A&p II (Heart, Blood & Blood Vessels)

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A&p II (Heart, Blood & Blood Vessels) - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Functions of the blood include all of the following, except

    • A.

      Transport of nutrients and wastes

    • B.

      Generation of body heat

    • C.

      Restricting fluid loss

    • D.

      Regulation of pH and electrolyte concentration of interstitial fluids

    Correct Answer
    B. Generation of body heat
    Explanation
    The blood performs several important functions in the body, including the transport of nutrients and wastes, regulation of pH and electrolyte concentration of interstitial fluids, and restricting fluid loss. However, the blood does not play a direct role in the generation of body heat. Body heat is primarily generated through metabolic processes in the cells and is regulated by the hypothalamus in the brain.

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  • 2. 

    The combination of plasma and formed elements is called

    • A.

      Serum

    • B.

      Lymph

    • C.

      Whole blood

    • D.

      Extracellular fluid

    • E.

      Packed blood

    Correct Answer
    C. Whole blood
    Explanation
    The correct answer is whole blood because it refers to the combination of plasma and formed elements, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Serum refers to the liquid portion of blood without the clotting factors, lymph is a clear fluid that circulates in the lymphatic system, extracellular fluid refers to the fluid outside the cells, and packed blood refers to blood that has been centrifuged to remove plasma, leaving only the formed elements.

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  • 3. 

    Fresh whole blood for testing in a laboratory is usually collected from

    • A.

      The heart

    • B.

      A superficial artery

    • C.

      A superficial vein

    • D.

      A capillary

    • E.

      An arteriole

    Correct Answer
    C. A superficial vein
    Explanation
    Fresh whole blood for testing in a laboratory is usually collected from a superficial vein. Superficial veins are closer to the surface of the skin, making them more accessible for blood collection. They are commonly used for procedures such as venipuncture, where a needle is inserted into the vein to draw blood. Collecting blood from a superficial vein is a relatively simple and safe procedure, making it the preferred method for laboratory testing.

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  • 4. 

    When checking the efficiency of gas exchange, it may be necessary to draw a blood sample from

    • A.

      The heart

    • B.

      The lungs

    • C.

      An artery

    • D.

      A vein

    • E.

      Capillaries

    Correct Answer
    C. An artery
    Explanation
    To check the efficiency of gas exchange, it is necessary to draw a blood sample from an artery. Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the organs and tissues, and they also supply fresh oxygen to the capillaries where gas exchange occurs. By drawing blood from an artery, we can assess the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, which indicates how efficiently gas exchange is occurring in the body. Drawing blood from other options such as the heart, lungs, veins, or capillaries would not provide accurate information about gas exchange efficiency.

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  • 5. 

    Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a

    • A.

      Temperature approximately 38 degrees Celsius

    • B.

      Viscosity about the same as water

    • C.

      PH of 7.4

    • D.

      Bright red color if taken from an artery

    • E.

      Dull red color if taken from a vein

    Correct Answer
    B. Viscosity about the same as water
    Explanation
    Whole blood has a viscosity that is higher than that of water. Viscosity refers to the thickness or resistance to flow of a liquid. Whole blood contains various components such as red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and plasma, which contribute to its higher viscosity compared to water. This characteristic allows blood to flow through the circulatory system efficiently and transport oxygen, nutrients, and waste products throughout the body.

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  • 6. 

    The total volume of blood in the body of a 70-kg man is approximately _____ liters

    • A.

      25–30

    • B.

      10–15

    • C.

      5–6

    • D.

      2–4

    • E.

      Less than 2

    Correct Answer
    C. 5–6
    Explanation
    The total volume of blood in the body of a 70-kg man is approximately 5-6 liters. This is because the average blood volume in the human body is approximately 7% of body weight. For a 70-kg man, this would be around 4.9 liters. However, this estimate does not take into account factors such as age, gender, and overall health, which can affect blood volume. Therefore, a range of 5-6 liters is a reasonable approximation.

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  • 7. 

    A person has a low blood volume is said to be

    • A.

      Hypovolemic

    • B.

      Hypervolemic

    • C.

      Normovolemic

    • D.

      Isovolemic

    • E.

      Antivolemic

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypovolemic
    Explanation
    A person with low blood volume is said to be hypovolemic. This term refers to a condition where there is a decrease in the volume of blood circulating in the body. It can be caused by various factors such as bleeding, dehydration, or fluid loss. Hypovolemia can lead to symptoms like dizziness, low blood pressure, and rapid heart rate. Treatment typically involves replenishing the lost fluids and addressing the underlying cause of the condition.

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  • 8. 

    The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the

    • A.

      Amount of water

    • B.

      Quantity of electrolytes

    • C.

      Quantity of organic wastes

    • D.

      Concentration of dissolved oxygen and proteins

    • E.

      Concentration of glucose

    Correct Answer
    D. Concentration of dissolved oxygen and proteins
    Explanation
    Plasma and interstitial fluid differ in terms of their concentration of dissolved oxygen and proteins. Plasma is the liquid component of blood that carries oxygen and nutrients to the body's tissues, while interstitial fluid is the fluid that surrounds and bathes the cells. Plasma has a higher concentration of dissolved oxygen and proteins compared to interstitial fluid. This difference in concentration allows for the exchange of oxygen and nutrients between the blood vessels and the cells, ensuring proper functioning of the body's tissues.

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  • 9. 

    Plasma proteins that are necessary for blood clotting are the

    • A.

      Albumins

    • B.

      Fibrinogens

    • C.

      Immunoglobulins

    • D.

      Metalloproteins

    • E.

      Lipoproteins

    Correct Answer
    B. Fibrinogens
    Explanation
    Fibrinogens are plasma proteins that are necessary for blood clotting. When an injury occurs, fibrinogens are converted into fibrin, which forms a mesh-like structure to trap platelets and form a blood clot. This clotting process helps to prevent excessive bleeding and promotes wound healing. Albumins, immunoglobulins, metalloproteins, and lipoproteins are other types of plasma proteins, but they do not play a direct role in blood clotting.

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  • 10. 

    Stem cells responsible for the production of most white blood cells originate in the

    • A.

      Liver

    • B.

      Thymus

    • C.

      Spleen

    • D.

      Red bone marrow

    • E.

      Lymph tissue

    Correct Answer
    D. Red bone marrow
    Explanation
    Red bone marrow is the correct answer because it is responsible for the production of most white blood cells. Stem cells in the red bone marrow differentiate into various types of white blood cells, such as neutrophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes, which play a crucial role in the immune system's defense against infections and diseases. The liver, thymus, spleen, and lymph tissue also have roles in the immune system, but they are not primarily responsible for the production of white blood cells.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false?

    • A.

      Red cells are biconcave discs

    • B.

      Red cells lack mitochondria

    • C.

      Red cells have a large nucleus

    • D.

      Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen

    • E.

      Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux

    Correct Answer
    C. Red cells have a large nucleus
  • 12. 

    The average lifespan of a red blood cell is

    • A.

      1 week

    • B.

      1 month

    • C.

      4 months

    • D.

      6 months

    • E.

      1 year

    Correct Answer
    C. 4 months
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4 months. Red blood cells, also known as erythrocytes, have a lifespan of approximately 120 days, which is equivalent to 4 months. These cells are constantly being produced and replaced in the body to ensure a healthy supply of oxygen to tissues and organs. After their lifespan, old red blood cells are broken down and recycled by the spleen and liver.

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  • 13. 

    The function of red blood cells is to

    • A.

      Remove carbon dioxide from active cells

    • B.

      Remove nitrogenous wastes from active tissues

    • C.

      Carry oxygen from the lungs to the body’s cells

    • D.

      Carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body’s cells

    • E.

      Defend the body against infectious organisms

    Correct Answer
    C. Carry oxygen from the lungs to the body’s cells
    Explanation
    Red blood cells contain a protein called hemoglobin, which has the ability to bind and transport oxygen. When red blood cells pass through the lungs, they pick up oxygen and then deliver it to the body's cells. This process is essential for cellular respiration, where oxygen is used to produce energy. Therefore, the function of red blood cells is to carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells.

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  • 14. 

    More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is

    • A.

      Albumin

    • B.

      Porphyrin

    • C.

      Hemoglobin

    • D.

      Immunoglobulin

    • E.

      Fibrinogen

    Correct Answer
    C. Hemoglobin
    Explanation
    Hemoglobin is the correct answer because it is the main protein found in red blood cells. It is responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body and transporting carbon dioxide back to the lungs. Hemoglobin makes up more than 95 percent of the protein content in red blood cells, making it the dominant protein in this cell type.

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  • 15. 

    _____ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced

    • A.

      Polycythemia

    • B.

      Leukemia

    • C.

      Anemia

    • D.

      Leukopenia

    • E.

      Thrombocytopenia

    Correct Answer
    C. Anemia
    Explanation
    Anemia is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced. This can occur due to a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. Anemia can result from various causes such as nutritional deficiencies, chronic diseases, or genetic disorders. Symptoms of anemia may include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, and pale skin. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause and may include iron supplements, blood transfusions, or medications to stimulate red blood cell production.

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  • 16. 

    A condition in which the hematocrit is elevated and the blood volume is normal would be

    • A.

      Polycythemia

    • B.

      Leukocytosis

    • C.

      Thrombocytosis

    • D.

      Anemia

    • E.

      Leukemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Polycythemia
    Explanation
    Polycythemia is a condition characterized by an elevated hematocrit, which is the percentage of red blood cells in the blood. In this condition, the blood volume remains normal, meaning that there is no increase or decrease in the overall volume of blood. Polycythemia can be primary, caused by an overproduction of red blood cells by the bone marrow, or secondary, caused by factors such as chronic hypoxia or certain diseases.

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  • 17. 

    A red blood cell that contains normal amounts of hemoglobin would be called

    • A.

      Hyperchromic

    • B.

      Normochromic

    • C.

      Hypochromic

    • D.

      Normocytic

    • E.

      Macrocytic

    Correct Answer
    B. Normochromic
    Explanation
    Normochromic refers to a red blood cell that contains a normal amount of hemoglobin. This means that the cell has a normal coloration, indicating a healthy level of hemoglobin, which is responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body.

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  • 18. 

    The waste product bilirubin is produced from

    • A.

      Globin chains of hemoglobin

    • B.

      Portions of heme molecules that contain iron

    • C.

      Portions of heme molecules that do not contain iron

    • D.

      Iron found in hemoglobin molecules

    • E.

      Abnormal proteins found in red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Portions of heme molecules that do not contain iron
    Explanation
    Bilirubin is a waste product that is produced when heme molecules, found in red blood cells, are broken down. Heme molecules consist of a porphyrin ring structure and an iron atom at the center. When the iron is removed from the heme molecule, it becomes a waste product called bilirubin. Therefore, the correct answer is "portions of heme molecules that do not contain iron."

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  • 19. 

    Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is

    • A.

      Excreted by the kidneys

    • B.

      Excreted by the liver

    • C.

      Excreted by the intestines

    • D.

      Recycled to the bone marrow

    • E.

      Stored in yellow bone marrow

    Correct Answer
    D. Recycled to the bone marrow
    Explanation
    Iron is an essential component of hemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood. When hemoglobin degrades, the iron is released. Instead of being excreted by the kidneys, liver, or intestines, the iron is recycled back to the bone marrow. This is because the bone marrow is responsible for producing new red blood cells, which require iron for their formation. Therefore, recycling the iron back to the bone marrow ensures that it can be used again in the production of new hemoglobin and red blood cells.

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  • 20. 

    In adults, erythropoiesis primarily takes place in

    • A.

      The liver

    • B.

      Yellow bone marrow

    • C.

      Myeloid tissue.(red bone marrow)

    • D.

      The spleen

    • E.

      The kidneys

    Correct Answer
    C. Myeloid tissue.(red bone marrow)
    Explanation
    Erythropoiesis is the process of red blood cell production. In adults, this process primarily occurs in the red bone marrow, also known as myeloid tissue. The red bone marrow is responsible for producing all types of blood cells, including red blood cells. The liver, yellow bone marrow, spleen, and kidneys do not play a significant role in erythropoiesis in adults.

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  • 21. 

    The process of red blood cell production is called

    • A.

      Erythrocytosis

    • B.

      Erythropenia

    • C.

      Hemocytosis

    • D.

      Erythropoiesis

    • E.

      Hematopenia

    Correct Answer
    D. Erythropoiesis
    Explanation
    Erythropoiesis is the correct answer because it refers to the process of red blood cell production. Erythrocytosis and hemocytosis both refer to an increase in the number of red blood cells, while erythropenia and hematopenia refer to a decrease in the number of red blood cells. Therefore, erythropoiesis is the most appropriate term to describe the process of red blood cell production.

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  • 22. 

    Erythrocytes are formed from stem cells called

    • A.

      Hemocytoblasts

    • B.

      Reticulocytes

    • C.

      Band cells

    • D.

      Myeloid cells

    • E.

      Pronormoblasts

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemocytoblasts
    Explanation
    Erythrocytes, also known as red blood cells, are formed from stem cells called hemocytoblasts. Hemocytoblasts are multipotent cells found in the bone marrow that have the ability to differentiate into various types of blood cells. They give rise to all the different cell types in the blood, including erythrocytes. Reticulocytes, band cells, myeloid cells, and pronormoblasts are not specifically involved in the formation of erythrocytes.

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  • 23. 

    Erythropoiesis increases when

    • A.

      Oxygen levels in the blood increase

    • B.

      Oxygen levels in the blood decrease

    • C.

      Carbon dioxide levels in the blood increase

    • D.

      Carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease

    • E.

      Protein levels in the blood increase

    Correct Answer
    B. Oxygen levels in the blood decrease
    Explanation
    Erythropoiesis is the process of producing red blood cells. When the oxygen levels in the blood decrease, it indicates that the body is not receiving enough oxygen. In response, the body increases erythropoiesis to produce more red blood cells, which carry oxygen to the tissues. This adaptive mechanism helps to restore oxygen levels in the blood and maintain adequate oxygen supply to the body's cells.

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  • 24. 

    The percentage of whole blood occupied by cellular elements is the

    • A.

      Viscosity

    • B.

      Specific gravity

    • C.

      Packed volume

    • D.

      Hematocrit

    • E.

      Differential cell count

    Correct Answer
    D. Hematocrit
    Explanation
    Hematocrit refers to the percentage of whole blood that is occupied by cellular elements, specifically red blood cells. It is a measure of the volume of red blood cells in relation to the total blood volume. Hematocrit is an important parameter in assessing the overall health and function of the blood, as changes in hematocrit levels can indicate conditions such as anemia or polycythemia.

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  • 25. 

    A normal adult hematocrit would be

    • A.

      100

    • B.

      75

    • C.

      66

    • D.

      45

    • E.

      10

    Correct Answer
    D. 45
    Explanation
    A normal adult hematocrit is typically around 45%. Hematocrit is a measure of the volume of red blood cells in the blood compared to the total blood volume. A hematocrit of 45% indicates that 45% of the blood volume is made up of red blood cells, which is considered within the normal range for adults.

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  • 26. 

    A person’s blood type is determined by the

    • A.

      Size of the red blood cells

    • B.

      Shape of the red blood cells

    • C.

      Chemical character of the hemoglobin

    • D.

      Presence or absence of specific molecules on the cell membrane

    • E.

      Number of specific molecules on the cell membrane

    Correct Answer
    D. Presence or absence of specific molecules on the cell membrane
    Explanation
    A person's blood type is determined by the presence or absence of specific molecules on the cell membrane. These molecules are known as antigens, and they can either be present or absent on the surface of red blood cells. The presence or absence of certain antigens determines a person's blood type, such as A, B, AB, or O. This is why blood type compatibility is important for blood transfusions, as the presence of certain antigens can cause an immune reaction if incompatible blood types are mixed.

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  • 27. 

    All of the following are true of neutrophils, except that they are

    • A.

      Granular leukocytes

    • B.

      Phagocytic

    • C.

      Also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes

    • D.

      Important in coagulation

    • E.

      Active in fighting bacterial infections

    Correct Answer
    D. Important in coagulation
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are granular leukocytes that are phagocytic, also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes, and active in fighting bacterial infections. However, they are not important in coagulation. Coagulation is the process of blood clotting, which involves platelets and clotting factors, but neutrophils do not play a significant role in this process.

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  • 28. 

    The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      Eosinophils

    • C.

      Basophils

    • D.

      Lymphocytes

    • E.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. NeutropHils
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are the most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation. They play a crucial role in the immune response by engulfing and destroying bacteria and other foreign substances. Neutrophils are highly mobile and are often the first responders to infection or inflammation. They are characterized by their multi-lobed nucleus and granular cytoplasm.

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  • 29. 

    White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      Eosinophils

    • C.

      Basophils

    • D.

      Lymphocytes

    • E.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    C. BasopHils
    Explanation
    Basophils are a type of white blood cell that release histamine at the site of an injury. Histamine is a chemical that causes inflammation and helps to attract other immune cells to the area. Basophils are involved in the body's immune response to allergic reactions and parasitic infections.

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  • 30. 

    _____ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      Eosinophils

    • C.

      Basophils

    • D.

      Lymphocytes

    • E.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    E. Monocytes
    Explanation
    Monocytes are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. These cells are part of the innate immune system and play a crucial role in engulfing and destroying pathogens. They are known for their ability to migrate to tissues and differentiate into macrophages or dendritic cells, depending on the specific immune response required. Monocytes are important for initiating the inflammatory response and are involved in the clearance of dead cells and debris.

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  • 31. 

    The white blood cells that are important in producing antibodies are the

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      Eosinophils

    • C.

      Basophils

    • D.

      Lymphocytes

    • E.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    D. LympHocytes
    Explanation
    Lymphocytes are the white blood cells that play a crucial role in producing antibodies. These cells are a part of the immune system and are responsible for recognizing and attacking foreign substances in the body. Lymphocytes are specifically involved in the adaptive immune response, where they produce antibodies that target and neutralize specific pathogens or antigens. This process helps in preventing infections and maintaining overall immune health.

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  • 32. 

    White blood cells that increase in number during an allergic reaction or in response to parasitic infections are the

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      Eosinophils

    • C.

      Basophils

    • D.

      Lymphocytes

    • E.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    B. EosinopHils
    Explanation
    Eosinophils are white blood cells that increase in number during allergic reactions or in response to parasitic infections. They are involved in the immune response against parasites and play a role in the allergic response by releasing substances that help to control inflammation. Neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cell and are typically involved in fighting bacterial infections. Basophils are involved in allergic reactions and release histamine. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell involved in the adaptive immune response. Monocytes are another type of white blood cell that can differentiate into macrophages and help to engulf and destroy pathogens.

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  • 33. 

    Platelets function in all of the following, except

    • A.

      Dissolving a formed clot

    • B.

      Forming temporary patches in injured areas

    • C.

      Contraction after clot formation

    • D.

      Initiating the clotting process

    • E.

      Transporting chemicals important for clotting

    Correct Answer
    A. Dissolving a formed clot
    Explanation
    Platelets are small cell fragments that play a crucial role in blood clotting. They help in forming temporary patches in injured areas by adhering to the damaged blood vessel walls. Platelets also initiate the clotting process by releasing chemicals that attract more platelets and promote the formation of a fibrin mesh. Additionally, platelets contract after clot formation, helping to stabilize the clot. They also transport chemicals important for clotting, such as clotting factors. However, platelets do not dissolve a formed clot. Once a clot is formed, other mechanisms, such as fibrinolysis, are responsible for breaking it down.

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  • 34. 

    Platelets are formed from cells in the bone marrow called

    • A.

      Erythroblasts

    • B.

      Normoblasts

    • C.

      Megakaryocytes

    • D.

      Myeloblasts

    • E.

      Lymphoblasts

    Correct Answer
    C. Megakaryocytes
    Explanation
    Platelets are formed from cells in the bone marrow called megakaryocytes. Megakaryocytes are large cells that reside in the bone marrow and are responsible for producing platelets. When megakaryocytes mature, they undergo fragmentation, releasing small fragments called platelets into the bloodstream. These platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting and the repair of damaged blood vessels.

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  • 35. 

    Platelets are

    • A.

      Large cells that lack a nucleus

    • B.

      Small cells that lack a nucleus

    • C.

      Large cells with a prominent, indented nucleus

    • D.

      Small cells with a many-shaped nucleus

    • E.

      Fragments of large megakaryocyte cells

    Correct Answer
    E. Fragments of large megakaryocyte cells
    Explanation
    Platelets are fragments of large megakaryocyte cells. Megakaryocytes are large cells found in the bone marrow that are responsible for producing platelets. These megakaryocytes undergo a process called fragmentation, where they break apart into smaller pieces, which then circulate in the blood as platelets. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting and are involved in the repair of damaged blood vessels. Their lack of a nucleus allows them to be more flexible and versatile in their functions.

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  • 36. 

    Od returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the

    • A.

      Right atrium

    • B.

      Right ventricle

    • C.

      Left atrium

    • D.

      Left ventricle

    • E.

      Conus arteriosus

    Correct Answer
    A. Right atrium
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "right atrium" because the systemic circuit carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body, and after circulating through the body, the deoxygenated blood returns to the heart through the superior and inferior vena cava. The vena cava then empties the blood into the right atrium, which is the first chamber that receives the deoxygenated blood before it is pumped to the lungs for oxygenation.

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  • 37. 

    Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the

    • A.

      Right atrium

    • B.

      Right ventricle

    • C.

      Left atrium

    • D.

      Left ventricle

    • E.

      Conus arteriosus

    Correct Answer
    C. Left atrium
    Explanation
    The blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit is oxygenated blood that has been circulated through the lungs. It enters the heart through the pulmonary veins and specifically enters the left atrium. The left atrium then contracts, pushing the blood into the left ventricle, which will then pump the oxygenated blood out to the rest of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is left atrium.

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  • 38. 

    The expandable extension of the atrium is the

    • A.

      Ventricle

    • B.

      Coronary sinus

    • C.

      Coronary sulcus

    • D.

      Auricle

    • E.

      Interatrial septum

    Correct Answer
    D. Auricle
    Explanation
    The auricle is the correct answer because it is the expandable extension of the atrium. The auricle is a small, ear-like structure that protrudes from the atrium and allows for increased blood flow and storage capacity. It helps to regulate the filling and emptying of the atrium, allowing for efficient pumping of blood into the ventricle.

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  • 39. 

    The coronary sulcus is a groove that

    • A.

      Marks the border between the atria and ventricles

    • B.

      Marks the boundary line between the right and left ventricles

    • C.

      Marks the boundary line between the right and left atria

    • D.

      Separates the atrioventricular valves from the atria

    • E.

      Separates the coronary arteries from the coronary veins

    Correct Answer
    A. Marks the border between the atria and ventricles
    Explanation
    The coronary sulcus is a groove that marks the border between the atria and ventricles. This groove is located on the surface of the heart and separates the atria, which receive blood from the veins, from the ventricles, which pump blood out of the heart. The coronary sulcus is also known as the atrioventricular groove and it contains important structures such as the coronary arteries and veins, as well as fat and connective tissue.

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  • 40. 

    Contractions of the papillary muscles

    • A.

      Close the atrioventricular valves

    • B.

      Close the semilunar valves

    • C.

      Eject blood from the ventricles.

    • D.

      Prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria

    • E.

      Eject blood from the atria into the ventricles

    Correct Answer
    D. Prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria
    Explanation
    The contraction of the papillary muscles prevents the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria. When the ventricles contract, the papillary muscles also contract, pulling on the chordae tendineae. This prevents the valve flaps (cusps) from being pushed back into the atria, ensuring that blood flows in the correct direction from the atria to the ventricles. If the atrioventricular valves were to reverse into the atria, blood would flow back into the atria instead of being pumped out to the rest of the body, leading to inefficient circulation.

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  • 41. 

    The visceral pericardium is the same as the

    • A.

      Mediastinum

    • B.

      Parietal pericardium

    • C.

      Epicardium

    • D.

      Myocardium

    • E.

      Endocardium

    Correct Answer
    C. Epicardium
    Explanation
    The visceral pericardium refers to the inner layer of the pericardium, which is the double-walled sac that surrounds the heart. The epicardium is the outermost layer of the heart wall and is also known as the visceral layer of the pericardium. Therefore, the visceral pericardium is the same as the epicardium.

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  • 42. 

    The right ventricle pumps blood to the

    • A.

      Lungs

    • B.

      Left ventricle

    • C.

      Systemic circuit

    • D.

      Right atrium

    Correct Answer
    A. Lungs
    Explanation
    The right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs. This is because the right ventricle receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium and is responsible for pumping it to the lungs through the pulmonary artery. In the lungs, the blood gets oxygenated and returns to the left atrium through the pulmonary veins. From there, it enters the left ventricle and is pumped to the systemic circuit, supplying oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.

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  • 43. 

    The left ventricle pumps blood to the

    • A.

      Lungs

    • B.

      Right ventricle

    • C.

      Right atrium

    • D.

      Systemic circuit

    • E.

      Pulmonary circuit

    Correct Answer
    D. Systemic circuit
    Explanation
    The left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood from the lungs to the systemic circuit, which includes all the organs and tissues of the body. This circuit delivers oxygen and nutrients to the cells and removes waste products.

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  • 44. 

    The atrioventricular valve on the side of the heart that receives the superior vena cava is the _____ valve

    • A.

      Mitral

    • B.

      Bicuspid

    • C.

      Tricuspid

    • D.

      Pulmonary semilunar

    • E.

      Aortic semilunar

    Correct Answer
    C. Tricuspid
    Explanation
    The atrioventricular valve on the side of the heart that receives the superior vena cava is the tricuspid valve. This valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle and consists of three cusps or flaps. It prevents the backflow of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium when the ventricle contracts. The mitral valve, also known as the bicuspid valve, is located on the left side of the heart and separates the left atrium from the left ventricle. The pulmonary semilunar and aortic semilunar valves are located in the arteries leaving the heart, not in the atrioventricular region.

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  • 45. 

    Blood leaving the right ventricle enters the

    • A.

      Pulmonary veins

    • B.

      Pulmonary trunk

    • C.

      Aorta

    • D.

      Inferior vena cava

    • E.

      Superior vena cava

    Correct Answer
    B. Pulmonary trunk
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the pulmonary trunk. The pulmonary trunk is the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs. In the lungs, the blood picks up oxygen and gets rid of carbon dioxide before returning to the heart.

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  • 46. 

    The pulmonary semilunar valve guards the entrance to the

    • A.

      Aorta

    • B.

      Pulmonary trunk

    • C.

      Pulmonary veins

    • D.

      Right ventricle

    • E.

      Left ventricle

    Correct Answer
    B. Pulmonary trunk
    Explanation
    The pulmonary semilunar valve is responsible for guarding the entrance to the pulmonary trunk. The pulmonary trunk is a large artery that carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs for oxygenation. The valve prevents the backflow of blood into the right ventricle when the ventricle relaxes, ensuring that blood flows only in one direction, from the right ventricle to the pulmonary trunk.

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  • 47. 

    The entrance to the ascending aorta is guarded by the _____ valve

    • A.

      Atrioventricular

    • B.

      Semilunar

    • C.

      Bicuspid

    • D.

      Tricuspid

    • E.

      Mitral

    Correct Answer
    B. Semilunar
    Explanation
    The entrance to the ascending aorta is guarded by the semilunar valve. The semilunar valve is located between the left ventricle and the aorta, preventing the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle. This valve consists of three cusps that open and close to allow the blood to flow forward into the aorta during ventricular contraction and prevent it from flowing back into the ventricle during relaxation.

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  • 48. 

    Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle has all the following characteristics, except that it

    • A.

      Has a thicker wall

    • B.

      Is round in cross section

    • C.

      Relaxes more slowly

    • D.

      Develops higher pressures when it contracts

    • E.

      Produces 6 to 7 times more force when it contracts

    Correct Answer
    C. Relaxes more slowly
    Explanation
    The left ventricle is known for having a thicker wall, being round in cross section, developing higher pressures when it contracts, and producing 6 to 7 times more force when it contracts. However, it does not relax more slowly compared to the right ventricle.

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  • 49. 

    The left and right pulmonary veins carry blood to the

    • A.

      Heart

    • B.

      Lungs

    • C.

      Brain

    • D.

      Intestines

    • E.

      Liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Heart
    Explanation
    The left and right pulmonary veins carry blood from the lungs back to the heart. When blood is oxygenated in the lungs, it is collected by the pulmonary veins and transported back to the heart's left atrium. From there, the blood is pumped into the left ventricle and then distributed to the rest of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is "heart".

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  • 50. 

    The heart wall is composed of _____ layers of tissue

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    • E.

      6

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    The heart wall is composed of three layers of tissue. These layers include the epicardium, which is the outermost layer, the myocardium, which is the middle and thickest layer responsible for the contraction of the heart, and the endocardium, which is the innermost layer that lines the chambers of the heart. These three layers work together to ensure the proper functioning of the heart and its ability to pump blood throughout the body.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 24, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 29, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Sroyston
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