Arise Online Quiz - Oct'18
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- 1.
What is the recommended dose of Rifakem in Infectious diarrhoea?
- A.
A) 200mg BD for 5 day’s
- B.
B) 400mg TID for 14 day’s
- C.
C) 200mg TID for 3 day’s
- D.
D) 550mg TID for 14 day’s
Correct Answer
C. C) 200mg TID for 3 day’sExplanation
The recommended dose of Rifakem in Infectious diarrhoea is 200mg TID for 3 days.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Rifakem modulates the gut immune signalling, hence it is useful in ………………..?
- A.
A) IBS D
- B.
B) HE
- C.
C) Infectious diarrhoea
- D.
D) None of the above
Correct Answer
A. A) IBS DExplanation
Rifakem modulates the gut immune signaling, which suggests that it can help regulate the immune response in the gut. This could be beneficial in the case of Irritable Bowel Syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D), as IBS-D is characterized by abnormal immune activation and inflammation in the gut. By modulating the immune signaling, Rifakem may help reduce inflammation and improve symptoms in individuals with IBS-D.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Rifakem is bactericidal and bacteriostatic, hence it is useful in……………………?
- A.
A) IBS D
- B.
B) HE
- C.
C) Infectious diarrhoea
- D.
D) None of the above
Correct Answer
C. C) Infectious diarrhoeaExplanation
Rifakem is both bactericidal and bacteriostatic, meaning it can kill bacteria and inhibit their growth. This makes it useful in treating infectious diarrhea, which is caused by bacterial infections in the gastrointestinal tract. Rifakem can help eliminate the bacteria causing the infection and stop their growth, leading to relief from symptoms and resolution of the diarrhea. It is not useful in treating IBS-D (irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea) or HE (hepatic encephalopathy), which have different underlying causes.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What is recommended dose of Rifakem in IBS D?
- A.
A) 400mg BD for 14 day’s
- B.
B) 200mg TID for 3 day’s
- C.
C) 400mg TID for 14 day’s
- D.
D) All of the above
Correct Answer
C. C) 400mg TID for 14 day’sExplanation
The recommended dose of Rifakem in IBS D is 400mg TID for 14 days. This means that the medication should be taken three times a day at a dosage of 400mg for a duration of 14 days. This dosage and duration of treatment is specifically recommended for individuals with IBS D.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Colmint chemical composition is as per the ………………………?
- A.
A) Indian pharmacopoeia
- B.
B) British pharmacopoeia
- C.
C) US pharmacopoeia
- D.
D) None of the above
Correct Answer
A. A) Indian pHarmacopoeiaExplanation
The correct answer is a) Indian pharmacopoeia. This means that the chemical composition of Colmint is in accordance with the standards set by the Indian pharmacopoeia.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What is the meaning of anti-spasmodic action?
- A.
A) Calcium channel agonist
- B.
B) Calcium channel antagonist
- C.
C) Kills the bacteria
- D.
D) Reduces the swelling
Correct Answer
B. B) Calcium channel antagonistExplanation
The correct answer is b) Calcium channel antagonist. Anti-spasmodic action refers to the ability of a substance to reduce or prevent muscle spasms. Calcium channel antagonists work by blocking the entry of calcium ions into muscle cells, which helps to relax and prevent excessive muscle contractions. This action can be beneficial in treating conditions such as muscle cramps, menstrual cramps, and certain types of pain.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Colic pain means ……………………?
- A.
A) Joint Pain
- B.
B) Headache
- C.
C) Backache
- D.
D) Abdominal pain
Correct Answer
D. D) Abdominal painExplanation
Colic pain refers to abdominal pain. It is a type of pain that occurs in the abdomen and can be caused by various factors such as digestive issues, muscle spasms, or inflammation. This pain can be severe and cramp-like, and is often associated with conditions like irritable bowel syndrome or kidney stones. Therefore, the correct answer is d) Abdominal pain.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Choose the appropriate USP of V & M?
- A.
A) Vegetarian Source
- B.
B) No bad odour
- C.
C) No fishy belching
- D.
D) All of the above
Correct Answer
D. D) All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that all of the options mentioned (Vegetarian Source, No bad odour, No fishy belching) are the unique selling points (USPs) of V & M. In other words, V & M offers a vegetarian source, does not have a bad odour, and does not cause fishy belching.Rate this question:
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- 9.
In Visual aid of V & M, What MBC stands for………………?
- A.
A) Mist barrier coating
- B.
B) Moisture barrier coating
- C.
C) Vegetarian source
- D.
D) Bi layered
Correct Answer
B. B) Moisture barrier coatingExplanation
The correct answer is b) Moisture barrier coating. MBC stands for Moisture Barrier Coating, which is a type of coating used to prevent moisture from penetrating a surface or material. This type of coating is commonly used in various industries such as packaging, electronics, and construction to protect products from moisture damage.Rate this question:
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- 10.
To avoid the interaction between vitamins & minerals in V & M, we use …….?
- A.
A) Bi- layered tablets
- B.
B) Vegetarian source
- C.
C) High binding agent
- D.
D) None of these
Correct Answer
A. A) Bi- layered tabletsExplanation
Bi-layered tablets are used to avoid the interaction between vitamins and minerals in V & M.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is the mode of action of Cefpodoxime proxetil?
- A.
A) Inhibits the protein synthesis
- B.
B) Inhibits the cell wall synthesis
- C.
C) Inhibits the DNA replication
- D.
D) All of the above
Correct Answer
B. B) Inhibits the cell wall synthesisExplanation
Cefpodoxime proxetil inhibits the cell wall synthesis. The cell wall is an essential component of bacteria that provides structural support and protects the cell from osmotic pressure. By inhibiting the synthesis of the cell wall, cefpodoxime proxetil weakens the bacteria, making it easier for the immune system to eliminate the infection. This mode of action is specific to bacteria and does not affect human cells, making cefpodoxime proxetil an effective antibiotic for treating bacterial infections.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is the recommended dose of Swich DS in children?
- A.
A) 20mg/kg/2 divided dose
- B.
B) 10mg/kg/2 divided dose
- C.
C) 30mg/kg/day
- D.
D) 40mg/kg/day
Correct Answer
B. B) 10mg/kg/2 divided doseExplanation
The recommended dose of Swich DS in children is 10mg/kg/2 divided dose. This means that the child should be given a dosage of 10mg of the medication per kilogram of their body weight, divided into two equal doses. This dosage is considered safe and effective for children.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Mark the flavour of Swich 100 DS?
- A.
A) Mango
- B.
B) Mint
- C.
C) Orange
- D.
D) Mixed fruit
Correct Answer
C. C) OrangeExplanation
The correct answer is c) Orange. This is because the question asks for the flavor of Swich 100 DS, and the correct flavor is orange.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Swich CV offer's _____________which ensures stability and efficacy of Clavulanic Acid post formulation?
- A.
A) Cold stripping
- B.
B) Nitrogen flushing
- C.
C) OST
- D.
D) None of the above
Correct Answer
B. B) Nitrogen flushingExplanation
Nitrogen flushing is the correct answer because it helps to ensure stability and efficacy of Clavulanic Acid post formulation. Nitrogen flushing involves replacing the air inside the container with nitrogen gas, which helps to prevent oxidation and degradation of the Clavulanic Acid. This process creates an oxygen-free environment, which helps to maintain the quality and effectiveness of the medication.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the full form of GERD?
- A.
A) Gastro Reflux disorder
- B.
B) Gastro oesophageal reflux disorder
- C.
C) Gastro oesophageal reverse disease
- D.
D) None of the above
Correct Answer
B. B) Gastro oesopHageal reflux disorderExplanation
GERD stands for Gastro Oesophageal Reflux Disorder. This disorder occurs when stomach acid flows back into the esophagus, causing symptoms such as heartburn, chest pain, and difficulty swallowing. The correct answer, option b, accurately represents the full form of GERD.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the meaning of refractory GERD?
- A.
A) GERD patient- Partial response or no response to PPI
- B.
B) GERD patient – full response to PPI therapy
- C.
C) Back to GERD condition
- D.
D) None of the above
Correct Answer
A. A) GERD patient- Partial response or no response to PPIExplanation
Refractory GERD refers to a condition where a patient with GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease) shows only a partial response or no response at all to PPI (proton pump inhibitor) therapy. PPIs are commonly prescribed medications for treating GERD by reducing the production of stomach acid. However, in refractory GERD, the symptoms of acid reflux persist despite PPI treatment, indicating a lack of effectiveness. This may require alternative treatment approaches or further investigation to determine the underlying cause of the patient's persistent symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 17.
In refractory GERD, which brand has to be promoted?
- A.
A) Esokem D
- B.
B) Esokem L
- C.
C) Esokem 20 mg
- D.
D) Esokem 40mg
Correct Answer
B. B) Esokem LExplanation
Esokem L is the brand that has to be promoted in refractory GERD. The other options, Esokem D, Esokem 20 mg, and Esokem 40 mg, do not specifically address refractory GERD. Therefore, Esokem L is the most appropriate choice for promoting in this condition.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is role of Levosulpride in Esokem L?
- A.
A) H1 receptor antagonist
- B.
B) Dopamine receptor antagonist
- C.
C) Dopamine receptor antagonist & 5 HT 4 agonist
- D.
D) All of the above
Correct Answer
C. C) Dopamine receptor antagonist & 5 HT 4 agonistExplanation
Levosulpride is a medication commonly used in the treatment of gastrointestinal disorders. It acts as a dopamine receptor antagonist, meaning it blocks the effects of dopamine in the body. Additionally, it also acts as a 5 HT 4 agonist, which means it stimulates serotonin receptors in the gastrointestinal tract. This dual mechanism of action helps to regulate the movement of the digestive system and alleviate symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and bloating. Therefore, the correct answer is c) Dopamine receptor antagonist & 5 HT 4 agonist.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Domperidone in Esokem D is in ____________ release form?
- A.
A) Controlled
- B.
B) Sustained
- C.
C) Extended
- D.
D) None of the above
Correct Answer
B. B) SustainedExplanation
Domperidone in Esokem D is in sustained release form. This means that the medication is designed to be released slowly and steadily over an extended period of time. This allows for a consistent and prolonged effect of the drug, providing a more controlled and sustained therapeutic effect. Controlled release and extended release are also forms of slow release, but in this case, the correct answer is sustained release.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the dose of Esokem in GERD?
- A.
A) Esokem OD for 7 day’s
- B.
B) Esokem OD for 14 day’s
- C.
C) Esokem D for 4-8 weeks
- D.
D) Esokem D for 7 day’s
Correct Answer
C. C) Esokem D for 4-8 weeksExplanation
Esokem is a medication used to treat GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease). The correct answer, option c), states that the dose of Esokem for GERD is for 4-8 weeks. This means that the medication should be taken for a duration of 4 to 8 weeks to effectively manage the symptoms of GERD. It is important to follow the prescribed duration of treatment to ensure optimal results and to consult a healthcare professional for personalized advice.Rate this question:
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Aug 27, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 03, 2018Quiz Created by
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