Health care Administration: Quiz! Test

1. A member misses his clinical appointment. He has missed two previous appointments. What action, if any, should the Corpsman maintaining the appointment log take?

Call the member and reschedule the appointment

Notify the member's chain of command that he has missed several appointments

Do nothing; when the member is able to reschedule, he will do so

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Explanation

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2. The Casualty Assistance Calls offier assists the next of kin (NOK) with which of the following item(s)?

Disposition of remains

Survivor benefits

Obtaining the rights and privileges that the NOK is entitle to

All of the above

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Explanation

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3. BUMED and OPNAV both have instructions covering healthcare and quality assurance programs?

TRUE

FALSE

Both BUMED (Bureau of Medicine and Surgery) and OPNAV (Office of the Chief of Naval Operations) are entities within the United States Navy that have instructions covering healthcare and quality assurance programs. These instructions provide guidance and regulations for healthcare practices and quality control measures within the Navy's medical system. Therefore, it is true that both BUMED and OPNAV have instructions covering healthcare and quality assurance programs.

Explanation

Both BUMED (Bureau of Medicine and Surgery) and OPNAV (Office of the Chief of Naval Operations) are entities within the United States Navy that have instructions covering healthcare and quality assurance programs. These instructions provide guidance and regulations for healthcare practices and quality control measures within the Navy's medical system. Therefore, it is true that both BUMED and OPNAV have instructions covering healthcare and quality assurance programs.

4. The Decedent Affairs Program consists of the search, recovery, identification, care, and disposition of remains of deceased personnel for whom the Department of the Navy is responsible.

TRUE

FALSE

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Explanation

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5. It is prudent to cross-reference a piece of correspondence under which of the following circumstances?

The basic correspondence has separate enclosures

The document has multiple subjects

There is more than one applicable SSIC

Each of the above

Cross-referencing a piece of correspondence is prudent under each of the given circumstances. When the basic correspondence has separate enclosures, cross-referencing helps ensure that all relevant documents are accounted for. When the document has multiple subjects, cross-referencing allows for easy navigation and understanding of the different topics discussed. Lastly, when there is more than one applicable SSIC (Standard Subject Identification Code), cross-referencing helps in accurately categorizing and organizing the correspondence. Therefore, it is recommended to cross-reference under each of these circumstances.

Explanation

Cross-referencing a piece of correspondence is prudent under each of the given circumstances. When the basic correspondence has separate enclosures, cross-referencing helps ensure that all relevant documents are accounted for. When the document has multiple subjects, cross-referencing allows for easy navigation and understanding of the different topics discussed. Lastly, when there is more than one applicable SSIC (Standard Subject Identification Code), cross-referencing helps in accurately categorizing and organizing the correspondence. Therefore, it is recommended to cross-reference under each of these circumstances.

6. Budget and accounting files are terminated and new files begun at what time(s)?

Semi-annually, on 31 March and 30 September

Annually, at the end of the calendar year

Annually, at the end of the fiscal year

Every 3 years

Budget and accounting files are terminated and new files begun at the end of the fiscal year. This means that the financial records and budget plans are closed and new ones are started at the end of the fiscal year, which is typically different from the calendar year. This allows for a clear separation of financial data and ensures accurate reporting and planning for the upcoming fiscal year.

Explanation

Budget and accounting files are terminated and new files begun at the end of the fiscal year. This means that the financial records and budget plans are closed and new ones are started at the end of the fiscal year, which is typically different from the calendar year. This allows for a clear separation of financial data and ensures accurate reporting and planning for the upcoming fiscal year.

7. The personnel casualty report of an active duty Navy member shall be submitted by

Routine precedence message

Speedletter

Priority message

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Explanation

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8. What training prevention program is specifically aimed at the junior Sailor?

ADAMS

PREVENT 2000

Alcoholics Anonymous

IMPACT

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Explanation

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9. All of the following are categories of eligible prisoner beneficiaries EXCEPT

Military prisoners

Nonmilitary federal prisoners

Prisoners of war and other detained personnel

Illegal aliens awaiting deporation or processing

The given answer is "illegal aliens awaiting deportation or processing." This means that all of the categories mentioned in the question - military prisoners, nonmilitary federal prisoners, and prisoners of war and other detained personnel - are eligible prisoner beneficiaries. However, illegal aliens awaiting deportation or processing are not included in the eligible categories.

Explanation

The given answer is "illegal aliens awaiting deportation or processing." This means that all of the categories mentioned in the question - military prisoners, nonmilitary federal prisoners, and prisoners of war and other detained personnel - are eligible prisoner beneficiaries. However, illegal aliens awaiting deportation or processing are not included in the eligible categories.

10. Which of the following beneficiaries can receive medical care and can also be enrolled in the DEERS system?

Red Cross workers

Secretary of the Navy designees

Secret Service agents

Newborns

Newborns can receive medical care and be enrolled in the DEERS system because they are eligible dependents of active duty service members or retirees. The DEERS system is the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System, which is used to verify eligibility for military benefits, including healthcare. Therefore, newborns born to military personnel are eligible for medical care and can be enrolled in the DEERS system.

Explanation

Newborns can receive medical care and be enrolled in the DEERS system because they are eligible dependents of active duty service members or retirees. The DEERS system is the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System, which is used to verify eligibility for military benefits, including healthcare. Therefore, newborns born to military personnel are eligible for medical care and can be enrolled in the DEERS system.

11. Who has jurisdiction at the Arlington National Cemetery?

State government

Department of the Army

Department of the Interior

Office of Medical

The Department of the Army has jurisdiction at the Arlington National Cemetery. This is because the cemetery is managed and operated by the Department of the Army, which falls under the jurisdiction of the United States Army. The Department of the Army is responsible for the administration, maintenance, and preservation of the cemetery, including the burial and honoring of military personnel and veterans.

Explanation

The Department of the Army has jurisdiction at the Arlington National Cemetery. This is because the cemetery is managed and operated by the Department of the Army, which falls under the jurisdiction of the United States Army. The Department of the Army is responsible for the administration, maintenance, and preservation of the cemetery, including the burial and honoring of military personnel and veterans.

12. To minimize cellular deterioration, remains should be refrigerated at _____ C.

0° to 2.2°

2.2° to 4.4°

4.4° to 6.6°

6.6° to 8.8°

(36ª TO 40ªF)

Explanation

(36ª TO 40ªF)

13. What is the process called that is used to determine the correct subject group under which documents should be filed?

Grouping

Coding

Classifying

Cross-referencing

The process referred to in the question is called "classifying." Classifying involves categorizing or organizing documents into specific subject groups based on their content or purpose. This helps in efficient file management and retrieval of information when needed. The other options, such as grouping, coding, and cross-referencing, may be related to organizing or managing documents but do not specifically refer to the process of determining the correct subject group for filing.

Explanation

The process referred to in the question is called "classifying." Classifying involves categorizing or organizing documents into specific subject groups based on their content or purpose. This helps in efficient file management and retrieval of information when needed. The other options, such as grouping, coding, and cross-referencing, may be related to organizing or managing documents but do not specifically refer to the process of determining the correct subject group for filing.

14. What is the minimum number of projected deaths per year required for awarding contracts by naval activities for procuring mortuary services within CONUS?

15

10

8

5

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Explanation

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15. The responsibility of informing a patient of the consequences of a non-emergency medical procedure and obtaining informed consent from that patient lies ONLY with the medical provider.

TRUE

FALSE

The responsibility of informing a patient of the consequences of a non-emergency medical procedure and obtaining informed consent from that patient lies solely with the medical provider. This means that it is the duty of the healthcare professional to explain to the patient the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives of the procedure, and to ensure that the patient fully understands and agrees to proceed. Other individuals involved in the patient's care, such as nurses or assistants, may assist in the process but ultimately, the responsibility lies with the medical provider.

Explanation

The responsibility of informing a patient of the consequences of a non-emergency medical procedure and obtaining informed consent from that patient lies solely with the medical provider. This means that it is the duty of the healthcare professional to explain to the patient the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives of the procedure, and to ensure that the patient fully understands and agrees to proceed. Other individuals involved in the patient's care, such as nurses or assistants, may assist in the process but ultimately, the responsibility lies with the medical provider.

16. All of the following are considered part of the primary mission of the medical battalion EXCEPT

Emergency treatment

Evacuation

Immunization

Temporary hospitalization

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Explanation

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17. Which of the following could be considered accurate attributes of a fleet hospital?

Non-deployable, permanent station for high-intensity situations

Transportable, with 100 to 500 beds, providing moderately sophisticated care

Designed for short-term (less than 60 days) operations involving large numbers of ground forces

Mostly self-supporting and relocatable, with less than 100 beds

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Explanation

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18. The Navy hopes to achieve its drug free "zero tolerance" goal by the use of which of the following methods?

Detection

Education

Deterrence

Treatment

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Explanation

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19. It is the primary function of which of the following programs to provide a good communication and rapport between the patient and medical department staff?

The Patient Contact Program

The FOIA

The Patient Relations Program

The Family Advocacy Program

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Explanation

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20. Within CONUS, who is responsible for ensuring the next of kin is notified of a member’s death?

Office of Medical Affairs

The member’s commanding officer

Naval Military Personnel Command

Commander, Naval Medical Command

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Explanation

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21. Of the following, who would be the best choice to witness a patient’s consent to a medical procedure?

A stranger

An immediate family member

A member of the medical team

A relative

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Explanation

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22. When search, recovery, and identification operations continue for more than 36 hours, a progress report will be made to BUMED and MEDDEN Affairs every _____ hours.

8

12

24

36

When search, recovery, and identification operations continue for more than 36 hours, a progress report will be made to BUMED and MEDDEN Affairs every 24 hours. This means that after 36 hours, a report will be made every day to update the relevant authorities on the progress of the operations.

Explanation

When search, recovery, and identification operations continue for more than 36 hours, a progress report will be made to BUMED and MEDDEN Affairs every 24 hours. This means that after 36 hours, a report will be made every day to update the relevant authorities on the progress of the operations.

23. NAVMED 6320/19 Morning Report of the Sick, must be submitted to the commanding officer daily by what time?

0800

0900

1000

1100

The NAVMED 6320/19 Morning Report of the Sick must be submitted to the commanding officer daily by 1000 hours.

Explanation

The NAVMED 6320/19 Morning Report of the Sick must be submitted to the commanding officer daily by 1000 hours.

24. Tickler files are used to determine all of the following EXCEPT

When reports are due

Ship’s movement/port schedule

When physical examinations are required

Immunization schedules

Tickler files are used to keep track of important dates and deadlines. They are typically used to remind individuals of upcoming events or tasks that need to be completed. The purpose of a tickler file is to ensure that nothing is forgotten or overlooked. In this case, the tickler file would be used to determine when reports are due, when physical examinations are required, and immunization schedules. However, it would not be used to track a ship's movement or port schedule. Therefore, the correct answer is ship's movement/port schedule.

Explanation

Tickler files are used to keep track of important dates and deadlines. They are typically used to remind individuals of upcoming events or tasks that need to be completed. The purpose of a tickler file is to ensure that nothing is forgotten or overlooked. In this case, the tickler file would be used to determine when reports are due, when physical examinations are required, and immunization schedules. However, it would not be used to track a ship's movement or port schedule. Therefore, the correct answer is ship's movement/port schedule.

25. A Navy letter carries the subject identification number 5320. What is the major subject of the letter?

Military personnel

Operations and readiness

General administration and management

Financial management

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Explanation

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26. How many copies of DD 2064 must accompany remains being transferred from an overseas activity to a CONUS point of entry?

5

3

2

1

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Explanation

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27. Child abuse and spouse neglect is covered in what program?

SAVI

Family Advocacy

Risk Management

Child and Spouse Protective Services

Family Advocacy is the program that covers child abuse and spouse neglect. This program is specifically designed to provide support and intervention for families experiencing these issues. It focuses on prevention, education, and treatment to ensure the safety and well-being of both children and spouses. By addressing the root causes and providing resources, Family Advocacy aims to protect and support those affected by abuse and neglect within the family unit.

Explanation

Family Advocacy is the program that covers child abuse and spouse neglect. This program is specifically designed to provide support and intervention for families experiencing these issues. It focuses on prevention, education, and treatment to ensure the safety and well-being of both children and spouses. By addressing the root causes and providing resources, Family Advocacy aims to protect and support those affected by abuse and neglect within the family unit.

28. In what publication would you find examples of and instructions for the proper formatting of a naval message?

NTP 3

SECNAVINST 5210.11

Navy Correspondence Manual

Navy Message Manual

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Explanation

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29. BUMEDINST 6010.13.

Patient Relations Program

Family Advocacy Program

CHAMPUS

Quality Assurance Program

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Explanation

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30. The Commanding Officer is authorized to deliver an active duty patient to civilian authorities when a proper warrant is presented under all of the circumstances listed EXCEPT when

The ship is within the territorial waters of the requesting jurisdiction

The patient refuses to leave and requests a lawyer

The patient is outside the jurisdiction if the civilian authority

Cognizant JAG office has not been contacted

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Explanation

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31. What is the primary function of a DAPA?

To facilitate shipboard Alcoholics Anonymous meetings

To coordinate on-site training for the crew

To act as the liaison between civilian authorities and the Commanding Officer

To arrange for inpatient treatment

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Explanation

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32. Which statement is true concerning the release of an active duty patient under arrest?

No official action by hospital personnel is required before local authorities can take custody

No patient may be released from treatment before it is medically reasonable to do so

The patient must be transported directly to his parent command

A federal warrant must be presented before the patient can be released to civilian authority

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Explanation

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33. The commanding officer will write a condolence letter to the NOK within _____ hours of the death.

24

36

48

72

The commanding officer is expected to write a condolence letter to the next of kin (NOK) within 24 hours of the death. This prompt response shows respect and support to the grieving family during a difficult time. It allows the commanding officer to express condolences and offer any necessary assistance or support to the NOK. Writing the letter promptly ensures that the family feels acknowledged and cared for by the military organization.

Explanation

The commanding officer is expected to write a condolence letter to the next of kin (NOK) within 24 hours of the death. This prompt response shows respect and support to the grieving family during a difficult time. It allows the commanding officer to express condolences and offer any necessary assistance or support to the NOK. Writing the letter promptly ensures that the family feels acknowledged and cared for by the military organization.

34. The Casualty Assistance Calls program is administered by the which of the following commands?

Commander, Naval Medical Command

Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command

Office of Medical Affairs

Commanding Officer, Naval Hospital

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Explanation

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35. The Medical Department Journal contains a chronological record of events concerning the Medical Department and should include all of the following EXCEPT

Reports of personnel casualties, injuries, or deaths

Personnel entered onto or deleted from the binnacle list

Medical histories of personnel

Training lectures to stretcher bearers

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Explanation

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36. Who will be requested to provide an identification specialist to examine unidentified remains?

Naval Military Personnel Command

Commander, Naval Medical Command

Geographic command

Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs

(MEDDEN)

Explanation

(MEDDEN)

37. The Marine Corps specially assigns members to the Fleet Marine Force to serve as medical and dental personnel

TRUE

FALSE

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Explanation

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38. Which is NOT a true statement about an incident report?

They are confidential but if misused or mishandled, they can become public

The reports must be limited to only facts and a logical conclusion

Copies must be limited

They must be forwarded only to the quality assurance coordinator

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Explanation

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39. Provides for the search, recovery, evacuation, initial identification, and burial in temporary cemeteries when tactical situation does not permit concurrent return.

Current Decedent Affairs Program

Casualty Assistance Calls Program

Concurrent Return Program

Graves Registration Program

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Explanation

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40. A fleet hospital has what number of directorates?

2

3

4

5

A fleet hospital has five directorates. This suggests that a fleet hospital is a complex organization with multiple departments or divisions. Each directorate likely has its own specific responsibilities and functions within the hospital. Having five directorates indicates a high level of organization and specialization within the fleet hospital, allowing for efficient management and coordination of various aspects of healthcare delivery.

Explanation

A fleet hospital has five directorates. This suggests that a fleet hospital is a complex organization with multiple departments or divisions. Each directorate likely has its own specific responsibilities and functions within the hospital. Having five directorates indicates a high level of organization and specialization within the fleet hospital, allowing for efficient management and coordination of various aspects of healthcare delivery.

41. Routine unclassified correspondence must contain all of the following items in the identification symbol EXCEPT

Standard subject identification symbol

Date

Serial number

Organization code

Routine unclassified correspondence must contain a date, serial number, and organization code for proper identification and tracking. The standard subject identification symbol, however, is not required for routine unclassified correspondence. This symbol is typically used for classified or sensitive information and is not necessary for routine correspondence.

Explanation

Routine unclassified correspondence must contain a date, serial number, and organization code for proper identification and tracking. The standard subject identification symbol, however, is not required for routine unclassified correspondence. This symbol is typically used for classified or sensitive information and is not necessary for routine correspondence.

42. A request by the primary next of kin (PNOK) for a special escort must be referred to

Chief of Naval Operations

Naval Military Personnel Command

Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs

Commander, Naval Medical Command

A request for a special escort by the primary next of kin (PNOK) is referred to the Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs. This office is responsible for coordinating medical and dental services within the Navy. They would be the appropriate authority to handle requests related to medical or dental needs, which may require a special escort for the PNOK. The Chief of Naval Operations, Naval Military Personnel Command, and Commander, Naval Medical Command may not have the specific expertise or authority to handle such requests, making the Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs the correct choice.

Explanation

A request for a special escort by the primary next of kin (PNOK) is referred to the Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs. This office is responsible for coordinating medical and dental services within the Navy. They would be the appropriate authority to handle requests related to medical or dental needs, which may require a special escort for the PNOK. The Chief of Naval Operations, Naval Military Personnel Command, and Commander, Naval Medical Command may not have the specific expertise or authority to handle such requests, making the Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs the correct choice.

43. Which of the following is a true statement concerning competence for duty exams?

The Executive Officer can fill out blocks 1 through 13 of NAVMED 6120/1

An Independent Duty Corpsman can fill out blocks 12 - 49 of NAVMED 6120/1

The patient must give his written consent before a sample of blood can be obtained

A search authorization is required only if the patient refuses to cooperate

In order to obtain a sample of blood from a patient, their written consent is required. This ensures that the patient is fully aware and agrees to the procedure, respecting their autonomy and right to make decisions about their own body. Without their consent, it would be considered a violation of their rights and medical ethics.

Explanation

In order to obtain a sample of blood from a patient, their written consent is required. This ensures that the patient is fully aware and agrees to the procedure, respecting their autonomy and right to make decisions about their own body. Without their consent, it would be considered a violation of their rights and medical ethics.

44. A notice issued under the Navy Directive Issuance System has the same force and effect as an instruction.

TRUE

FALSE

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Explanation

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45. May be activated to support large numbers of military personnel committed to a strategic area.

Current Decedent Affairs Program

Casualty Assistance Calls Program

Concurrent Return Program

Graves Registration Program

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Explanation

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46. Military prisoners are authorized care under all of the following conditions EXCEPT when

Their discharge has been executed but their sentence has not expired

They are on leave, awaiting discharge

They require continued hospitalization after their discharge

They have been sentenced under the UCMJ only

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Explanation

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47. Is not identified as part of the Decedent Affairs Program.

Current Decedent Affairs Program

Casualty Assistance Calls Program

Concurrent Return Program

Graves Registration Program

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Explanation

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48. Once authorization has been obtained for burial at sea, who coordinates the arrangements?

Commander, Naval Medical Command

Chief of Naval Operations

Office of Medical Affairs

Appropriate fleet commanders in chief

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Explanation

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49. The maximum authorized Government allowance for expenses toward the interment of a deceased active duty member in a private cemetery can be found in which of the following publications?

NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1

NAVPERS 15955

NAVSUP P-485

NAVMED P-5016/NAVMC 2509A

The correct answer is NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1. This publication contains the information regarding the maximum authorized Government allowance for expenses toward the interment of a deceased active duty member in a private cemetery. It is likely that this publication provides specific guidelines and regulations for the reimbursement of such expenses.

Explanation

The correct answer is NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1. This publication contains the information regarding the maximum authorized Government allowance for expenses toward the interment of a deceased active duty member in a private cemetery. It is likely that this publication provides specific guidelines and regulations for the reimbursement of such expenses.

50. When group burials are necessary, roundtrip transportation at government expense to the place of burial is provided for?

The PNOK

All members of the immediate family

The PNOK and two blood relatives

The PNOK and one other close relative

When group burials are necessary, the government provides roundtrip transportation at their expense for the PNOK (Personnel Next of Kin) and two blood relatives. This means that the government covers the cost of transportation for the immediate family member of the deceased (PNOK) as well as two additional close relatives who are related by blood. This policy ensures that the closest family members have the opportunity to attend the burial without incurring any financial burden for transportation.

Explanation

When group burials are necessary, the government provides roundtrip transportation at their expense for the PNOK (Personnel Next of Kin) and two blood relatives. This means that the government covers the cost of transportation for the immediate family member of the deceased (PNOK) as well as two additional close relatives who are related by blood. This policy ensures that the closest family members have the opportunity to attend the burial without incurring any financial burden for transportation.

51. In the process of making changes to directives, which of the following procedures should you follow?

If the directive is removed from the binder or file, replace the directive with a locator sheet

Each of the above

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Explanation

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52. Detailed information concerning MMART can be found in what directive or manual?

NAVMED P-5010

BUMEDINST 6440.6

NAVSUP P-485

NAVSUP P-437

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Explanation

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53. A committee consisting of members from what professional areas of the Navy reviews abuse cases?

Medical, line, chaplain, security

Medical, chaplain, security, Family Service Center

Medical, line, chaplain, Family Service Center

Medical, line, security, Family Service Center

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Explanation

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54. BUMEDINST 6010.21.

Risk Management Program

Physical Readiness Program

Patient Relations Program

Family Advocacy Program

The correct answer is the Risk Management Program. This program is designed to identify and assess potential risks and develop strategies to mitigate them in order to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals and organizations. It involves systematically analyzing and evaluating potential hazards, implementing control measures, and monitoring the effectiveness of these measures. By implementing a risk management program, organizations can proactively address potential risks and minimize their impact on operations and individuals.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Risk Management Program. This program is designed to identify and assess potential risks and develop strategies to mitigate them in order to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals and organizations. It involves systematically analyzing and evaluating potential hazards, implementing control measures, and monitoring the effectiveness of these measures. By implementing a risk management program, organizations can proactively address potential risks and minimize their impact on operations and individuals.

55. Through use of the Medical Augmentation Program (MAP), it is possible to do all of the following EXCEPT

Monitor wartime manning readiness

Augment operational medical personnel, as necessary

Train medical personnel

Develop a readiness reporting system

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Explanation

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56. Medical has responsibility for which aspects of the Physical Readiness Program?

Testing

Education and training

Legal

Obesity research

Medical has responsibility for obesity research in the Physical Readiness Program. This means that they are in charge of conducting research and gathering information related to obesity and its impact on physical readiness. This research helps in developing strategies and interventions to address obesity and improve the overall physical readiness of individuals.

Explanation

Medical has responsibility for obesity research in the Physical Readiness Program. This means that they are in charge of conducting research and gathering information related to obesity and its impact on physical readiness. This research helps in developing strategies and interventions to address obesity and improve the overall physical readiness of individuals.

57. If it is desired to transport the uncremated remains by the Air Mobility Command (AMC) within CONUS, prior approval must be obtained from the

Commander, Naval Medical Command

Chief of Naval Operations

Secretary of the Navy

Naval Military Personnel Commander

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Explanation

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58. Problems concerning arrangements for a Navy escort within CONUS should be referred to the

Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs

Decedent Affairs Officer

Commandant of the Marine Corps

Area commander

The correct answer is the Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs. This office is responsible for handling arrangements for a Navy escort within CONUS (Continental United States). They have the necessary expertise and resources to coordinate medical and dental support for naval personnel during their travels.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs. This office is responsible for handling arrangements for a Navy escort within CONUS (Continental United States). They have the necessary expertise and resources to coordinate medical and dental support for naval personnel during their travels.

59. Which of the following personnel is authorized emergency care ONLY?

Enemy prisoners of war

Nonmilitary federal prisoners

A previously active duty person past his EAOS released from a foreign prison

Personnel detained by the US government but not yet charged with acrime or arrested

Nonmilitary federal prisoners are authorized emergency care only because they are not active duty personnel or detainees of the US government. They are individuals who have been convicted of federal crimes and are serving their sentences in federal prisons. As such, their medical care is limited to emergency situations, and they do not receive the same level of healthcare as active duty personnel or detainees.

Explanation

Nonmilitary federal prisoners are authorized emergency care only because they are not active duty personnel or detainees of the US government. They are individuals who have been convicted of federal crimes and are serving their sentences in federal prisons. As such, their medical care is limited to emergency situations, and they do not receive the same level of healthcare as active duty personnel or detainees.

60. Who establishes patient evacuation policy?

Secretary of the Navy

Joint Chiefs of Staff

Chief of Naval Medicine

Secretary of Defense

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Explanation

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61. BUMEDINST 6320.70.

Risk Management Program

Physical Readiness Program

Patient Relations Program

Family Advocacy Program

The correct answer is the Family Advocacy Program. This program is likely to be mentioned in BUMEDINST 6320.70 as it is a comprehensive program that addresses the prevention, identification, and treatment of child and domestic abuse. It provides support and resources for families in the military community, ensuring their safety and well-being.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Family Advocacy Program. This program is likely to be mentioned in BUMEDINST 6320.70 as it is a comprehensive program that addresses the prevention, identification, and treatment of child and domestic abuse. It provides support and resources for families in the military community, ensuring their safety and well-being.

62. After serving all identification purposes, the personal effects of a deceased naval member are disposed of as directed in the

NAVSUP Manual

Manual of the Medical Department

Naval Military Personnel Manual

Jagman

The correct answer is NAVSUP Manual. The NAVSUP Manual provides guidance on the disposal of personal effects of deceased naval members after serving all identification purposes. It outlines the procedures and protocols to be followed in order to ensure the proper handling and disposition of these personal effects.

Explanation

The correct answer is NAVSUP Manual. The NAVSUP Manual provides guidance on the disposal of personal effects of deceased naval members after serving all identification purposes. It outlines the procedures and protocols to be followed in order to ensure the proper handling and disposition of these personal effects.

63. NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.18.

Patient Relations Program

Family Advocacy Program

CHAMPUS

Quality Assurance Program

CHAMPUS stands for Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services. It is a health care program for active duty and retired members of the uniformed services, as well as their dependents. This program provides comprehensive coverage for medical services and supplies, including hospitalization, surgery, and preventive care. It is administered by the Department of Defense and is an important component of the military health care system.

Explanation

CHAMPUS stands for Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services. It is a health care program for active duty and retired members of the uniformed services, as well as their dependents. This program provides comprehensive coverage for medical services and supplies, including hospitalization, surgery, and preventive care. It is administered by the Department of Defense and is an important component of the military health care system.

64. Before an accurate determination of the number of personnel and amount of material are needed for a particular military operation, the staff surgeon and dental surgeon must know about enemy and friendly capabilities, as well as environmental factors. What is this information, taken as a whole, called?

Medical estimate

Planning factors

Medical intelligence

Command mission

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Explanation

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65. Eligibility for medical care at a military medical treatment facility is established by the _ and verified by the ___?

Personnel office, medical treatment facility

Military treatment facility, personnel office

Commanding officer, physician on duty

Commanding officer, personnel officer

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Explanation

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66. Which of the following programs can only be activated upon the enactment of special legislation?

Return of Remains Program

Concurrent Return Program

Graves Registration Program

Current Decedent Affairs Program

The Return of Remains Program can only be activated upon the enactment of special legislation because it involves the repatriation of the remains of deceased military personnel. This program requires specific legal authorization in order to be implemented, as it deals with the sensitive and solemn task of returning fallen service members to their home country. The enactment of special legislation ensures that the necessary resources, procedures, and protocols are in place to carry out this program effectively and with the utmost respect for the deceased and their families.

Explanation

The Return of Remains Program can only be activated upon the enactment of special legislation because it involves the repatriation of the remains of deceased military personnel. This program requires specific legal authorization in order to be implemented, as it deals with the sensitive and solemn task of returning fallen service members to their home country. The enactment of special legislation ensures that the necessary resources, procedures, and protocols are in place to carry out this program effectively and with the utmost respect for the deceased and their families.

67. What authority has the responsibility of the Family Advocacy Program?

BUMED

NMPC

Family Service Center

BUPERS

(NAVY MILITARY PERSONNEL COMMAND)

Explanation

(NAVY MILITARY PERSONNEL COMMAND)

68. The Privacy Act governs the disclosure of documents compiled and maintained by government agencies.

TRUE

FALSE

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Explanation

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Health care Administration: Quiz! Test

1. A member misses his clinical appointment. He has missed two previous appointments. What action, if any, should the Corpsman maintaining the appointment log take?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. The Casualty Assistance Calls offier assists the next of kin (NOK) with which of the following item(s)?

3. BUMED and OPNAV both have instructions covering healthcare and quality assurance programs?

4. The Decedent Affairs Program consists of the search, recovery, identification, care, and disposition of remains of deceased personnel for whom the Department of the Navy is responsible.

5. It is prudent to cross-reference a piece of correspondence under which of the following circumstances?

6. Budget and accounting files are terminated and new files begun at what time(s)?

7. The personnel casualty report of an active duty Navy member shall be submitted by

8. What training prevention program is specifically aimed at the junior Sailor?

9. All of the following are categories of eligible prisoner beneficiaries EXCEPT

10. Which of the following beneficiaries can receive medical care and can also be enrolled in the DEERS system?

11. Who has jurisdiction at the Arlington National Cemetery?

12. To minimize cellular deterioration, remains should be refrigerated at _____ C.

13. What is the process called that is used to determine the correct subject group under which documents should be filed?

14. What is the minimum number of projected deaths per year required for awarding contracts by naval activities for procuring mortuary services within CONUS?

15. The responsibility of informing a patient of the consequences of a non-emergency medical procedure and obtaining informed consent from that patient lies ONLY with the medical provider.

16. All of the following are considered part of the primary mission of the medical battalion EXCEPT

17. Which of the following could be considered accurate attributes of a fleet hospital?

18. The Navy hopes to achieve its drug free "zero tolerance" goal by the use of which of the following methods?

19. It is the primary function of which of the following programs to provide a good communication and rapport between the patient and medical department staff?

20. Within CONUS, who is responsible for ensuring the next of kin is notified of a member’s death?

21. Of the following, who would be the best choice to witness a patient’s consent to a medical procedure?

22. When search, recovery, and identification operations continue for more than 36 hours, a progress report will be made to BUMED and MEDDEN Affairs every _____ hours.

23. NAVMED 6320/19 Morning Report of the Sick, must be submitted to the commanding officer daily by what time?

24. Tickler files are used to determine all of the following EXCEPT

25. A Navy letter carries the subject identification number 5320. What is the major subject of the letter?

26. How many copies of DD 2064 must accompany remains being transferred from an overseas activity to a CONUS point of entry?

27. Child abuse and spouse neglect is covered in what program?

28. In what publication would you find examples of and instructions for the proper formatting of a naval message?

29. BUMEDINST 6010.13.

30. The Commanding Officer is authorized to deliver an active duty patient to civilian authorities when a proper warrant is presented under all of the circumstances listed EXCEPT when

31. What is the primary function of a DAPA?

32. Which statement is true concerning the release of an active duty patient under arrest?

33. The commanding officer will write a condolence letter to the NOK within _____ hours of the death.

34. The Casualty Assistance Calls program is administered by the which of the following commands?

35. The Medical Department Journal contains a chronological record of events concerning the Medical Department and should include all of the following EXCEPT

36. Who will be requested to provide an identification specialist to examine unidentified remains?

37. The Marine Corps specially assigns members to the Fleet Marine Force to serve as medical and dental personnel

38. Which is NOT a true statement about an incident report?

39. Provides for the search, recovery, evacuation, initial identification, and burial in temporary cemeteries when tactical situation does not permit concurrent return.

40. A fleet hospital has what number of directorates?

41. Routine unclassified correspondence must contain all of the following items in the identification symbol EXCEPT

42. A request by the primary next of kin (PNOK) for a special escort must be referred to

43. Which of the following is a true statement concerning competence for duty exams?

44. A notice issued under the Navy Directive Issuance System has the same force and effect as an instruction.

45. May be activated to support large numbers of military personnel committed to a strategic area.

46. Military prisoners are authorized care under all of the following conditions EXCEPT when

47. Is not identified as part of the Decedent Affairs Program.

48. Once authorization has been obtained for burial at sea, who coordinates the arrangements?

49. The maximum authorized Government allowance for expenses toward the interment of a deceased active duty member in a private cemetery can be found in which of the following publications?

50. When group burials are necessary, roundtrip transportation at government expense to the place of burial is provided for?

51. In the process of making changes to directives, which of the following procedures should you follow?

52. Detailed information concerning MMART can be found in what directive or manual?

53. A committee consisting of members from what professional areas of the Navy reviews abuse cases?

54. BUMEDINST 6010.21.

55. Through use of the Medical Augmentation Program (MAP), it is possible to do all of the following EXCEPT

56. Medical has responsibility for which aspects of the Physical Readiness Program?

57. If it is desired to transport the uncremated remains by the Air Mobility Command (AMC) within CONUS, prior approval must be obtained from the

58. Problems concerning arrangements for a Navy escort within CONUS should be referred to the

59. Which of the following personnel is authorized emergency care ONLY?

60. Who establishes patient evacuation policy?

61. BUMEDINST 6320.70.

62. After serving all identification purposes, the personal effects of a deceased naval member are disposed of as directed in the

63. NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.18.

65. Eligibility for medical care at a military medical treatment facility is established by the ___________ and verified by the _____________?

66. Which of the following programs can only be activated upon the enactment of special legislation?

67. What authority has the responsibility of the Family Advocacy Program?

68. The Privacy Act governs the disclosure of documents compiled and maintained by government agencies.

65. Eligibility for medical care at a military medical treatment facility is established by the _ and verified by the ___?