee the planning, implementation, and maintenance of the PWCS and ensure that it aligns with the commander's objectives and requirements. They also work closely with other units and managers to ensure efficient and effective use of PWCS assets throughout the installation.

Submit
21. What is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets?

Explanation

The only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets is the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS). This system is specifically designed for tracking and managing the inventory of PWCS assets within the Air Force. It provides a centralized platform for monitoring and reporting on the status, location, and condition of these assets, ensuring accurate and efficient management of the Air Force's PWCS inventory.

Submit
22. What combination of Air Force instructions (AFI), Air Force Systems Security instructions (AFSSI), and Air Force manuals (AFMAN) do you use for guidance when determining a technical solution for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
23. Depending on the problem type, what are the two types of forms used in Remedy?

Explanation

The given answer, "Software or hardware," is correct because Remedy is a software tool used for IT service management. It can be used to manage and track software-related issues as well as hardware-related problems. Therefore, depending on the nature of the problem, Remedy can be used to address both software and hardware issues, making "Software or hardware" the correct answer.

Submit
24. In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?

Explanation

In Remedy, tickets are assigned to either a resolution group or a specific technician in order to fix problems. This means that the responsibility for resolving the issues can be assigned to a group of individuals with the necessary expertise or to a particular technician who is best suited to handle the problem. This flexible assignment system allows for efficient problem-solving and ensures that the tickets are directed to the appropriate individuals or teams for resolution.

Submit
25. The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces what system throughout the maintenance complex?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). The question is asking which system is replaced by the interface between the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) and the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S). The answer choice "Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)" indicates that the SBSS system is the one being replaced.

Submit
26. Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device's original intent was for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area?

Explanation

The Family Radio Service (FRS) device was originally intended for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area. FRS allows for short-range, two-way communication through handheld radios, making it ideal for personal use within a limited range. Pagers, Land mobile radio (LMR), and Personal digital assistant (PDA) are not specifically designed for communication among family, friends, and associates in a small area.

Submit
27. How many channels do the intra-squad radios operate on?

Explanation

The correct answer is 14. This means that the intra-squad radios operate on 14 channels.

Submit
28. The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database program that is a part of the

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). This is because the question asks for the online database program that is a part of a certain system, and AFEMS is the only option that fits this description. The other options, TMS, IMDS, and AIS, are not mentioned in relation to an online database program. Therefore, AFEMS is the most logical choice.

Submit
29. Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage what Air Force assets?

Explanation

AIMS is an Asset Inventory Management System used by the Air Force to track and manage various assets. Among the options provided, Communications is the most suitable answer as AIMS is primarily used to track and manage communication assets such as radios, satellite equipment, and other communication devices. It helps the Air Force to effectively manage and maintain their communication infrastructure, ensuring smooth and efficient communication within the organization.

Submit
30. What mode of operation do cell phones use?

Explanation

Cell phones use duplex mode of operation, which means they can transmit and receive signals simultaneously. This allows for two-way communication, where both parties can talk and listen at the same time. In duplex mode, cell phones can send and receive data simultaneously, enabling features such as voice calls, video calls, and internet browsing. Half-duplex mode only allows for one-way communication at a time, while simplex mode only allows for one-way communication in one direction. Hybrid mode refers to a combination of different modes, but it is not the mode used by cell phones.

Submit
31. How fast you sample the audio to get your digital signal is called

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
32. Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?

Explanation

The Defense Courier Service is not a means for secure telecommunications because it is a physical transportation service that is used to deliver classified or sensitive materials, rather than providing a secure communication channel. The other options, such as the Protected Distribution System, Communications Security Equipment, and Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System, are all methods or technologies that are specifically designed to ensure secure telecommunications.

Submit
33. Which port on the office version Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) can be used to connect to a fax machine?

Explanation

RS-232 is a standard for serial communication that is commonly used for connecting computer devices, including fax machines. It is a widely adopted standard for transmitting data between devices and is capable of supporting various types of devices, including fax machines. The other options, USB, EIA 530, and Firewire, are not typically used for connecting fax machines.

Submit
34. What needs to be higher to improve the audio quality?

Explanation

Bit rate refers to the number of bits that are processed or transmitted per unit of time. In the context of audio quality, a higher bit rate means that more data is being processed or transmitted, resulting in higher audio quality. This is because a higher bit rate allows for more detailed and accurate representation of the audio signal, capturing more nuances and preserving the original quality of the sound. Therefore, increasing the bit rate is necessary to improve the audio quality.

Submit
35. In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?

Explanation

The RED/BLACK concept refers to a security measure used to separate and protect different levels of classified information within a network. In this context, RED lines are used to carry unencrypted classified traffic. This means that sensitive information is transmitted without encryption, but only at the classified level, ensuring that it remains secure and separate from other types of traffic.

Submit
36. Cell sites are generally thought of as being a

Explanation

Cell sites are generally thought of as being in the shape of a hexagon. This is because a hexagon provides the most efficient coverage area for cell signals. The hexagonal shape allows for equal distance between each cell site, minimizing signal interference and maximizing coverage. Additionally, the hexagonal shape provides a balance between the number of cell sites needed and the coverage area, making it the most practical shape for cell site deployment.

Submit
37. What area is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control where unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?

Explanation

A controlled access area (CAA) is a complete building or facility area that is under direct physical control. Unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance. This ensures that only authorized individuals have access to the area, enhancing security and preventing unauthorized entry. Restricted access area (RAA), limited control area (LCA), and uncontrolled access area (UAA) do not accurately describe the level of control and restriction mentioned in the question.

Submit
38. In response to disaster relief operations, the Department of Defense (DOD) Policy on Procurement of mobile satellite services (MSS) was amended in 2006 to allow the DOD to use additional MSS providers for

Explanation

The correct answer is "unclassified purposes within the CONUS." This means that the Department of Defense (DOD) amended its policy to allow the use of additional mobile satellite services (MSS) providers for unclassified purposes within the continental United States (CONUS). This indicates that the DOD can now utilize more MSS providers to support their operations and communication needs for non-sensitive purposes within the country.

Submit
39. Which uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for larger loads and currents?

Explanation

Flywheel-based uninterruptible power supply (UPS) systems are generally used for larger loads and currents. Flywheels store kinetic energy in a rotating mass, which can be quickly converted into electrical energy when needed. This makes them suitable for providing backup power to critical systems in facilities such as data centers, hospitals, and industrial plants. Unlike storage batteries, which have limited capacity and require frequent maintenance and replacement, flywheel UPS systems offer a longer lifespan, higher reliability, and faster response time. Therefore, flywheel is the correct answer for this question.

Submit
40. Which commercial satellite communication system offers true pole-to-pole global coverage?

Explanation

Iridium is the correct answer because it is the only commercial satellite communication system that offers true pole-to-pole global coverage. The other options, such as the European Telecommunications Satellite Organization, International Telecommunications Satellite Organization, and International Mobile Satellite Organization, do not provide the same level of global coverage as Iridium.

Submit
41. What are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6)?

Explanation

The correct answer is T–568A and T–568B. These are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6) cables. T–568A and T–568B are wiring schemes that specify the arrangement of the individual wire pairs within an Ethernet cable. T–568A is typically used for residential and commercial network installations, while T–568B is commonly used for data communication networks. These standards ensure proper connectivity and compatibility between devices when terminating CAT 5 and CAT 6 cables.

Submit
42. Up to what level of classification does the Iridium Secure Module (ISM) provide secure voice communications?

Explanation

The Iridium Secure Module (ISM) provides secure voice communications up to the level of Top Secret. This means that the ISM ensures the highest level of confidentiality and protection for voice communications, making it suitable for handling highly sensitive and classified information.

Submit
43. Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?

Explanation

The correct answer is fossil fuel. Fossil fuel is a broad term that includes coal, oil, and natural gas. Reciprocating generators typically use diesel or gasoline as fuel sources, which are derived from crude oil. While fossil fuels are used for various purposes, including electricity generation, they are not specifically used for reciprocating generators.

Submit
44. Who becomes responsible for life-cycle maintenance once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete?

Explanation

Once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete, the responsibility for life-cycle maintenance falls on the production work center or the contractor. This means that either the production work center within the organization or an external contractor hired for the job will be accountable for maintaining and ensuring the proper functioning of the cyberspace equipment throughout its life cycle.

Submit
45. Which Inmarsat terminals have a land mobile terminal, typically has a one-meter flat array antenna, and weights 30 to 40 pounds?

Explanation

The correct answer is B. M. The question is asking about Inmarsat terminals that have a land mobile terminal, typically with a one-meter flat array antenna, and weigh 30 to 40 pounds. The option B. M. is the only one that fits this description. Aero I and Mini-M are not mentioned as having a land mobile terminal or a one-meter flat array antenna, so they are not the correct answer.

Submit
46. The approval or disapproval of all approved changes in the configuration is known as

Explanation

Configuration control refers to the process of reviewing, approving, and managing all approved changes in the configuration. It ensures that any modifications made to the configuration are properly evaluated, authorized, and implemented. This helps maintain the integrity and consistency of the configuration, ensuring that all changes are documented, tracked, and controlled effectively.

Submit
47. What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the user's domain account is deleted?

Explanation

When a user's domain account is deleted, their email account is also deleted. This means that all of their emails, contacts, and other data associated with the email account will be permanently removed and inaccessible. Deleting the domain account effectively terminates the user's access to their email account.

Submit
48. How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and resource administrator (DRA)?

Explanation

In directory and resource administrator (DRA), only one object can be manipulated at a time. This means that users can perform actions on a single object, such as modifying its attributes or permissions, at any given time. Manipulating multiple objects simultaneously is not supported in DRA.

Submit
49. What components are used in both encryption and decryption?

Explanation

In both encryption and decryption processes, an algorithm is used to perform the mathematical operations that transform the original data into an unreadable format and then back into its original form. The key is also required in both processes to control the encryption and decryption operations. The key determines how the algorithm operates and is essential for the successful transformation of the data. Therefore, both algorithm and key are components used in both encryption and decryption.

Submit
50. What are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time?

Explanation

Block algorithms and stream ciphers are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time. Block algorithms divide the data into fixed-size blocks and encrypt each block separately, while stream ciphers encrypt the data bit by bit or byte by byte. Both types of algorithms have their own advantages and are used in different encryption scenarios based on their specific characteristics and requirements.

Submit
51. How many bits for its key does data encryption standard (DES) use?

Explanation

The Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses a key size of 64 bits. The key size refers to the number of bits used in the encryption algorithm to encrypt and decrypt data. In the case of DES, a 64-bit key is used to perform the encryption and decryption operations. This key size provides a balance between security and efficiency, as larger key sizes can offer stronger security but may also require more computational resources.

Submit
52. Triple data encryption standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?

Explanation

Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is a cryptographic algorithm that applies encryption and decryption operations three times in a row. It uses three individual keys, each applied to one of the three operations. This ensures a higher level of security compared to single DES, as it requires an attacker to break through three layers of encryption. Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

Submit
53. Which encryption handles software encryption?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Network" because network encryption refers to the process of encrypting data that is being transmitted over a network. It ensures that the data is secure and protected from unauthorized access or interception. Software encryption, on the other hand, refers to the encryption of data stored on a computer or device using software-based encryption algorithms. While software encryption can be used in conjunction with network encryption, the question specifically asks about the encryption that handles software encryption, which is network encryption.

Submit
54. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro is a packet encryption device for Internet Protocol (IP)

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro is a packet encryption device that can encrypt Internet Protocol (IP) versions 4 and 6. This means that it is capable of encrypting both IPv4 and IPv6 packets, providing secure communication for both versions of the IP protocol.

Submit
55. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro can be used to overlay what type of networks on top of existing public and private network infrastructures?

Explanation

TACLANE-Micro can be used to overlay Secure Virtual Networks on top of existing public and private network infrastructures. This means that TACLANE-Micro provides a secure and encrypted connection that can be used to create a virtual network on top of existing networks, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the data transmitted. This allows for secure communication and information sharing within the virtual network, without compromising the security of the underlying networks.

Submit
56. What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs personal wireless communications system (PWCS) management?

Explanation

The correct answer is 17-210. This Air Force instruction (AFI) governs personal wireless communications system (PWCS) management.

Submit
57. Who appoints the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?

Explanation

The unit commander appoints the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager. This individual is responsible for overseeing the implementation and management of the PWCS within the unit. They ensure that the system is functioning properly and that all personnel have access to the necessary wireless communications tools. The unit commander is in the best position to select someone who is knowledgeable about the unit's specific needs and can effectively carry out the responsibilities of the PWCS manager.

Submit
58. Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device can be used for command and control?

Explanation

Land mobile radio (LMR) is the correct answer because it is a personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device that is commonly used for command and control purposes. LMR devices are widely used by public safety organizations, military forces, and other professional users to communicate and coordinate their operations effectively. They provide reliable and secure communication over a wide area, making them suitable for command and control applications where real-time communication and coordination are crucial. Pagers, family radio service (FRS), and intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) devices are not typically used for command and control purposes.

Submit
59. Which is not a function of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

Explanation

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is a system that is designed to automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes. It also functions as a common interactive interface for other systems, allowing for seamless integration and data exchange. Additionally, it provides status and inventory data, allowing users to have real-time information about the equipment. However, it does not have the capability to roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level. This means that it does not have the functionality to aggregate and transmit logistics data from lower-level units to the Air Force level for analysis and decision-making.

Submit
60. What channel access method assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated frequency?

Explanation

TDMA is a channel access method that divides time into slots and assigns each call a specific slot on a designated frequency. This allows multiple calls to share the same frequency by transmitting in different time slots. This method is commonly used in cellular networks to maximize the utilization of the available spectrum and enable multiple users to access the network simultaneously.

Submit
61. Who is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget accordingly?

Explanation

The unit is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget accordingly. This means that the individual unit within an organization is responsible for managing and paying for their own air time charges. This could include expenses related to communication and information systems, personal wireless communications systems, and other related costs.

Submit
62. What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts incoming four wire transmissions into two wire transmissions?

Explanation

The network termination (NT) 1 component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system is responsible for converting incoming four wire transmissions into two wire transmissions. This conversion is necessary to ensure compatibility and proper communication between the VTC system and other devices or networks. The NT1 component acts as an interface between the VTC system and the network, allowing for the transmission of audio signals in a format that can be understood and processed by the system.

Submit
63. What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts analog signals to digital signals?

Explanation

The component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system that converts analog signals to digital signals is the coder-decoder (CODEC). The CODEC is responsible for encoding the analog video and audio signals into a digital format that can be transmitted over the network. It also decodes the digital signals received from the network back into analog signals for display and playback. The CODEC plays a crucial role in ensuring the quality and compatibility of the video and audio during a video teleconferencing session.

Submit
64. What is the purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program is to reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses. This program aims to prevent unintentional electromagnetic radiation from compromising the security of classified information. By implementing specific measures and standards, TEMPEST reduces the risk of information leakage through electromagnetic emanations.

Submit
65. How many channels are used when a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another Internet Protocol (IP) host?

Explanation

When a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another Internet Protocol (IP) host, two channels are used, one for each direction. This means that one channel is dedicated to transmitting voice data from the PBX to the IP host, and another channel is dedicated to transmitting voice data from the IP host to the PBX. This allows for two-way communication between the two devices during the VoIP session.

Submit
66. What is the control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal and responds to both the frequency and the phase of the input signals?

Explanation

A phase-locked loop (PLL) is a control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal. It not only responds to the frequency but also the phase of the input signals. The PLL compares the phase of the input signal with the phase of the reference signal and adjusts its output signal to minimize the phase difference. This makes it an effective control system for applications such as synchronization, frequency synthesis, and demodulation.

Submit
67. A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual inspection that must include the

Explanation

In a line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS), a close visual inspection is conducted to assess the condition of the system. This inspection must cover the entire surface of the system, including both visible and concealed areas. The term "total surface" encompasses all areas that need to be inspected, ensuring that no part of the system is overlooked. This comprehensive inspection helps identify any potential issues or damages in the PDS, allowing for timely repairs and maintenance to ensure its proper functioning.

Submit
68. Which is not a consideration when selecting storage batteries for the central office?

Explanation

When selecting storage batteries for the central office, the number of alternating current converters in the office is not a consideration. The other options mentioned in the question, such as office power requirements, amount of floor space available, future subscriber growth, and reserve time required, are all factors that need to be taken into account when selecting storage batteries. However, the number of alternating current converters does not directly affect the selection of storage batteries.

Submit
69. Which is not a reason why extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account?

Explanation

Extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account because the wrong account could be deleted. This means that there is a risk of accidentally deleting the incorrect account, which can have serious consequences. It is important to double-check and verify the account before proceeding with the deletion process to avoid any irreversible mistakes.

Submit
70. In secure socket layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, what does the Web server give to the browser?

Explanation

In secure socket layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, the web server gives its public key to the browser. The public key is used to encrypt the data sent from the browser, ensuring secure communication between the server and the client. The browser can then use the server's public key to encrypt the data before sending it, and the server can decrypt the data using its private key. This ensures that only the server can read the encrypted data, providing confidentiality and security to the transaction.

Submit
71. Which encryption handles data that can come from equipment such as computers?

Explanation

Wideband encryption is the type of encryption that is capable of handling data from various sources, including equipment such as computers. It is designed to accommodate a wide range of data transmission rates and can handle large volumes of data. This makes it suitable for securing data from different types of equipment, including computers, which generate and transmit large amounts of data. Narrowband encryption, on the other hand, is designed for lower data transmission rates and may not be able to handle the high volume of data generated by computers. Network and Bulk encryption are not specifically related to handling data from equipment such as computers.

Submit
72. Which encryption handles multiplexed lines that come from combining multiple single data and voice lines into one?

Explanation

Bulk encryption is the correct answer because it refers to the encryption method used to handle multiplexed lines that combine multiple single data and voice lines into one. This type of encryption is specifically designed to handle large volumes of data and is commonly used in scenarios where multiple lines need to be combined and secured efficiently.

Submit
73. Communications security (COMSEC) is defined as the measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information and to ensure

Explanation

Communications security (COMSEC) refers to the measures and controls implemented to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing information and to guarantee the authenticity of the communication. Authenticity ensures that the information being transmitted is genuine and has not been tampered with or altered in any way. It verifies that the message originated from the expected source and has not been modified during transmission. Therefore, authenticity is the most appropriate term to describe the objective of communications security.

Submit
74. The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro may be equipped to handle all types of networks except

Explanation

The TACLANE-Micro is capable of handling various types of networks such as asynchronous transfer mode (ATM), gigabit Ethernet, and fast Ethernet. However, it is not equipped to handle wireless networks.

Submit
75. Which of these is not part of the personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager's duties?

Explanation

The personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager is responsible for maintaining the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) database, providing technical solutions, and performing maintenance tasks. However, conducting technical reviews is not mentioned as one of their duties.

Submit
76. The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) cannot communicate securely with what device?

Explanation

The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) is designed to communicate securely with various devices, including the Secure Telephone Unit (STU)-III, satellite telephone, and cellular telephone. However, it cannot communicate securely with a land mobile radio. This is because land mobile radios operate on different frequencies and use analog signals, which are not compatible with the encryption capabilities of the STE. Therefore, the STE cannot establish a secure communication channel with a land mobile radio.

Submit
77. The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) Integrated Subscriber Digital Network (ISDN) setting supports what speeds in kilobits per second (Kbps)?

Explanation

The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) Integrated Subscriber Digital Network (ISDN) setting supports a speed of 128 kilobits per second (Kbps).

Submit
78. Which two parts does the RED/BLACK concept have?

Explanation

The RED/BLACK concept refers to the practice of physically separating networks or systems to prevent unauthorized access and ensure security. Physical separation involves physically isolating networks or systems from each other, such as using separate physical cables or air gaps. Electrical separation refers to using techniques like firewalls or network segmentation to create logical boundaries between networks. This combination of physical and electrical separation helps to minimize the risk of unauthorized access and data breaches.

Submit
79. What component of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is an endpoint on the network that provides real time, bi-directional communications between H.323 terminals and other switch circuit networks (SCN)?

Explanation

A gateway in Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is an endpoint on the network that provides real-time, bi-directional communication between H.323 terminals and other switch circuit networks (SCN). It acts as a bridge between different networks, converting the protocols and formats to enable communication between different systems. Gateways are responsible for routing calls, managing call signaling, and handling the conversion of voice signals from analog to digital and vice versa. They play a crucial role in connecting VoIP systems with traditional telephony networks.

Submit
80. What is a system of error control for data transmission, where the sender adds redundant data to its messages, allowing the receiver to detect and correct errors without the need to ask the sender for additional data?

Explanation

Forward error correction (FEC) is a system of error control for data transmission where the sender adds redundant data to its messages. This allows the receiver to detect and correct errors without the need to ask the sender for additional data. By including extra information in the transmitted data, FEC enables the receiver to reconstruct the original message even if some of the data is lost or corrupted during transmission. This technique is commonly used in communication systems to ensure reliable and error-free data transfer.

Submit
81. What are the two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)?

Explanation

The two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) are batteries or a flywheel. Batteries are commonly used in UPS systems as they can store a large amount of energy and provide power for an extended period of time. On the other hand, a flywheel is a mechanical device that stores energy in the form of rotational motion. It spins at a high speed and can provide short-term power backup in case of a power outage. Both options offer a reliable solution for storing electricity in a UPS system.

Submit
82. Permanent markings can be completed by how many different methods?

Explanation

Permanent markings can be completed by two different methods. This implies that there are two distinct ways to create permanent markings.

Submit
83. Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Classic and TACLANE–E100 are high-speed encryption devices that provide confidentiality, data integrity, and authentication security services for

Explanation

TACLANE encryption devices are designed to provide security services for Internet Protocol (IP) networks. This means that they are specifically designed to protect data transmitted over IP networks, ensuring confidentiality, data integrity, and authentication. These devices are not intended for serial networks, tactical networks, or point-to-point connections. Therefore, the correct answer is Internet Protocol networks.

Submit
84. What type of areas is International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) coverage separated?

Explanation

Inmarsat provides coverage in areas that are separated by oceans. This means that their satellite network is designed to provide communication services specifically in oceanic regions.

Submit
85. What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account

Explanation

The correct answer is "Mailbox rights." This exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account. By managing mailbox rights, administrators can control who has access to a particular mailbox and what actions they can perform on it. This includes granting or revoking permissions such as read, write, delete, or send as rights.

Submit
86. What are the two basic types of computer cryptology?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system." Cryptology refers to the study and practice of securing communication and information through encryption techniques. In a symmetric-secret key system, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, meaning the sender and receiver must share the same secret key. In an asymmetric-public key system, different keys are used for encryption and decryption, with the public key used for encryption and the private key used for decryption. This allows for secure communication even if the public key is known to everyone.

Submit
87. Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a communications security (COMSEC) package?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 153, COMSEC Material Report. This form is used to accompany a communications security (COMSEC) package. It is specifically designed for reporting and tracking COMSEC material, ensuring proper accountability and security measures are in place during the transfer process. The SF 153 provides detailed information about the contents of the package, including the type and quantity of material being transferred, as well as the names and signatures of the individuals involved in the transfer. This form is crucial in maintaining the integrity and confidentiality of COMSEC material.

Submit
88. The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) consists of a

Explanation

The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) consists of a host terminal and removable security core. This means that the STE is made up of two main components: the host terminal, which is the main interface for the user, and the removable security core, which is responsible for ensuring the security of the terminal. The host terminal allows the user to interact with the STE, while the removable security core can be detached and replaced as needed for enhanced security measures.

Submit
89. In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do BLACK lines carry?

Explanation

The BLACK lines in the RED/BLACK concept carry encrypted traffic that can be classified or unclassified. This means that the information being transmitted through these lines is protected and can contain sensitive or non-sensitive data.

Submit
90. What system serves as the focal point for suggested upgrades for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS) assets?

Explanation

The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) serves as the focal point for suggested upgrades for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS) assets. This system is designed to keep track of all the assets within the PWCS, including their current status, location, and condition. By using AIMS, organizations can easily identify which assets are due for upgrades or replacements, ensuring that the PWCS remains up-to-date and efficient. Integrated Maintenance Data System, Work Order Management System, and Remedy are not specifically designed for managing assets and therefore are not the correct answer.

Submit
91. What protocol does the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) use to transmit video teleconferencing (VTC) data?

Explanation

ISDN uses the H.320 protocol to transmit video teleconferencing (VTC) data. H.320 is a standard protocol for transmitting audio, video, and data over digital networks, specifically designed for videoconferencing. It defines the necessary specifications for video coding, audio coding, multiplexing, and synchronization of the transmitted data. H.320 is widely used in ISDN networks for video teleconferencing applications.

Submit
92. What is the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force called?

Explanation

The Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force is called Emission security. This refers to the measures taken to protect against the unintentional release of compromising emanations from electronic equipment. These emanations can potentially be intercepted and exploited by adversaries to gather sensitive information. Emission security focuses on preventing these unintentional emissions and ensuring that electronic equipment meets specific standards to minimize the risk of information leakage.

Submit
93. Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in which log?

Explanation

The correct answer is Protected Distribution Systems (PDS). PDS events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in the log of the Protected Distribution Systems.

Submit
94. What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that can receive as or send as for the account?

Explanation

Mailbox security is the correct answer because it refers to the tab used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that can receive as or send as for the account. This tab allows administrators to manage the security settings for a mailbox, including granting or revoking permissions for other users to access and send emails on behalf of the mailbox owner.

Submit
95. Which communications security (COMSEC) application provides us with guidance to deter, detect, and defeat hostile acts against US Air Force priority resources?

Explanation

Physical security refers to measures taken to protect physical assets, such as buildings, equipment, and personnel, from unauthorized access, damage, or theft. In the context of communications security (COMSEC), physical security plays a crucial role in safeguarding priority resources of the US Air Force from hostile acts. It involves implementing physical barriers, access controls, surveillance systems, and other measures to deter, detect, and defeat any attempts to compromise the security of these resources. This ensures the integrity and confidentiality of communications and prevents unauthorized individuals from gaining access to sensitive information or disrupting critical operations.

Submit
96. Which set of electrical standards does the KIV–7 not support?

Explanation

The KIV-7 does not support the RS-422 electrical standards.

Submit
97. What publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management. This publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts in the Air Force.

Submit
98. Which one of these requires the use of the latest technical order (TO) information listed?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Configuration item" because configuration items are specific elements or components of a system that require the use of the latest technical order (TO) information listed. The TO information provides instructions and guidelines for the proper configuration and maintenance of these items. Therefore, staying updated with the latest TO information is crucial for managing and maintaining configuration items effectively.

Submit
99. When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?

Explanation

When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), the digital signal is encrypted. STE is a device used for secure communication, and it encrypts the digital signal to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the transmitted data. Encrypting the digital signal makes it unreadable to unauthorized individuals, protecting sensitive information from being intercepted or tampered with during transmission.

Submit
100. Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?

Explanation

Protected distribution systems (PDS) require scheduled inspections to ensure the integrity and security of the system. These inspections involve checking the line route or visually inspecting the distribution system to identify any potential vulnerabilities or breaches. By regularly inspecting the line route or visually assessing the system, any unauthorized access points, tampering, or damage can be detected and addressed promptly. This helps to maintain the confidentiality, availability, and reliability of the PDS, ensuring that sensitive information remains protected.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 14, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    H3NTA1
Cancel
  • All
    All (100)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
Which of these is a task completed by the unit personal wireless...
What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes what type...
Each cell in a service area has what tower and transceiver assembly...
What are the voice messages encoded into when making a phone call...
What percent packet loss should a network expect in order to implement...
How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to...
What are the two different types of current used for power?
Which of these statements pertains to configuration management?
In electrical power equipment, the generator can be two types,...
Which does not fit the "Peaceful Purposes" clause of using the...
What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to...
What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?
Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing...
Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?
Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into...
Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services...
What is the maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the...
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro can...
Who coordinates the management of personal wireless communications...
What is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used...
What combination of Air Force instructions (AFI), Air Force Systems...
Depending on the problem type, what are the two types of forms used in...
In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the...
Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device's original...
How many channels do the intra-squad radios operate on?
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database...
Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage...
What mode of operation do cell phones use?
How fast you sample the audio to get your digital signal is called
Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?
Which port on the office version Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) can...
What needs to be higher to improve the audio quality?
In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?
Cell sites are generally thought of as being a
What area is described as a complete building or facility area under...
In response to disaster relief operations, the Department of Defense...
Which uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for...
Which commercial satellite communication system offers true...
What are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and...
Up to what level of classification does the Iridium Secure Module...
Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?
Who becomes responsible for life-cycle maintenance once the...
Which Inmarsat terminals have a land mobile terminal, typically has a...
The approval or disapproval of all approved changes in the...
What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the user's domain...
How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and...
What components are used in both encryption and decryption?
What are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today...
How many bits for its key does data encryption standard (DES) use?
Triple data encryption standard (DES) is based on three compound...
Which encryption handles software encryption?
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro is a...
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro can...
What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs personal wireless...
Who appoints the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS)...
Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device can be...
Which is not a function of the Integrated Maintenance Data System...
What channel access method assigns each call a certain portion of time...
Who is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget...
What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts...
What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts...
What is the purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation...
How many channels are used when a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)...
What is the control system that generates a signal with a fixed...
A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS)...
Which is not a consideration when selecting storage batteries for the...
Which is not a reason why extreme caution should be used when deleting...
In secure socket layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes...
Which encryption handles data that can come from equipment such as...
Which encryption handles multiplexed lines that come from combining...
Communications security (COMSEC) is defined as the measures and...
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro may...
Which of these is not part of the personal wireless communications...
The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) cannot communicate securely with...
The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) Integrated Subscriber Digital...
Which two parts does the RED/BLACK concept have?
What component of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is an endpoint...
What is a system of error control for data transmission, where the...
What are the two main options for storing electricity in an...
Permanent markings can be completed by how many different methods?
Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Classic and...
What type of areas is International Mobile Satellite Organization...
What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that...
What are the two basic types of computer cryptology?
Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a...
The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) consists of a
In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do BLACK lines carry?
What system serves as the focal point for suggested upgrades for...
What protocol does the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) use...
What is the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard...
Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms, technical...
What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that...
Which communications security (COMSEC) application provides us with...
Which set of electrical standards does the KIV–7 not support?
What publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail...
Which one of these requires the use of the latest technical order (TO)...
When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?
Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled...
Alert!

Advertisement