Aseptic II Practice Exame
(105).webp "Aseptic II Practice Exame - Quiz")
practice for Uyen's exam on 11-4-09
- 1.
Most IV medications are given how long, after preparation to expire?
- A.
6 hours
- B.
24 hours
- C.
2 days
- D.
1 week
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. 24 hoursExplanation
IV medications are typically given within 24 hours after preparation to expire. This is because after this time, the medication may lose its potency or become contaminated, which can pose a risk to the patient's health. Therefore, it is important to adhere to the recommended expiration time to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the medication.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is the angle for hand positioning when working in a BSC?
- A.
30 degrees
- B.
45 degrees
- C.
90 degrees
- D.
180 degrees
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. 45 degreesExplanation
The angle for hand positioning when working in a BSC is 45 degrees. This angle allows for a comfortable and ergonomic position while working, reducing strain on the wrists and arms. It also allows for better control and precision in performing tasks. A 45-degree angle is often recommended by ergonomics experts for optimal hand positioning during work.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is another brand name for Kefzol?
- A.
Keflex
- B.
Ancef
- C.
Flagyl
- D.
Fortaz
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. AncefExplanation
Ancef is another brand name for Kefzol.Rate this question:
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- 4.
When making a TPN, we usually add Lipids (if we add lipids)
- A.
In the beginning
- B.
In the middle
- C.
At the end
- D.
It does not matter when we add it
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. At the endExplanation
Lipids are usually added at the end when making a TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition). This is because lipids are prone to oxidation and can become rancid if exposed to air or light for a long time. By adding lipids at the end, we minimize the chances of oxidation and ensure the TPN remains stable and safe for administration.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The concentration of a stock drug is 500 mg/14mL, you need to make 225 mg in D5W 100mL, how much drug will you draw up in your syringe?
- A.
2.25 mL
- B.
6.2 mL
- C.
63 mL
- D.
6 mL
- E.
6.3 mL
Correct Answer
E. 6.3 mLExplanation
To calculate the amount of drug to be drawn up in the syringe, we can set up a proportion using the concentration of the stock drug and the desired dose.
The proportion can be set up as follows:
(500mg/14mL) = (x mg/100mL)
Cross-multiplying and solving for x, we get:
x = (500mg/14mL) * 100mL
x = 3,571.43 mg
Since we need to make 225 mg in 100 mL, we can set up another proportion:
3,571.43 mg = (225 mg/100 mL) * y mL
Solving for y, we get:
y = (3,571.43 mg * 100 mL) / 225 mg
y ≈ 1587.5 mL
However, since the maximum volume in the syringe is 14 mL, we can only draw up 14 mL of the drug. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.3 mL.Rate this question:
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- 6.
How much D70W do you need when you need to make 1L of D5W and your other available stock is water?
- A.
80 mL
- B.
929 mL
- C.
0.71L
- D.
0.17L
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
E. None of the above -
- 7.
How much D5W do you need when you need to make 750mL of D15W and your other available stock D5W?
- A.
0.167L
- B.
0.833L
- C.
83 mL
- D.
170 mL
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. 0.167LExplanation
To make 750mL of D15W, which is a solution of 15% dextrose in water, we need to calculate the amount of D5W needed. Since D5W is a solution of 5% dextrose in water, we can assume that the amount of dextrose in the solution is directly proportional to the volume of the solution.
Therefore, to find the amount of D5W needed, we can set up a proportion:
(5% dextrose / 100mL) = (15% dextrose / 750mL)
Simplifying this proportion, we get:
0.05 / 100 = 0.15 / x
Cross-multiplying, we get:
0.05x = 0.15 * 100
x = (0.15 * 100) / 0.05
x = 150 / 0.05
x = 3000 mL
Since we have 3000 mL of D15W, and we need to make 750mL, we subtract 750 from 3000 to get the amount of D5W needed, which is 2250mL or 2.25L.
However, the available stock is D5W, so we don't need to make any additional D5W. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.167L, which is equivalent to 167 mL.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is our Room Number?
- A.
IB1421
- B.
CC1421
- C.
TB1421
- D.
ED1841A
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. IB1421Explanation
The correct answer is IB1421 because it is the only option that matches the format of a room number. The other options do not follow the typical room number format and are therefore not the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When working in an LAFH, you need work within _______ inside hood
- A.
3 inches
- B.
4 inches
- C.
6 inches
- D.
1 foot
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 6 inchesExplanation
When working in an LAFH (Laboratory Animal Facility Hood), it is necessary to work within 6 inches inside the hood. This is because the hood creates a controlled environment that helps to contain any hazardous substances or particles generated during the work. By working within 6 inches inside the hood, it ensures that the substances or particles are effectively captured and do not escape into the surrounding area, thus protecting the worker and maintaining a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What is the abbreviation for tatol parenteral nutrition?
- A.
PPN
- B.
HA
- C.
TPN
- D.
TIVN
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. TPNExplanation
The correct abbreviation for total parenteral nutrition is TPN. This method involves providing nutrition through intravenous means when a person is unable to consume food orally. PPN stands for partial parenteral nutrition, HA is not a recognized abbreviation for this term, and TIVN is not a commonly used abbreviation in the context of parenteral nutrition. Therefore, the correct answer is TPN.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is thed for imipenem/cilastatin?
- A.
Timentin
- B.
Zosyn
- C.
Primaxin
- D.
Unasyn
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. PrimaxinExplanation
Primaxin is the correct answer for the drug combination of imipenem/cilastatin. Timentin, Zosyn, and Unasyn are all different drug combinations and not applicable in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is Primaxin.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When taking the Chemo Preparation Test, you are allowed, how many spots?
- A.
1 dime size
- B.
2 nickel size
- C.
2 dime size
- D.
All of the Above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 2 dime sizeExplanation
The correct answer is 2 dime size. This means that when taking the Chemo Preparation Test, you are allowed to have two spots that are the size of a dime.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the generic for Demadex?
- A.
Hydromorphone
- B.
Torsemide
- C.
Dexamethasone
- D.
Vasopressin
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. DexamethasoneExplanation
The generic for Demadex is Torsemide. Dexamethasone is not the generic for Demadex.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the generic for Gamunex?
- A.
IVIG
- B.
Gamminmmune
- C.
Garamycin
- D.
Carimune
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Garamycin -
- 15.
BSA stands for
- A.
Basal surface area
- B.
Body, Size, Area
- C.
Body surface area
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Body surface areaExplanation
BSA stands for Body Surface Area. This term refers to the total surface area of a person's body, including the skin. It is commonly used in medicine and pharmacology to calculate drug dosages, as the dosage often depends on the individual's body surface area. The other options, Basal Surface Area and Body, Size, Area, are not correct definitions for BSA. Therefore, the correct answer is Body Surface Area.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the equation for calculating Factor A?
- A.
(Infuse Volume/Total Volume) X Wt
- B.
(Total Volume/Infuse Volume) X Wt
- C.
(Total Volume/(T-M-F X24hr)) X Wt
- D.
A & B
- E.
A & C
Correct Answer
E. A & CExplanation
The equation for calculating Factor A is (Infuse Volume/Total Volume) X Wt and (Total Volume/(T-M-F X24hr)) X Wt. Both equations involve the weight (Wt) and the total volume, but they differ in the calculation of the infuse volume and the (T-M-F X24hr) term. Therefore, the correct answer is A & C.Rate this question:
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- 17.
To prepare sterile products, the LAFH should be running for a minimum of _____ before use.
- A.
30 seconds
- B.
60 minutes
- C.
30 minutes
- D.
1 day
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 30 minutesExplanation
The LAFH (Laminar Air Flow Hood) is a crucial equipment used in preparing sterile products. It provides a controlled environment with filtered air to prevent contamination. Running the LAFH for a minimum of 30 minutes before use allows it to reach a stable and clean state. This ensures that any particles or microorganisms present in the hood are eliminated, reducing the risk of contamination during the preparation of sterile products.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What does PRN stand for?
- A.
As necessary
- B.
As needed
- C.
When needed
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. As neededExplanation
PRN stands for "Pro re nata" which is a Latin term meaning "as needed" or "as necessary". It is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication or treatment should be administered when necessary, rather than on a fixed schedule. Therefore, the correct answer is "As needed".Rate this question:
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- 19.
Needles used to prepare IV solutions should be disposed in?
- A.
Biohazard Container
- B.
Autoclave
- C.
Sharp's Container
- D.
Trash
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Sharp's ContainerExplanation
Needles used to prepare IV solutions should be disposed in a Sharp's Container because they are considered sharp medical waste and pose a risk of injury and infection if not properly disposed. A Sharp's Container is specifically designed to safely collect and contain sharps such as needles, preventing accidental needle sticks and ensuring proper disposal. Biohazard containers are typically used for other types of medical waste, such as contaminated gloves or gauze. The autoclave is used for sterilization, not disposal. Trash is not a suitable option as it does not provide the necessary safety measures for sharp waste.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What size filter do we use with glass ampoules?
- A.
0.22 micron
- B.
5 micron
- C.
1 micron
- D.
0.5 micron
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. 5 micronExplanation
The correct answer is 5 micron. This size filter is used with glass ampoules to ensure that any particulate matter or contaminants larger than 5 microns are removed, providing a clean and sterile environment for the contents of the ampoules.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is the generic for Dilantin?
- A.
Divalproic Acid
- B.
Phenytoin
- C.
Valproate
- D.
Fosphenytoin
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. pHenytoinExplanation
Phenytoin is the generic name for Dilantin. Generic names are the non-proprietary names of drugs, while brand names like Dilantin are specific to a particular manufacturer. Therefore, Phenytoin is the correct answer as it represents the generic form of the medication.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What is the generic for Rocephin?
- A.
Cefazolin
- B.
Ceftazidime
- C.
Ceftriaxone
- D.
Cefixime
- E.
Cefuroxime
Correct Answer
C. CeftriaxoneExplanation
Ceftriaxone is the generic name for Rocephin. Generic names are the official names given to drugs that are not brand names. Rocephin is a brand name for the medication ceftriaxone. Therefore, ceftriaxone is the correct generic name for Rocephin.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What is the brand for IV metronidazole?
- A.
Metrogel
- B.
Sporanox
- C.
Flagyl
- D.
Diflucan
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. FlagylExplanation
Flagyl is the correct answer because it is the brand name for IV metronidazole. Metronidazole is an antibiotic used to treat various infections caused by bacteria and parasites. Flagyl is commonly used to treat infections in the gastrointestinal tract, reproductive system, and skin. Sporanox is a brand name for itraconazole, which is an antifungal medication. Metrogel is a brand name for metronidazole gel, which is used topically to treat rosacea. Diflucan is a brand name for fluconazole, which is an antifungal medication. Therefore, none of the other options are correct for the brand name of IV metronidazole.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is the brand for caspofungin?
- A.
Camptar
- B.
Cancida
- C.
Campath
- D.
Cardizem
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. CancidaExplanation
Cancida is the brand name for caspofungin.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What is the brand for esmolol?
- A.
BNP
- B.
Brevibloc
- C.
Demadex
- D.
Angiomax
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. BreviblocExplanation
Brevibloc is the correct answer for the brand of esmolol. Esmolol is a medication used to treat rapid heartbeats and high blood pressure. Brevibloc is the brand name for esmolol and is commonly prescribed by healthcare professionals for these conditions. BNP, Demadex, and Angiomax are not brands for esmolol.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the brand for diltiazem?
- A.
Demadex
- B.
Depacon
- C.
DDAVP
- D.
Cardizem
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. CardizemExplanation
Cardizem is the correct answer because it is a brand name for diltiazem. Diltiazem is a medication that belongs to the calcium channel blocker class and is commonly used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions. Demadex, Depacon, and DDAVP are not related to diltiazem and are used for different medical purposes. Therefore, the correct brand name for diltiazem is Cardizem.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What is the brand for tacrolimus?
- A.
Sandimmune
- B.
Prograf
- C.
BNP
- D.
DDAVP
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. PrografExplanation
Prograf is the brand name for tacrolimus. Tacrolimus is a medication that is used to prevent organ rejection in transplant patients. It belongs to a class of drugs called immunosuppressants. Prograf works by suppressing the immune system to prevent it from attacking the transplanted organ. It is commonly prescribed for kidney, liver, and heart transplant patients. Other options listed, such as Sandimmune, BNP, DDAVP, and None of the above, are not the correct brand names for tacrolimus.Rate this question:
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- 28.
If the doctor orders Penicillin 4 million units and you prepare a 20 million unit vial with a concentration of 250,000 units/mL, how much PCN do you need?
- A.
8 L
- B.
8mL
- C.
0.8mL
- D.
0.8L
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
E. None of the above -
- 29.
The clean room should have
- A.
Negative Pressure
- B.
Positive Pressure
- C.
Equal Pressure
- D.
Two doors
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Positive PressureExplanation
Positive pressure is necessary in a clean room to prevent the entry of contaminants from the surrounding environment. By maintaining a higher air pressure inside the clean room compared to the outside, any potential contaminants are pushed away, minimizing the risk of contamination. This helps to ensure the cleanliness and integrity of the controlled environment within the clean room, making positive pressure an essential requirement.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Aseptic Technique guidelines and facility guidelines are governed by USP, the specific chapter is:
- A.
747
- B.
777
- C.
797
- D.
711
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 797Explanation
Aseptic Technique guidelines and facility guidelines are governed by USP chapter 797. This chapter specifically addresses the requirements for compounding sterile preparations in healthcare settings. It provides guidelines for maintaining sterility and preventing contamination during the preparation, storage, and administration of sterile medications. Compliance with USP chapter 797 is crucial to ensure patient safety and minimize the risk of infections associated with sterile compounding.Rate this question:
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- 31.
On a syringe you can safely touch the:
- A.
Tip
- B.
Barrel
- C.
Plunger
- D.
Port
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. BarrelExplanation
The barrel of a syringe is the cylindrical part that holds the medication. It is safe to touch because it does not come into direct contact with the patient's body or any potentially contaminated surfaces. The tip, plunger, and port of the syringe should not be touched to maintain sterility and prevent contamination. Therefore, the correct answer is "Barrel."Rate this question:
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- 32.
What is the generic for Zovirax?
- A.
Ganciclovir
- B.
Valacyclovir
- C.
Acetacyclovir
- D.
Acyclovir
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. AcyclovirExplanation
Acyclovir is the correct answer because it is the generic name for the brand name medication Zovirax. Generic drugs are identical or bioequivalent to their brand name counterparts and usually cost less. In this case, Acyclovir is the active ingredient in Zovirax and is used to treat viral infections such as herpes.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is the generic for Zantac?
- A.
Nizatidine
- B.
Cimetidine
- C.
Amantadine
- D.
Zantidine
- E.
Ranitidine
Correct Answer
E. RanitidineExplanation
Ranitidine is the generic name for Zantac. Generic drugs are identical or bioequivalent to their brand-name counterparts in terms of dosage form, strength, route of administration, quality, and intended use. Therefore, Ranitidine is the correct generic for Zantac.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What is the generic for Sandostatin?
- A.
Omeprazole
- B.
Octreotide
- C.
Cyclosporine
- D.
Cytotoxic
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. OctreotideExplanation
Octreotide is the generic for Sandostatin. Sandostatin is a brand name medication that contains the active ingredient octreotide. Octreotide is a synthetic hormone that is similar to the natural hormone somatostatin. It is used to treat conditions such as acromegaly, carcinoid tumors, and certain types of gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is Octreotide.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What is the brand for nitroprusside?
- A.
Nitrostat
- B.
Nitrodur
- C.
Nipride
- D.
Presside
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. NiprideExplanation
Nipride is the correct answer for the brand of nitroprusside. Nitroprusside is a medication used to lower blood pressure. Nipride is a brand name for nitroprusside and is commonly used in medical settings for its vasodilatory effects. Nitrostat and Nitrodur are brand names for different medications, and Presside is not a known brand for nitroprusside. Therefore, the correct brand for nitroprusside is Nipride.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What is the brand for furosemide?
- A.
Diuril
- B.
Dyazide
- C.
Lasix
- D.
Lanoxin
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. LasixExplanation
Lasix is the brand name for furosemide.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The largest needle is:
- A.
25 gauge
- B.
20 gauge
- C.
18 gauge
- D.
16 gauge
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. 16 gaugeExplanation
The largest needle size is determined by the gauge measurement. The gauge number represents the diameter of the needle, with a higher gauge number indicating a smaller needle. Therefore, the correct answer is 16 gauge, as it has a larger diameter compared to the other options listed.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Intrathecal medications are administered in the:
- A.
Dura Space of the Spine
- B.
Brain
- C.
Femoral Artery
- D.
Subarachnoid space of the Spine
- E.
Medulla
Correct Answer
D. Subarachnoid space of the SpineExplanation
Intrathecal medications are administered in the subarachnoid space of the spine. This space is located between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater, which are the membranes that surround the spinal cord. Administering medications in this space allows them to directly access the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that surrounds the spinal cord and brain. This route of administration is often used for medications that need to act directly on the central nervous system, such as anesthesia or pain medications.Rate this question:
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- 39.
All of these are considered Peripheral line areas except:
- A.
Hand
- B.
Arm
- C.
Foot
- D.
Femoral
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. FemoralExplanation
The femoral area is not considered a peripheral line area because it is located in the upper thigh region, which is closer to the central part of the body. The hand, arm, and foot are all examples of peripheral line areas because they are located further away from the central part of the body.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Medications going in the Peripheral Line must be
- A.
Very concentrated
- B.
Less concentrated
- C.
Preservative Free
- D.
All of the Above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Less concentratedExplanation
Medications going in the Peripheral Line must be less concentrated. This is because the peripheral line is a smaller vein and cannot handle highly concentrated medications. Medications that are too concentrated can cause irritation, inflammation, or damage to the vein. Therefore, it is important to dilute medications appropriately before administering them through a peripheral line to ensure patient safety and prevent complications.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Vitamin K is usually given
- A.
Once daily
- B.
Biweekly
- C.
Weekly
- D.
Monthly
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. WeeklyExplanation
Vitamin K is usually given on a weekly basis. This frequency allows for consistent and adequate levels of vitamin K in the body. Giving it once daily would result in excessive dosing, while biweekly or monthly dosing might not provide enough vitamin K to meet the body's needs. Therefore, weekly administration is the most appropriate option.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Vitamin K is also known as:
- A.
Potassium
- B.
Pantoprazole
- C.
Phytonadione
- D.
Warfarin
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Potassium -
- 43.
18 mEq of Calcium is how many amps?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. 4Explanation
This question is asking how many amps are equivalent to 18 mEq of Calcium. The correct answer is 4. The explanation for this answer is not available.Rate this question:
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- 44.
These two medications when put together can cause crystallization
- A.
K Phos and KCI
- B.
KCL and Calcium gluconate
- C.
Potassium and Magnesium
- D.
Calcium Gluconate and Sodium Phosphate
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Calcium Gluconate and Sodium pHospHateExplanation
When Calcium Gluconate and Sodium Phosphate are combined, they can cause crystallization. Crystallization refers to the formation of solid crystals from a solution. In this case, the combination of these two medications can lead to the formation of crystals, which can be harmful and may cause blockages or damage in the body. Therefore, it is important to avoid mixing Calcium Gluconate and Sodium Phosphate to prevent any potential complications.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Evacuated containers are considered
- A.
A closed system
- B.
Having negative pressure
- C.
Having positive pressure
- D.
Ugly
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Having negative pressureExplanation
Evacuated containers are considered to have negative pressure because they are sealed and the air or gas inside has been removed, creating a lower pressure compared to the surrounding atmosphere. This negative pressure can be used for various purposes such as preserving food, storing sensitive materials, or conducting experiments in a controlled environment.Rate this question:
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- 46.
1 amp of Magnesium sulfate is:
- A.
4.5 meq
- B.
8 meq
- C.
9 meq
- D.
16 meq
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. 8 meqExplanation
1 amp of Magnesium sulfate is equal to 8 meq.Rate this question:
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- 47.
You need to make Dextrose 70% in water 250mL and you have dextrose 50 mg/mL and SW, How much dextrose do you need?
- A.
14mL
- B.
140mL
- C.
0.14mL
- D.
25mL
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
E. None of the above -
- 48.
You need to make 30g of Calamine 2.5%, How much stock calamine do you need?
- A.
0.75g
- B.
7.5 g
- C.
75 mL
- D.
0.075g
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. 0.75gExplanation
To make 30g of Calamine 2.5%, you need 0.75g of stock calamine. This is because 2.5% of 30g is equal to 0.75g.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The Hepa filter is located in an LAFH
- A.
On the sides
- B.
In the back
- C.
In the front
- D.
On top
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. In the backExplanation
The correct answer is "In the back". This suggests that the Hepa filter is positioned at the back of the LAFH (likely referring to a Laminar Air Flow Hood). This placement is important for efficient air filtration, as it allows the filter to capture and remove airborne particles before the air is released into the environment.Rate this question:
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- 50.
PCN stands for
- A.
Peripheral concentrated Neo Drip
- B.
Penicillin
- C.
Patient Controlled Narcotics
- D.
Patented Control Nerves
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. PenicillinExplanation
PCN stands for Penicillin. Penicillin is a group of antibiotics used to treat various bacterial infections. It is derived from the fungus Penicillium and is one of the most widely used antibiotics in the world. It works by inhibiting the growth of bacteria or killing them, thereby helping to eliminate the infection. Penicillin is used to treat a wide range of infections, including respiratory tract infections, skin infections, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted diseases. It is available in different forms, such as tablets, capsules, and injections, and is prescribed by healthcare professionals based on the specific infection and patient's condition.Rate this question:
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Sep 13, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 03, 2009Quiz Created by
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