Antibacterial Agents Quiz
An antimicrobial is an agent that interferes with the growth and reproduction of bacteria. They may either kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. There are different types of these drugs in use and a nurse should know when to prescribe each. Take up the quiz below and learn more on them.
- 1.
The folowing are narrow spectrum penicillins, except:
- A.
Penicillin G
- B.
Penicillin V
- C.
Benzathine penicillin
- D.
Ampicillin
- E.
Procaine Penicillin
Correct Answer
D. AmpicillinExplanation
Ampicillin is not a narrow spectrum penicillin because it is effective against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. Narrow spectrum penicillins, on the other hand, are only effective against a limited range of bacteria, usually targeting gram-positive bacteria. Examples of narrow spectrum penicillins include Penicillin G, Penicillin V, Benzathine penicillin, and Procaine Penicillin.Rate this question:
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- 2.
All the following describe Penicillin G's general properties except:
- A.
Highest G+ coverage
- B.
High antipseudomonal activity
- C.
Eliminated through filtration
- D.
Some G- coverage
- E.
B-lactamase sensitive
Correct Answer
B. High antipseudomonal activityExplanation
Penicillin G has NO antipseudomonal activity!Rate this question:
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- 3.
Penicillin G works against:
- A.
G+ cocci
- B.
G- cocci
- C.
G+ bacilli
- D.
Treponema Pallidum
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
G+ cocci include S. pneumoniae, and S. pyrogenes
G- cocci include N. meningitidis and N. gonorrhoeae
G+ bacilli are B. anthracic, C. perfringens, L. monocytogenes, and C. diphtheriaeRate this question:
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- 4.
What are the known side effects of Pen. G?
- A.
Hypersensitivity
- B.
Diarrhea
- C.
A and B
- D.
This test is killing me
- E.
I can't wait till i'm done with it tomorrow
Correct Answer
C. A and BExplanation
The known side effects of Pen. G are hypersensitivity and diarrhea.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which Pen. is only available in oral form?
- A.
Pen. G
- B.
Pen. V
- C.
Pen. C
- D.
Pen. H
- E.
Pen. B
Correct Answer
B. Pen. VExplanation
Pen. V is resistant to gastric acid destructionRate this question:
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- 6.
What three antimicrobial agents are designated antistaphylococcal penicillins?
- A.
Nafcillin
- B.
Ampicillin
- C.
Cloxacillin
- D.
Oxacillin
- E.
A, C, and D
Correct Answer
E. A, C, and DExplanation
The above 3 are resistant to penicillinaseRate this question:
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- 7.
What major properties do penicillinase resistant antibiotics have?
- A.
Lower G+ activity, and some G- coverage
- B.
Some anaerobe coverage
- C.
Some are acid stable (oxacillin)
- D.
Hepatic metabolism and renal excretion
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
the above are used against B-lactamase positive S. aureusRate this question:
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- 8.
Name the two mos popular extended spectrum penicillins
- A.
Nafcillin and Ampicillin
- B.
Amoxicillin and Methicillin
- C.
Ampicillin and Amoxicillin
- D.
Cloxacillin and Oxacillin
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Ampicillin and AmoxicillinExplanation
These have a huge G- coverage and anaerobe coverage when combined with penicillinase inhibitors such as clavulanic acid and sulbactamRate this question:
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- 9.
Ampicillin rash is not a hypersensitivity reaction in children or patients with EBV infection.
- A.
False
- B.
True
Correct Answer
B. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because Ampicillin rash is not a hypersensitivity reaction in children or patients with EBV infection. Ampicillin rash is a common side effect of the antibiotic Ampicillin and is not related to an allergic or hypersensitivity reaction. It is characterized by a non-allergic, non-immunologic rash that occurs in individuals who are taking Ampicillin. However, it is important to note that in rare cases, a severe allergic reaction known as anaphylaxis can occur with Ampicillin use, but this is not specific to children or patients with EBV infection.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Augmentin...
- A.
Is only administered parenterally
- B.
Is obtained when Amoxicillin is combined with sulbactam
- C.
Can treat B-lactamase-producing organisms due to clavulanic acid
- D.
Should not be offered to patients with a previous history of seizures
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Can treat B-lactamase-producing organisms due to clavulanic acidExplanation
Augmentin (Amoxicillin+clavulanic acid) is given orally only, treats B-lactam organisms, can treat severe otitis media and animal bitesRate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following is not characteristic of antipseudomonal penicillins?
- A.
Comprised of Ticarcillin and Piperacillin
- B.
Extended spectrum plus enteric G- bacilli
- C.
Acid resistant (can be administered orally)
- D.
Renal excretion
- E.
Susceptible to B-lactam
Correct Answer
C. Acid resistant (can be administered orally)Explanation
Antipseudomonal penicillins are acid sensitive, therefore, they can only be given parenterally!Rate this question:
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- 12.
By what means bacteria build resistance against antipseudomonaal penicillins?
- A.
Inactivation ( destruction by b-lactamase)
- B.
Decreased permeability of bact. cell wall or lack of cell wall
- C.
Alteration in PBP's to hinder penicillin binding
- D.
Inactivation of autolytic enzymes
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
Bacteria can build resistance against antipseudomonaal penicillins through multiple means. One way is through inactivation, where the penicillins are destroyed by b-lactamase enzymes produced by the bacteria. Another way is through decreased permeability of the bacterial cell wall or the absence of a cell wall, which can prevent the penicillins from entering the bacteria. Additionally, bacteria can develop resistance by altering their penicillin-binding proteins (PBP's), making it difficult for the penicillins to bind and inhibit bacterial growth. Lastly, bacteria can also develop resistance by inactivating autolytic enzymes, which are responsible for breaking down the bacterial cell wall. Therefore, all of the mentioned mechanisms contribute to the development of resistance against antipseudomonaal penicillins.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the single best answer for penicillin toxicity?
- A.
Allergy-anaphylactic shock (give Epinephrine)
- B.
Electrolyte imbalance
- C.
GI dsturbances
- D.
Superinfections
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that all of the options listed (allergy-anaphylactic shock, electrolyte imbalance, GI disturbances, and superinfections) are potential manifestations of penicillin toxicity.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Cephalosporins attack bacteria by blocking terminal cross-linking of peptidoglycans and by activating cell wall autolytic enzymes.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Yes! This is the Cephalosporins' mechanism of action.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which best describes the general properties of 1st generation cephalosporins?
- A.
Good G+ coverage and moderate G- activity
- B.
No antipseudomonal activity
- C.
Renal excretion
- D.
Acid resistance-orally given
- E.
All of the above are true
Correct Answer
E. All of the above are trueExplanation
The general properties of 1st generation cephalosporins include good coverage against Gram-positive bacteria and moderate activity against Gram-negative bacteria. They do not have any antipseudomonal activity. They are excreted through the kidneys and can be given orally due to their resistance to acid. Therefore, all of the statements provided are true for 1st generation cephalosporins.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Second generation Cephalosporins do not:
- A.
Have lower G+ activity
- B.
Have higher G- activity
- C.
Lack antipseudomonal activity and are acid sensitive
- D.
Have B-lactamase resistance and are excreted by the kidney
- E.
Include Cephaclor and Cefprozil
Correct Answer
C. Lack antipseudomonal activity and are acid sensitiveExplanation
2nd generation cephalosporins do lack antipseudomonal activity, but are acid resistant, therefore they can be administered orallyRate this question:
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- 17.
Third generation cephalosporins are:
- A.
Metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidney
- B.
Have good CNS penetration (cefoperazone, cefotaxime)
- C.
Are very effective against G-, less effective against G+, and have antipseudomonal activity (few)
- D.
Acid resistant and increased B-lactamase resistance
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
The broader the spectrum, the lesser these antibiotics are effective against G+ bacteria :)Rate this question:
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- 18.
Cefepime...
- A.
Is the only 4th generation cephalosporin
- B.
Is more resistant to B-lactamase and can only be given parenterally
- C.
Has antipseudomonal activity and has better G+ coverage
- D.
Is excreted renally
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
Cefepime is the only 4th generation cephalosporin, meaning it is the most advanced generation of this class of antibiotics. It is more resistant to B-lactamase, an enzyme that can break down certain antibiotics, making it more effective against resistant bacteria. Cefepime can only be given parenterally, meaning it is administered through injection or infusion. It has antipseudomonal activity, meaning it is effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a common and often resistant bacteria. Additionally, cefepime has better coverage against Gram-positive bacteria compared to other cephalosporins. It is excreted renally, meaning it is eliminated from the body through the kidneys. Therefore, all of the statements are correct.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How toxic are cephalosporins in general?
- A.
They're fairly safer than penicillins
- B.
Still cause superinfections
- C.
Can cause dose-dependend renal tubular necrosis
- D.
Synergistic nephrotoxicity with aminoglycosides
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
They also cause a disulfiram-like reaction after EtOH consumption and can cause allergies and GI symptoms (nausea, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea)Rate this question:
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- 20.
Monobactams...
- A.
Are resistant to B-lactamases
- B.
Have no activity agains G+ and anaerobes
- C.
Acid sensitive (IM/IV only)
- D.
No cross-sensitivity with other b-lactam antibiotics
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
They are also excreted in the kidneyRate this question:
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- 21.
Carbapenems
- A.
Are Imipenem and Meropenem
- B.
Given IV only
- C.
Broad spectrum activity but pseudomonal resistance may develop (combination with aminoglycosides is recommended)
- D.
Imipenem can cause seizures
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
excreted renally and meropenem does not cause seizuresRate this question:
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- 22.
Vancomycin
- A.
Prevents peptidoglycan elongation and is bactericidal
- B.
Is very useful against penicillin/methicillin-resistant S. aureus
- C.
VRE are usually resistant to all other antibiotics (drug of last resort)
- D.
Adverse effects are ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and red man syndrome (flushing from histamine release)
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
The statement "All of the above" is the correct answer because all the statements mentioned are true. Vancomycin prevents peptidoglycan elongation and is bactericidal, making it effective against penicillin/methicillin-resistant S. aureus. It is often considered a drug of last resort because VRE (vancomycin-resistant enterococci) are usually resistant to all other antibiotics. Vancomycin does have adverse effects such as ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and red man syndrome, which is characterized by flushing due to histamine release. Therefore, all the statements mentioned in the question are correct.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Bacitracin...
- A.
Inhibits transmembrane transport of the peptidoglycan subunits
- B.
Is a cyclic polypeptide
- C.
Is used topically due to nephrotoxicity
- D.
A, B, and C are correct
- E.
All of the above are incorrect
Correct Answer
D. A, B, and C are correctExplanation
Cell wall inhibitorRate this question:
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- 24.
Cycloserine...
- A.
Is a broad-spectrum antibiotic
- B.
Inhibits attachment of peptide side chain to the peptidoglycan
- C.
Used only to treat TB (second line)
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Cycloserine is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that inhibits the attachment of peptide side chains to the peptidoglycan, which is a component of bacterial cell walls. It is also used specifically to treat tuberculosis as a second-line treatment. Therefore, all of the statements provided in the options are correct, making "all of the above" the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Macrolides and aminoglycosides are generally known as...
- A.
Cell wall formatio inhibitors
- B.
Inhibitors of cell membrane permeability
- C.
Inhibitors of protein synthesis
- D.
Broad-spectrum
- E.
Penicillins are among them
Correct Answer
C. Inhibitors of protein synthesisExplanation
Macrolides and aminoglycosides are known as inhibitors of protein synthesis. This is because they interfere with the process of protein synthesis in bacterial cells, thereby inhibiting bacterial growth and reproduction. These antibiotics bind to the ribosomes, which are responsible for protein synthesis, and prevent them from functioning properly. As a result, the bacteria are unable to produce essential proteins and eventually die. It is worth noting that penicillins, although mentioned in the options, do not belong to the same class of antibiotics as macrolides and aminoglycosides.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Macrolides...
- A.
Bind the 50S subunit irreversibly
- B.
Effective againt lots of G+, but majority of G- is resistant to it
- C.
All are taken orally
- D.
All except Azithromycin are eliminated by bile and through feces
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
If a microbiologist wants to inhibit the growth of most G+ species, he can culture a mixture in an Erythromycin agar (most of G- will grow)Rate this question:
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- 27.
Erythromycin is...
- A.
Powerless agains many G- bacteria
- B.
The DOC for treatment of Legionnaire's disease and M. pneumoniae
- C.
All of the above are correct
Correct Answer
C. All of the above are correctExplanation
The correct answer is "All of the above are correct." Erythromycin is indeed powerless against many Gram-negative bacteria, as it is primarily effective against Gram-positive bacteria. It is also the drug of choice (DOC) for treating Legionnaire's disease and Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections. Therefore, all of the statements provided in the options are accurate.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Clindamycin...
- A.
Reversibly binds 50S ribosomal subunit and is metabolized by the liver
- B.
Against a wide range of G+ aerobics and anaerobic G+ and G-
- C.
Bactericidal or bacteriostatic and can cross the placenta readily
- D.
Can be given in any way but exhibits poor CNS penetration
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
It is also present in high concentration in the bones and can be used to treat severe anaerobic infections as well as acne when administered topicallyRate this question:
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- 29.
Aminoglycosides are...
- A.
Streptomycin, gentamycin, tobramycin, amikacin, and neomycin
- B.
Bind 30 S subunit
- C.
Poor cns penetration (except in case of inflammation) and should be given parenterally
- D.
Rapidly excreted by the kidney
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
Used when sepsis/endocarditis is suspected; bact. resistance extends to all; used mostly in combination (neomycin+bacitracin+polymyxin to treat scars after plastic surgery); ototoxicity/nephrotoxicityRate this question:
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- 30.
Chloramphenicol...
- A.
Reversibly binds 50S subunit and is bacteriostatic
- B.
Broad spectrum and rapid absorption after oral consumption
- C.
Best CNS penetration and effective against anaerobes
- D.
Liver metabolism, renal excretion
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
not a first choice drug due to typhoid fever, meningitis, infections; can cause reversible bone marrow depression, Gray baby syndrome in infants and aplastic anemiaRate this question:
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- 31.
Tetracyclines...
- A.
Bind reversibly to 30S
- B.
Bacteriostatic in therapeutic concentrations
- C.
Deposited in bones/teeth (Fe2+)
- D.
Used to treat severe acne (topical/oral administration)
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
teeth discoloration, hepatotoxicity esp in pregnant women, increased BUN; not metabolized in the liver, lyme disease/periodontal disease, preventative for bubonic plagueRate this question:
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- 32.
Inhibitors of folate metabolism...
- A.
Compete with PABA in folate synthesis
- B.
Generally bacteriostatic
- C.
Oral absorption
- D.
Liver metabolism and renal excretion
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
Co-trimoxazole is DOC for UTI's; can cause Steven-Johnson disease, low allergies, severe jaundice in infants; drugs are sulfa drugsRate this question:
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- 33.
Inhibitors of DNA synthesis...
- A.
Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin, moxifloxacin)
- B.
Bactericidal/inhibition of DNA gyrase
- C.
Effective against G- aerobic cocci and antipseudomonal
- D.
Prophylaxis against antrax, oral, excellent tissue penetration
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
Cartialage damage in women and children under 18, cause seizuresRate this question:
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- 34.
Metronidazole...
- A.
Mechanism not understood
- B.
Bactericidal (ROS)
- C.
Effective against anaerobes
- D.
Disulfiram-like effect
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "all of the above". Metronidazole's mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is known to be bactericidal through the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS). It is effective against anaerobic bacteria. Additionally, metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like effect, which means it can produce unpleasant symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and flushing when consumed with alcohol.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which pair is mismatched?
- A.
Standard prophylaxis-amoxicillin
- B.
Allergic to penicillins-ampicillins
- C.
Unable to take orally-ampicillin
- D.
Allergic to penicillin and can't swallow pills-cindamycin/cefazolin
- E.
Allergic to penicillin-clindamycin/cephalexin/azithromycin
Correct Answer
B. Allergic to penicillins-ampicillinsExplanation
The pair "allergic to penicillins-ampicillins" is mismatched because ampicillin is a type of penicillin. Therefore, if someone is allergic to penicillins, they would also be allergic to ampicillins.Rate this question:
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May 02, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Oct 05, 2009Quiz Created by
Rita.niyigena
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