AST Practice Test - Part 1 Of 2

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  • 1/135 Questions

    A Weitlaner is a

    • Dissector
    • Grasper
    • Forceps
    • Retractor
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About This Quiz

250 question practice exam for AST certification. Topics covered are basic sciences, preoperative patient care, preoperative case management, intraoperative case management, postoperative case management, surgical specialties/procedures, and ancillary functions.
Part 1: questions 1-135

AST Practice Test - Part 1 Of 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Surgical masks should be changed

    • After each case

    • Daily

    • Twice a day

    • Every 2 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. After each case
    Explanation
    Surgical masks should be changed after each case because they are designed to be single-use and disposable. After being worn, the mask may become contaminated with bacteria, viruses, or other pathogens, posing a risk of infection. Changing the mask after each case ensures that healthcare workers have a fresh and clean mask for every patient, reducing the potential for cross-contamination and maintaining a safe environment for both the healthcare provider and the patient.

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  • 3. 

    Carpal tunnel syndrome affects the

    • Elbow

    • Wrist

    • Knee

    • Ankle

    Correct Answer
    A. Wrist
    Explanation
    Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that affects the wrist. It occurs when the median nerve, which runs from the forearm to the hand, becomes compressed or squeezed at the wrist. This can cause symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and weakness in the hand and fingers. The condition is commonly associated with repetitive hand movements, such as typing or using a computer mouse, and can be exacerbated by underlying factors such as arthritis or diabetes. Treatment options for carpal tunnel syndrome include wrist splinting, medication, and in severe cases, surgery.

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  • 4. 

    A rotator cuff tear would occur in the

    • Hip

    • Shoulder

    • Ankle

    • Knee

    Correct Answer
    A. Shoulder
    Explanation
    A rotator cuff tear would occur in the shoulder. The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that surround the shoulder joint, providing stability and allowing for movement. A tear in the rotator cuff can happen due to repetitive overhead activities, aging, or a sudden injury. This can result in pain, weakness, and limited range of motion in the shoulder. Treatment options may include rest, physical therapy, medication, or in severe cases, surgery.

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  • 5. 

    The patient may be left on the transport stretcher unattended

    • Under no circumstances

    • If he or she is alert and responsible

    • If her or she is sound asleep

    • If he or she can be observed by passing personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Under no circumstances
    Explanation
    Under no circumstances should the patient be left on the transport stretcher unattended. This means that regardless of the situation or condition of the patient, it is absolutely not acceptable to leave them alone on the stretcher. This is important for the safety and well-being of the patient, as they may require assistance or monitoring at any given time. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure that someone is always present with the patient to provide necessary care and support.

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  • 6. 

    The person transporting the patiet on a stretcher should

    • Push the stretcher from the head

    • Pull the stretcher by the foot

    • Guide the stretcher from either side

    • Guide the stretcher from any position that is comfortable

    Correct Answer
    A. Push the stretcher from the head
    Explanation
    When transporting a patient on a stretcher, it is important to push the stretcher from the head. This is because pushing from the head allows the person transporting the patient to have better control and visibility of the patient's body and any potential obstacles in their path. It also ensures that the patient's head is properly supported and protected during the transportation process.

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  • 7. 

    In an inguinal herniorrhaphy the spermatic cord is

    • Ligated with a hemoclip

    • Retracted witha Penrose drain

    • Incised for ease of access

    • Clamped with a Kelly

    Correct Answer
    A. Retracted witha Penrose drain
    Explanation
    In an inguinal herniorrhaphy, the spermatic cord needs to be retracted in order to access and repair the hernia. This is typically done using a Penrose drain, which is a soft, flexible tube that is placed around the spermatic cord to gently retract it out of the surgical field. The use of a Penrose drain allows for better visualization and manipulation of the hernia, making the procedure easier and more effective.

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  • 8. 

    The instrument used to measure the depth of the uterus during a dilation and curettage is a

    • Sim's curette

    • Jacob's forceps

    • Boseman forceps

    • Uterine sound

    Correct Answer
    A. Uterine sound
    Explanation
    The instrument used to measure the depth of the uterus during a dilation and curettage is a uterine sound. This instrument is a long, thin, and flexible rod with markings on it to measure the depth of the uterus. It is inserted through the cervix into the uterus to determine the length and position of the uterus before the procedure. It helps the healthcare provider to accurately perform the dilation and curettage procedure.

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  • 9. 

    The purpose of OSHA is to

    • Ensure safe and healthful working conditions

    • Provide a mechanism for peer review

    • Establish quality assurance

    • Provide standards of patient care

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure safe and healthful working conditions
    Explanation
    The purpose of OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) is to ensure safe and healthful working conditions. OSHA is responsible for developing and enforcing regulations that protect workers from hazards in the workplace. They set standards for safety and health, conduct inspections, provide training and education, and promote research to improve workplace safety. By ensuring safe and healthful working conditions, OSHA aims to prevent workplace accidents, injuries, and illnesses, and protect the well-being of workers.

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  • 10. 

    What advantage is phacoemulsification for cataract removal?

    • Shortened convalescence

    • Superior cosmetic effect

    • Employs small incision

    • A and C

    Correct Answer
    A. A and C
    Explanation
    Phacoemulsification for cataract removal offers the advantage of shortened convalescence and employs small incisions. Shortened convalescence means that the recovery period after the surgery is reduced, allowing patients to resume their normal activities sooner. Employing small incisions reduces the risk of complications and promotes faster healing. The superior cosmetic effect is not mentioned as an advantage of phacoemulsification in the given options. Therefore, the correct answer is A and C.

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  • 11. 

    A constant closed suction that utilized a plastic container serving as both a suction and receptacle for blood is a

    • Hemovac

    • Robinson

    • Sengstaken-Blakemore

    • Potts-Smith

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemovac
    Explanation
    A Hemovac is a constant closed suction system that uses a plastic container to collect blood and other fluids. It is commonly used in surgeries to remove excess blood and prevent the accumulation of fluids in the surgical site. The plastic container serves as both a suction device and a receptacle for the collected blood, making it a convenient and efficient tool for post-operative care. The other options (Robinson, Sengstaken-Blakemore, and Potts-Smith) are not relevant to the given description and can be eliminated as potential answers.

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  • 12. 

    Distal refers to

    • Closer to the body

    • Away from the body

    • In the center of the body

    • Toward the feet

    Correct Answer
    A. Away from the body
    Explanation
    Distal refers to a position or location that is farther away from the body. It is the opposite of proximal, which means closer to the body. Therefore, the correct answer is "away from the body".

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  • 13. 

    The term for fluid or water in the ventricles of the brain is

    • Hydrophobia

    • Hydrocephalus

    • Hydrocele

    • Hydronephrosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydrocephalus
    Explanation
    Hydrocephalus is the correct answer because it refers to the accumulation of fluid or water in the ventricles of the brain. This condition can occur due to various reasons such as blockage of the cerebrospinal fluid flow or overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid. Hydrophobia is a term used to describe an irrational fear of water, while hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid in the scrotum. Hydronephrosis, on the other hand, is the swelling of the kidneys due to the buildup of urine.

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  • 14. 

    The most susceptible organ to laser injury is the

    • Nasopharynx

    • Ovaries

    • Testes

    • Eyes

    Correct Answer
    A. Eyes
    Explanation
    The eyes are the most susceptible organ to laser injury because the intense and concentrated beam of laser light can cause severe damage to the delicate structures of the eye, including the retina, cornea, and lens. The eyes have a high concentration of light-sensitive cells, making them extremely vulnerable to the thermal and photochemical effects of laser radiation. Even brief exposure to a powerful laser beam can lead to permanent vision loss or other serious complications. Therefore, it is crucial to take appropriate precautions and wear protective eyewear when working with or around lasers.

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  • 15. 

    A drug that may be used as an IV flush or as a flush for a blood vessel lumen is

    • Vitamin K

    • Heparin

    • Coumarin

    • Desmopressin acetate

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin
    Explanation
    Heparin is a drug that can be used as an IV flush or as a flush for a blood vessel lumen. It is commonly used to prevent blood clotting and is administered through intravenous routes. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of blood clots, making it an effective choice for flushing IV lines or blood vessel lumens to maintain their patency and prevent blockages. Vitamin K is not typically used for flushing purposes, but rather for the treatment of vitamin K deficiency or to reverse the effects of certain anticoagulant medications. Coumarin is a type of anticoagulant medication, and desmopressin acetate is used to treat conditions like diabetes insipidus.

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  • 16. 

    A patient is having elective surgery.  The nurse notes that her white cell count is 14,000 cu mm.  This would indicate

    • There may be an inflammation or infection present

    • The count is within normal range, and surgery can proceed

    • The count is below normal

    • There may be an anemic condition present, and surgery should be canceled

    Correct Answer
    A. There may be an inflammation or infection present
    Explanation
    A white cell count of 14,000 cu mm is higher than the normal range, which typically falls between 4,500 and 11,000 cu mm. This elevated count suggests that there may be an inflammation or infection present in the patient's body. Inflammation and infection can cause an increase in white blood cells as the body's immune system responds to fight off the invader. It is important to note this finding before proceeding with elective surgery, as the presence of inflammation or infection may increase the risk of complications during the procedure.

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  • 17. 

    Pneumoperitoneum is effected by instilling gas into the peritoneal cavity by way of a

    • Silverman needle

    • Verres needle

    • Trocar

    • Craig needle

    Correct Answer
    A. Verres needle
    Explanation
    A Verres needle is used to create a pneumoperitoneum by instilling gas into the peritoneal cavity. This needle has a spring-loaded mechanism that allows for controlled entry into the abdomen, reducing the risk of injury to surrounding organs. It is commonly used in laparoscopic procedures to create a working space by inflating the abdomen with carbon dioxide gas. Other options like the Silverman needle, trocar, and Craig needle are not specifically designed for creating a pneumoperitoneum.

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  • 18. 

    Which term denotes low or decreased blood volume?

    • Anoxia

    • Hypovolemia

    • Hypoxia

    • Hypocapnia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypovolemia
    Explanation
    Hypovolemia is the correct answer because it refers to a decreased or low blood volume. Anoxia refers to a lack of oxygen, hypoxia refers to low oxygen levels in tissues, and hypocapnia refers to low carbon dioxide levels in the blood. However, only hypovolemia specifically relates to a decrease in blood volume.

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  • 19. 

    Ischemia can be defined as

    • Excessive blood supply to a part

    • Deficient blood supply to a part

    • Abnormal condition of the hipbone

    • Abnormal condition of the ischium and the anus

    Correct Answer
    A. Deficient blood supply to a part
    Explanation
    Ischemia is a medical term that refers to a deficient blood supply to a specific part of the body. This condition occurs when there is a restriction or blockage in the blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the affected area. As a result, the tissue or organ may not receive enough blood flow, leading to potential damage or dysfunction.

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  • 20. 

    When moving a patient form lithotomy position

    • Lower legs together quickly

    • Lower legs together slowly

    • Lower each leg separately and slowly

    • Lower each leg separately and quickly

    Correct Answer
    A. Lower legs together slowly
    Explanation
    When moving a patient from the lithotomy position, it is important to lower the legs together slowly. This allows for controlled movement and reduces the risk of injury or discomfort for the patient. Lowering the legs together ensures that both legs are moved simultaneously, maintaining balance and stability. By doing it slowly, the healthcare provider can carefully monitor the patient's response and make adjustments if necessary. This approach promotes patient safety and comfort during the transition.

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  • 21. 

    Repair of a cranial defect is surgically represented by the term

    • Trephination

    • Cranioplasty

    • Craniosynostosis

    • Craniectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Cranioplasty
    Explanation
    Cranioplasty refers to the surgical repair of a cranial defect. It involves the reconstruction or replacement of a portion of the skull that has been damaged or removed. This procedure aims to restore the shape and integrity of the skull, providing protection to the brain and improving the patient's aesthetic appearance. Trephination is the process of creating a hole in the skull, often for medical purposes, while craniosynostosis refers to the premature fusion of cranial sutures. Craniectomy involves the removal of a portion of the skull, often to relieve pressure on the brain.

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  • 22. 

    A dye used in gynecology to test tubal patency is

    • Methylene blue

    • Fluorescein

    • Gentian violet

    • Anilene

    Correct Answer
    A. Methylene blue
    Explanation
    Methylene blue is a dye commonly used in gynecology to test tubal patency. It is injected into the uterus and if the fallopian tubes are open, the dye will flow through them and into the abdominal cavity. This allows doctors to determine if there are any blockages or abnormalities in the fallopian tubes, which can help diagnose infertility or other reproductive issues. Methylene blue is a safe and effective dye for this purpose.

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  • 23. 

    An example of an anti-inflammatory is

    • Cortisone

    • Cyclosporine

    • Isuprel

    • Levophed

    Correct Answer
    A. Cortisone
    Explanation
    Cortisone is an example of an anti-inflammatory because it is a corticosteroid hormone that helps to reduce inflammation in the body. It works by suppressing the immune system and reducing the production of substances that cause inflammation. Cortisone is commonly used to treat conditions such as arthritis, allergies, and asthma, where inflammation plays a role.

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  • 24. 

    In which case would a Frazier suction be used?

    • Eye

    • Ear

    • Gynecology

    • General

    Correct Answer
    A. Ear
    Explanation
    A Frazier suction would be used in the case of ear procedures. The Frazier suction is a specialized tool designed for delicate and precise suctioning in the ear. It has a fine, slender tip that allows for accurate suctioning of fluids or debris from the ear canal during procedures such as ear surgeries or ear cleanings. This suction is specifically designed for ear procedures and is not commonly used in other medical specialties.

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  • 25. 

    A procedure that is done to give the bowel a rest when there is advanced inflammation is

    • Abdominoperineal resection (APR)

    • Right hemicolecomty

    • Anterior sigmoid resection

    • Temporary colostomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporary colostomy
    Explanation
    A temporary colostomy is a procedure that is done to give the bowel a rest when there is advanced inflammation. It involves creating an opening in the abdomen called a stoma, through which a portion of the colon is brought to the surface and attached to a bag. This allows waste to bypass the inflamed or diseased part of the bowel, giving it time to heal. Once the inflammation subsides, the colostomy can be reversed and normal bowel function can be restored.

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  • 26. 

    A forceps used to grasp lung tissue is

    • Crile

    • Adson

    • Duval

    • Walton

    Correct Answer
    A. Duval
  • 27. 

    Before surgery, elastic bandages or special stockings are sometimes applied to the lower extremities to

    • Prevent pressure areas

    • Prevent skin irritation

    • Prevent venous stasis

    • Prevent chilling

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent venous stasis
    Explanation
    Before surgery, elastic bandages or special stockings are sometimes applied to the lower extremities to prevent venous stasis. Venous stasis refers to the pooling of blood in the veins due to reduced blood flow or impaired circulation. By applying elastic bandages or stockings, pressure is exerted on the veins, helping to improve blood flow and prevent the formation of blood clots. This is especially important during surgery when the patient may be immobile for an extended period, increasing the risk of venous stasis. By preventing venous stasis, the risk of complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is reduced.

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  • 28. 

    During laser surgery, each of the following policies must be adhered to EXCEPT

    • Signs are placed on doors

    • Prescription glasses are approved protection mechanisms

    • Patient's eyes are protected with moistened pads or goggles

    • All persons iwthin the treatment area wear protective eyewear

    Correct Answer
    A. Prescription glasses are approved protection mechanisms
    Explanation
    During laser surgery, it is important to adhere to certain policies to ensure safety. These policies include placing signs on doors to indicate the laser treatment area, protecting the patient's eyes with moistened pads or goggles, and ensuring that all individuals within the treatment area wear protective eyewear. However, prescription glasses are not considered an approved protection mechanism during laser surgery. This could be because prescription glasses may not provide sufficient protection against the intense light and heat generated by the laser.

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  • 29. 

    Health care workers who are potentially exposed to blood, can be vaccinated to prevent

    • Hepatitis A virus

    • Hepatitis B virus

    • Non-A and non-B hepatitis

    • Delta hepatitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis B virus
    Explanation
    Health care workers who are potentially exposed to blood can be vaccinated to prevent hepatitis B virus. This is because hepatitis B is a highly contagious virus that can be transmitted through blood and other body fluids. Vaccination is an effective way to protect individuals from contracting the virus and developing hepatitis B infection. By getting vaccinated, health care workers can significantly reduce their risk of acquiring and spreading the virus to patients and colleagues.

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  • 30. 

    Which Gram-positive bacteria can cause abscesses?

    • Escherichia coli

    • Salmonella

    • Proteus

    • Staphylococcus aureus

    Correct Answer
    A. Staphylococcus aureus
    Explanation
    Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive bacterium that can cause abscesses. Abscesses are localized collections of pus that form within tissues due to bacterial infection. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of skin and soft tissue infections, including abscesses. It is able to invade and multiply within host tissues, leading to the formation of abscesses. Staphylococcus aureus produces various virulence factors that promote tissue damage and inflammation, contributing to the development of abscesses. Therefore, Staphylococcus aureus is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 31. 

    Which scope has a trocar?

    • Cystoscope

    • Laparoscope

    • Laryngoscope

    • Bronchoscope

    Correct Answer
    A. Laparoscope
    Explanation
    A laparoscope is a type of scope that is used for viewing the inside of the abdomen or pelvis. It is commonly used in laparoscopic surgery, where small incisions are made and the laparoscope is inserted to provide a visual guide for the surgeon. The trocar is a specialized instrument that is used to create the initial access point for the laparoscope. It is inserted through the abdominal wall and allows the laparoscope to be inserted. Therefore, the laparoscope is the scope that has a trocar.

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  • 32. 

    A right-angled gallbaldder forceps is a

    • Crile

    • Mixter

    • Jackson

    • Rochester-Pean

    Correct Answer
    A. Mixter
  • 33. 

    When transporting a patient, drainage systems should be placed

    • At stretcher level

    • Below stretcher level

    • Above stretcher level

    • Optionally

    Correct Answer
    A. Below stretcher level
    Explanation
    When transporting a patient, drainage systems should be placed below stretcher level. This is because gravity will help the drainage system to function properly and prevent any backflow of fluids. Placing the drainage system below stretcher level ensures that any fluids or waste will flow downwards and away from the patient, minimizing the risk of contamination or infection. Additionally, positioning the drainage system below stretcher level makes it easier to monitor and manage the system during transportation.

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  • 34. 

    Laminar air flow provides

    • Ultraclean air

    • Controlled filter, dilution, and distrubution of air

    • Unidirectional positive-pressure stream of air

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Laminar air flow provides all of the above options. It provides ultraclean air by using high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters to remove contaminants from the air. It also controls the filter, dilution, and distribution of air to ensure a clean and sterile environment. Additionally, it creates a unidirectional positive-pressure stream of air, which helps to prevent the entry of contaminants into the controlled area. Therefore, all of the given options are correct in describing the benefits of laminar air flow.

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  • 35. 

    A femoral-popliteal bypass is scheduled.  Which self-retaining retractor would be used to facilitate exploration of the femoral artery?

    • Mason-Judd

    • DeBakey

    • Weitlaner

    • Craford

    Correct Answer
    A. Weitlaner
    Explanation
    The Weitlaner self-retaining retractor would be used to facilitate exploration of the femoral artery during a femoral-popliteal bypass. The Weitlaner retractor is a versatile instrument commonly used in various surgical procedures to hold back and expose soft tissue. It features sharp, curved prongs that can be locked in place, allowing for hands-free retraction and improved surgical access. In this case, the Weitlaner retractor would be ideal for holding back the surrounding tissue and providing a clear view of the femoral artery during the exploration process.

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  • 36. 

    Dead space is the space

    • That has no blood supply

    • Caused by separation of wound edges that have not been closely approximated

    • Where the tissue has been approximated with sutures

    • Where the suture line has broken down

    Correct Answer
    A. Caused by separation of wound edges that have not been closely approximated
    Explanation
    Dead space is the space that occurs when the edges of a wound are not properly brought together or approximated. This can happen when the wound edges are separated and not closely aligned, leading to a gap or space between them. This can result in a lack of blood supply to the area, as well as hinder the healing process.

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  • 37. 

    Adeno means

    • Lymph

    • Gland

    • Joint

    • Bone

    Correct Answer
    A. Gland
    Explanation
    The term "adeno" is derived from the Greek word "aden" which means gland. Therefore, "adeno" refers to something related to glands.

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  • 38. 

    What is the purpose of a chest tube and water-seal drainage?

    • Evacuate fluid and air

    • Evacuate lung secretions

    • Oxygenate the lung

    • Plug the hole in the chest wall

    Correct Answer
    A. Evacuate fluid and air
    Explanation
    A chest tube and water-seal drainage system is used to evacuate fluid and air from the chest cavity. This is typically done to treat conditions such as pneumothorax (collapsed lung) or pleural effusion (build-up of fluid in the chest). The chest tube is inserted into the chest to drain the fluid or air, and the water-seal drainage system helps to maintain the negative pressure in the chest, allowing for proper lung expansion and function.

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  • 39. 

    The organism causing hepatitis B is a

    • Virus

    • Bacteria

    • Fungus

    • Protozoa

    Correct Answer
    A. Virus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is virus. Hepatitis B is caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV), which is a member of the family Hepadnaviridae. HBV is a small, enveloped, partially double-stranded DNA virus that primarily infects liver cells. It is transmitted through contact with the blood or other body fluids of an infected person. The virus can cause both acute and chronic infections, leading to inflammation of the liver and potentially severe complications. Vaccination is available to prevent hepatitis B infection.

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  • 40. 

    Funnel chest is also known as

    • Pectus carinatum

    • Pectus excavatum

    • Atresia

    • Ramstedt-Fredet

    Correct Answer
    A. Pectus excavatum
    Explanation
    Funnel chest, also known as pectus excavatum, is a condition where the breastbone sinks into the chest, causing a noticeable indentation. This is the correct answer because the other options, pectus carinatum, atresia, and Ramstedt-Fredet, do not refer to funnel chest. Pectus carinatum is a condition where the breastbone protrudes outwards, atresia refers to a blockage or absence of a body opening or passage, and Ramstedt-Fredet is a surgical procedure used to treat pyloric stenosis.

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  • 41. 

    Which is an acceptable means of pouring a sterile solution onto a sterile field?

    • The scrub nurse holds a receptacle away from the table as the circulator pours

    • The scrub nurse sets the receptacle near the edge of a waterproof-draped table

    • All solutions are poured over the ring stand by the circulator

    • A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. A and B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A and B. Both options A and B describe acceptable means of pouring a sterile solution onto a sterile field. Option A suggests that the scrub nurse holds a receptacle away from the table as the circulator pours, which helps to prevent contamination of the sterile field. Option B states that the scrub nurse sets the receptacle near the edge of a waterproof-draped table, which also helps to maintain the sterility of the field. Both methods ensure that the solution is poured onto the sterile field without introducing any contaminants.

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  • 42. 

    The structure that covers the enterance of the larynx when one swallows, thus preventing food from entering the airway (trachea) is called

    • Glottis

    • Vocal fold

    • Epiglottis

    • Oropharynx

    Correct Answer
    A. Epiglottis
    Explanation
    The epiglottis is a structure that covers the entrance of the larynx when one swallows. Its main function is to prevent food or liquids from entering the airway (trachea) and instead direct them towards the esophagus, ensuring that they go down the digestive system. The glottis refers to the opening between the vocal folds in the larynx, which is involved in sound production. The vocal folds are responsible for producing sound when air passes through them. The oropharynx is the part of the throat that lies behind the mouth and is involved in both digestion and respiration.

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  • 43. 

    An agent used for epidural, spinal, or local providing good relaxation is

    • Marcaine

    • Norcuron

    • Ketalar

    • Sublimaze

    Correct Answer
    A. Marcaine
    Explanation
    Marcaine is a local anesthetic agent commonly used for epidural, spinal, or local anesthesia. It provides good relaxation by blocking the transmission of nerve signals, resulting in temporary loss of sensation and muscle movement in the targeted area. Marcaine is known for its long-lasting effects, making it suitable for procedures that require prolonged pain relief or muscle relaxation. Norcuron, Ketalar, and Sublimaze are not typically used for this purpose, making Marcaine the correct answer.

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  • 44. 

    Injection of contrast media into the brachial, carotid, or vertebral artery to study the intracranial vessels is called

    • Myelography

    • Pneumoencephalography

    • Computed axial tomography (CAT) scan

    • Angiography

    Correct Answer
    A. Angiography
    Explanation
    Angiography is the correct answer because it involves the injection of contrast media into arteries to visualize the blood vessels. This procedure is commonly used to study the intracranial vessels by injecting contrast media into the brachial, carotid, or vertebral artery. Myelography is a different procedure that involves the injection of contrast media into the spinal canal to study the spinal cord and nerves. Pneumoencephalography is an outdated procedure that involves the injection of air into the brain to visualize the ventricles. Computed axial tomography (CAT) scan is a non-invasive imaging technique that uses X-rays to create detailed cross-sectional images of the body.

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  • 45. 

    Instruments used to close the vaginal vault in an abdominal hysterectomy nust be

    • Kept separate from the setup before use

    • Considered contaminated after use

    • Noncrushing clamps

    • Kept on the Mayo stand after use

    Correct Answer
    A. Considered contaminated after use
    Explanation
    Instruments used to close the vaginal vault in an abdominal hysterectomy must be considered contaminated after use because they come into direct contact with bodily fluids and tissues during the surgical procedure. This helps to prevent the spread of infection and maintain a sterile surgical environment. By considering these instruments as contaminated, proper handling and disposal protocols can be followed to ensure the safety of both the patient and healthcare providers.

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  • 46. 

    If a family is contacted but cannot come in to sign a permission for emergency surgery, the surgeon should

    • Wait until they arrive

    • Accept permission by phone, telegram, or in written communication

    • Ask another physician to sign

    • Refuse to do the case

    Correct Answer
    A. Accept permission by phone, telegram, or in written communication
    Explanation
    If a family is contacted but cannot come in to sign a permission for emergency surgery, the surgeon should accept permission by phone, telegram, or in written communication. This is because emergency surgery may be a matter of life or death, and waiting for the family to arrive may cause unnecessary delays and put the patient's life at risk. Accepting permission through alternative means ensures that the necessary medical intervention can be carried out promptly while still respecting the family's wishes.

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  • 47. 

    Vagotomy is performed for peptic ulcer disease to

    • Decrease transmission of pain stimuli

    • Increase secretion of gastrin

    • Increase circulation to the greater curvature

    • Decrease secretion of gastric acid

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease secretion of gastric acid
    Explanation
    Vagotomy is a surgical procedure performed for peptic ulcer disease to decrease the secretion of gastric acid. This is because excessive gastric acid production can lead to the development and worsening of peptic ulcers. By decreasing the secretion of gastric acid, vagotomy helps in reducing the acidity in the stomach and promoting the healing of ulcers. It is an effective treatment option to manage peptic ulcer disease and prevent its complications.

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  • 48. 

    A double-bowl-shaped glass evacuator used to irrigate the bladder during transurethral surgery is call a(n)

    • Robb

    • Valentine

    • Ellik

    • Toomey

    Correct Answer
    A. Ellik
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Ellik. Ellik is a double-bowl-shaped glass evacuator that is commonly used to irrigate the bladder during transurethral surgery. It is designed to effectively remove fluids and debris from the bladder, allowing for better visualization and access during the surgical procedure.

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  • 49. 

    An elevated PSA test could be indicative of cancer of the

    • Lung

    • Prostate

    • Lymph nodes

    • Cervix

    Correct Answer
    A. Prostate
    Explanation
    An elevated PSA test is a blood test used to screen for prostate cancer. PSA stands for prostate-specific antigen, which is a protein produced by the prostate gland. If the PSA level is elevated, it could be a sign of prostate cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is prostate.

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Farah Naz |MBBS |
Medical Writer
Farah Naz is a Medical Professional with a Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) from Dow University of Health Sciences. Her academic journey included internships in Radiology, Cardiology, and Neurosurgery. Her contributions to medical research extend to two publications in medical journals, solidifying her position as a promising addition to the field.

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 8, 2025 +

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  • Current Version
  • Jul 08, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
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    Expert Reviewed by
    Farah Naz
  • Oct 13, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Heather Balthrop
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