Animal Science Quiz: Interim Exam

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| By EvilGoat
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 130
Questions: 40 | Attempts: 130

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Animal Science Quiz: Interim Exam - Quiz


Welcome to our Animal Science Quiz! Embark on a journey through the fascinating world of animal anatomy and physiology with this interactive quiz. From the intricate structures of organs to the complex functions they perform, explore the diversity of life forms across the animal kingdom.

This quiz will test your knowledge of various animal organs, their structures, functions, and adaptations. From the respiratory systems of birds to the digestive systems of mammals, discover how different animals have evolved unique anatomical features to survive and thrive in their environments.

Challenge yourself with questions about organ systems, cellular biology, and physiological processes, Read moreand learn fascinating facts about the incredible diversity of life on Earth. Are you ready to unravel the mysteries of animal anatomy and physiology? Let's dive into the quiz and uncover the wonders of the animal kingdom, one organ at a time!


Animal Science Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    What is the cranial boundary of the abdominal cavity?

    Explanation
    The cranial boundary of the abdominal cavity is the diaphragm. The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. It plays a crucial role in respiration by contracting and relaxing to allow for the expansion and contraction of the lungs. Additionally, the diaphragm also helps to maintain the position and stability of the abdominal organs.

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  • 2. 

    What is the ventral boundary of the thoracic cavity?

    Explanation
    The sternum is the correct answer because it forms the front part of the thoracic cage and acts as the ventral boundary of the thoracic cavity. It is a flat bone located in the middle of the chest and connects to the ribs through cartilage. The sternum plays a crucial role in protecting the vital organs within the thoracic cavity, such as the heart and lungs.

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  • 3. 

    What is the correct term for the serous membrane surrounding both the organs and the body cavity, in the abdominal cavity?

    Explanation
    The correct term for the serous membrane surrounding both the organs and the body cavity in the abdominal cavity is peritoneum. The peritoneum is a thin, transparent membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the organs within it. It helps to protect and support the organs, as well as provide a lubricated surface for their movement.

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  • 4. 

    What is the correct term for the serous membrane surrounding the organs of the thoracic cavity?

    Explanation
    The correct term for the serous membrane surrounding the organs of the thoracic cavity is the visceral pleura. The visceral pleura is a thin membrane that covers the surface of the lungs and is directly attached to the lung tissue. It helps to protect and lubricate the lungs, allowing them to move smoothly within the thoracic cavity during breathing.

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  • 5. 

    What proportion of an animals' total body fluid is made up of intracellular fluid?

    Explanation
    Intracellular fluid refers to the fluid contained within the cells of an animal's body. The given answer suggests that approximately 66% of an animal's total body fluid is made up of intracellular fluid. This means that a significant majority of the fluid in an animal's body is located within the cells themselves.

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  • 6. 

    How does water move across a cell membrane? 

    Explanation
    Water moves across a cell membrane through osmosis. Osmosis is the process by which water molecules diffuse through a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration. In this case, water moves from an area of lower solute concentration (hypotonic solution) to an area of higher solute concentration (hypertonic solution) until equilibrium is reached. This movement of water is crucial for maintaining the balance of water and solutes inside and outside the cell.

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  • 7. 

    How do particles move across a cell membrane?

    Explanation
    Particles move across a cell membrane through diffusion. Diffusion is the process by which particles move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This movement occurs due to the random motion of particles. In the case of a cell membrane, particles such as ions, gases, and small molecules can pass through the lipid bilayer or protein channels via diffusion. This allows for the exchange of essential substances, such as oxygen and nutrients, between the cell and its environment.

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  • 8. 

    Give two examples of transcellular fluid.

    Explanation
    The correct answer is CSF Lymph Fluid and CSF Synovial Fluid, as both of these examples are types of transcellular fluid. Transcellular fluid refers to the fluid that is contained within specific compartments or spaces within the body, such as the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and the synovial fluid. CSF is found in the brain and spinal cord, while synovial fluid is found in the joints. These fluids have specific functions and compositions that differ from other types of body fluids.

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  • 9. 

    What is the function of Mitochondria?

    Explanation
    Mitochondria are responsible for supplying energy to the cell. They are often referred to as the "powerhouses" of the cell because they produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is the main source of energy for cellular activities. Therefore, the correct answer options "Supplies Energy," "Energy Supply," and "Energy" all accurately describe the function of mitochondria in providing energy to the cell.

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  • 10. 

    What are the five stages of mitosis, in the correct order?

    Explanation
    Something that may assist in remembering the order could be IPMAT - taking the first letter of each stage.

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  • 11. 

    Which organelle stores lyosomes?

    Explanation
    Both Golgi Apparatus and Golgi Body store lysosomes. The Golgi Apparatus is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids into vesicles for transport, including lysosomes. The Golgi Body is another term used to refer to the Golgi Apparatus, so both terms are correct in this context.

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  • 12. 

    At which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell?

    Explanation
    During metaphase, the chromosomes align themselves along the equator of the cell. This is facilitated by the spindle fibers, which attach to the centromeres of the chromosomes and pull them towards the center. This alignment ensures that each daughter cell receives an equal number of chromosomes during cell division. Once the chromosomes are properly aligned, the cell can proceed to the next stage of mitosis.

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  • 13. 

    Where would ciliated columnar epithelium be found?

    Explanation
    Ciliated columnar epithelium would be found lining the respiratory tract. This type of epithelium is characterized by the presence of cilia, which are hair-like projections that help in moving mucus and trapped particles out of the respiratory system. The cilia beat in a coordinated manner, creating a wave-like motion that propels the mucus and particles towards the throat, where they can be swallowed or expelled. This lining is important in protecting the respiratory system from foreign particles and maintaining its proper functioning.

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  • 14. 

    What do sebaceous glands secrete?

    Explanation
    Sebaceous glands secrete sebum. Sebum is an oily substance that is produced by these glands and is responsible for lubricating the skin and hair. It helps to keep the skin moisturized and acts as a protective barrier against bacteria and other harmful substances. Sebum also plays a role in regulating body temperature and preventing excessive water loss from the skin.

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  • 15. 

    List the four structures that make up the axial skeleton. In order of: V R St S

    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Vertebrae Ribs Sternum Skull". The axial skeleton is composed of these four structures, which are listed in the correct order. The vertebrae make up the spinal column, providing support and protection for the spinal cord. The ribs protect the internal organs of the thoracic cavity, including the heart and lungs. The sternum, also known as the breastbone, is located in the center of the chest and connects the ribs. The skull encloses and protects the brain, as well as housing the sensory organs such as the eyes and ears.

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  • 16. 

    Which three bones does the humerus articulate with? In order of R U S

    Explanation
    The humerus articulates with three bones in the order of R U S, which stands for Radius, Ulna, and Scapula. The humerus forms a joint with the radius and ulna bones in the forearm, allowing for movement of the elbow joint. Additionally, the humerus articulates with the scapula bone at the shoulder joint, forming the glenohumeral joint, which allows for movement of the arm.

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  • 17. 

    What does the term 'synarthrosis' mean?

    Explanation
    The term 'synarthrosis' refers to a type of joint in which there is either little movement or no movement at all. This indicates that the joint is relatively immobile and lacks the ability to perform significant movements.

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  • 18. 

    What type of joint is the elbow joint?

    Explanation
    The elbow joint is a hinge joint and a synovial joint. A hinge joint allows movement in only one plane, like a door hinge, and the elbow joint allows flexion and extension of the forearm. Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of a synovial fluid-filled cavity that allows smooth movement between the articulating bones. The elbow joint has a synovial cavity and is surrounded by a joint capsule, making it a synovial joint.

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  • 19. 

    Which two hormones are secreted from the neurohypophysis?

  • 20. 

    Which hormones act on the adrenal cortex?

    Explanation
    ACTH, or adrenocorticotropic hormone, is a hormone that is produced and released by the pituitary gland. It acts on the adrenal cortex, which is the outer layer of the adrenal glands, to stimulate the production and release of cortisol, a stress hormone. ACTH binds to specific receptors on the cells of the adrenal cortex, triggering a series of biochemical reactions that ultimately lead to the synthesis and secretion of cortisol. Therefore, ACTH is the hormone that directly acts on the adrenal cortex.

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  • 21. 

    Which hormone is released in response to a raised level of calcium in the blood?

    Explanation
    Calcitonin is the hormone released in response to a raised level of calcium in the blood. It helps to regulate calcium levels by inhibiting the release of calcium from the bones and promoting the excretion of calcium by the kidneys. This hormone works in opposition to parathyroid hormone (PTH), which increases calcium levels in the blood. Calcitonin helps to maintain calcium homeostasis and prevent hypercalcemia.

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  • 22. 

    Which type of Islet cells produce insulin?

    Explanation
    Beta cells are a type of islet cells that are responsible for producing insulin. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels in the body. When blood sugar levels are high, beta cells release insulin into the bloodstream, which allows cells to take in glucose and use it for energy. Therefore, beta cells play a crucial role in maintaining normal blood sugar levels and preventing conditions like diabetes.

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  • 23. 

    Which three cranial nerves supply the muscles of the eye?

    Explanation
    The three cranial nerves that supply the muscles of the eye are the Abducens nerve (Abdusin), the Trochlear nerve (Trochlea), and the Oculomotor nerve (Octeomotor). The Abducens nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle, which moves the eye laterally. The Trochlear nerve controls the superior oblique muscle, which moves the eye downward and laterally. The Oculomotor nerve controls most of the other muscles of the eye, including the superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, and inferior oblique muscles, allowing for various movements and positions of the eye.

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  • 24. 

    What are another two terms for smooth muscle?

    Explanation
    Smooth muscle is a type of muscle tissue that is not under conscious control, hence it is referred to as involuntary muscle. Additionally, smooth muscle lacks the striped appearance that is characteristic of skeletal muscle, so it is also called non-striated muscle.

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  • 25. 

    What does a ligament join?

    Explanation
    Ligaments are tough bands of connective tissue that connect bones to other bones in the body. They provide stability and support to joints, helping to prevent excessive movement and potential injury. Ligaments play a crucial role in maintaining the structural integrity of the skeletal system by keeping bones in proper alignment and allowing for controlled movement. Therefore, the correct answer is "Bone to bone."

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  • 26. 

    What is the start of a muscle known as?

    Explanation
    The start of a muscle is known as the origin. This is where the muscle attaches to a stationary bone, and it is usually located closer to the body's midline. The origin is responsible for anchoring the muscle in place while the other end, known as the insertion, moves during muscle contraction. Understanding the origin of a muscle is important in studying its function and how it contributes to movement in the body.

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  • 27. 

    Where do hypaxial muscles lie in relation to the transverse processes of the vertebrae?

    Explanation
    Hypaxial muscles are located below and ventral to the transverse processes of the vertebrae. This means that they are positioned underneath and towards the front of the transverse processes.

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  • 28. 

    Which abdominal muscle does not insert onto the linea alba?

    Explanation
    The rectus abdominis muscle does not insert onto the linea alba. The linea alba is a fibrous band that runs vertically down the midline of the abdomen, connecting the abdominal muscles. However, the rectus abdominis muscle is located on either side of the linea alba and is connected to it by tendinous intersections.

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  • 29. 

    Which is the main flexor of the hock?

    Explanation
    The main flexor of the hock is the Cranial Anterial Tibial. This muscle is responsible for flexing the hock joint, which is located in the hindlimb of animals. The Cranial Anterial Tibial muscle plays a crucial role in locomotion and movement, allowing the animal to bend and flex its hock joint for activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

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  • 30. 

    Where would you find the olecranon?

    Explanation
    The olecranon is a bony prominence located at the upper end of the ulna bone. It forms the point of the elbow and can be easily felt and seen when the elbow is flexed. The ulna bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm, running parallel to the radius bone. It is responsible for stabilizing the forearm and forming the hinge joint with the humerus bone, allowing for flexion and extension of the arm at the elbow.

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  • 31. 

    What is the first vertabra called?

    Explanation
    The first vertebra in the spinal column is called the atlas. It is named after the Greek god Atlas, who was believed to carry the weight of the world on his shoulders. The atlas is unique because it does not have a body like the other vertebrae. Instead, it consists of a ring-like structure that supports the skull and allows for the nodding motion of the head.

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  • 32. 

    What is the last sternabra called?

    Explanation
    The last sternabra is called the Xipphisternum.

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  • 33. 

    What is dysphagia?

    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Difficulty eating or swallowing." Dysphagia refers to the difficulty or discomfort experienced when swallowing food or liquids. This can occur due to various reasons, such as muscle weakness, nerve damage, or structural abnormalities in the throat or esophagus. The symptoms may include coughing or choking while eating, feeling like food is getting stuck in the throat, or experiencing pain while swallowing. It is important to diagnose and treat dysphagia to prevent complications such as malnutrition or aspiration pneumonia.

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  • 34. 

    What is Polyuria?

    Explanation
    Polyuria refers to a condition in which an individual produces an excessive amount of urine. It is characterized by an increase in urine production, resulting in the need to urinate frequently and in large volumes. The term "overurinating" is another way of describing this condition, as it signifies the act of producing more urine than usual. Overall, all three options accurately describe polyuria and its main characteristic of excessive urine production.

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  • 35. 

    What is the correct anatomical term for towards the nose?

    Explanation
    Rostral is the correct anatomical term for towards the nose. This term is commonly used in anatomy to describe structures that are located closer to the front of the body or towards the nose. It is often used to indicate the direction or position of certain anatomical features, such as nerves, blood vessels, or brain regions, in relation to the nose.

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  • 36. 

    What is the correct anatomical term for the ventral surface of the leg from the hock down to underneath the paw?

    Explanation
    The correct anatomical term for the ventral surface of the leg from the hock down to underneath the paw is "planter."

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  • 37. 

    Into which chamber of the heart does the pulmonary vein send blood?

    Explanation
    The pulmonary vein sends blood into the left atrium of the heart. This is because the pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart. The left atrium is responsible for receiving this oxygenated blood and then pumping it into the left ventricle, which will eventually distribute it to the rest of the body.

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  • 38. 

    What is the period of relaxation within the cardiac cycle?

    Explanation
    The period of relaxation within the cardiac cycle is called diastole. During diastole, the heart muscles relax, allowing the chambers of the heart to fill with blood. This is an important phase as it allows the heart to rest and refill with oxygenated blood before the next contraction (systole) occurs.

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  • 39. 

    Which leukocytes make up granulocytes?

    Explanation
    Granulocytes are a type of leukocytes (white blood cells) that contain granules in their cytoplasm. These granules are visible under a microscope and give the cells a granular appearance. Basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils are all types of granulocytes. Basophils are involved in allergic reactions and release histamine, neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cell and are responsible for fighting bacterial infections, and eosinophils are involved in fighting parasitic infections and allergic reactions. Therefore, all three of these leukocytes make up the granulocyte population.

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  • 40. 

    In the adult, where are erythrocytes manufactered?

    Explanation
    Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, are manufactured in the bone marrow of adults. The bone marrow is a soft, spongy tissue found inside the bones. It is responsible for producing all types of blood cells, including erythrocytes. These cells are essential for transporting oxygen to different parts of the body. The bone marrow contains stem cells that differentiate into different types of blood cells, including erythrocytes, through a process called hematopoiesis. Therefore, the correct answer is bone marrow.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 06, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 18, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    EvilGoat
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