1.
Which of the following is most correct when the flight control system is operating insecondary mode?
Correct Answer
D. The Autopilot and envelope protection features are NOT available.
Explanation
When the flight control system is operating in secondary mode, both the Autopilot and envelope protection features are not available. This means that the aircraft cannot be controlled automatically by the Autopilot system, and the envelope protection features, which help prevent the aircraft from exceeding its safe flight envelope, are also disabled.
2.
Which of these flight control surfaces move down and aft in proportion to trailing edge flaps extension?
Correct Answer
A. Flaperons
Explanation
Flaperons are flight control surfaces that combine the functions of both ailerons and flaps. They are located on the trailing edge of the wings and move down and aft in proportion to trailing edge flaps extension. This means that as the flaps extend, the flaperons also move downwards and backwards, helping to increase lift and improve the aircraft's maneuverability. Therefore, flaperons are the correct answer to the question.
3.
Roll control is provided by?
Correct Answer
C. Ailerons, flaperons and spoilers
Explanation
Roll control is provided by a combination of ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers. Ailerons are movable surfaces on the wings that are used to control the roll of an aircraft. Flaperons are a combination of flaps and ailerons, which can be used to control both the lift and roll of the aircraft. Spoilers are devices on the wings that can be raised to disrupt the airflow and reduce lift, thereby assisting in roll control. Together, these control surfaces allow the pilot to manipulate the aircraft's roll and maintain stability during flight.
4.
In direct mode, which of the following components of the primary flight control system are NOT operating?
Correct Answer
B. Primary flight computers (PFCs)
Explanation
In direct mode, the primary flight control system bypasses the primary flight computers (PFCs) and directly connects the pilot's inputs to the actuator control electronics (ACEs) and electro hydraulic servos. This means that the PFCs are not involved in controlling the flight controls and are therefore not operating in direct mode.
5.
What provides warning of an impending stall?
Correct Answer
A. Left and right stick shakers.
Explanation
The left and right stick shakers provide a warning of an impending stall. Stick shakers are devices that vibrate the control sticks to alert the pilot of a potential stall situation. When the aircraft is approaching a stall, the stick shakers activate, providing a tactile feedback to the pilot, indicating that corrective action needs to be taken to prevent a stall. This warning system is crucial in ensuring the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.
6.
Which of the following is not a stall protection feature?
Correct Answer
D. Use of alternate pitch trim levers reduces the column forces below the minimum maneuvering speed.
Explanation
The use of alternate pitch trim levers does not reduce the column forces below the minimum maneuvering speed. This means that it is not a stall protection feature.
7.
Which statement is not correct concerning stabilizer trim?
Correct Answer
D. You can use the pitch trim switches on the ground to set the trim
Explanation
While the pitch trim switches can typically be used to adjust the trim in flight, this statement is misleading because it implies that ground operations should involve using pitch trim switches to set the trim, which is not typically standard procedure. Trim is usually set using other methods, such as the trim wheel or dedicated controls, depending on the aircraft. The other statements are correct: the green band indicates the acceptable trim range for takeoff, using trim switches disengages the autopilot, and the trim rate decreases as airspeed increases to prevent overcorrection.
8.
Which trim control is inhibited when the autopilot is engaged?
Correct Answer
A. Control wheel pitch trim switches
Explanation
When the autopilot is engaged, the control wheel pitch trim switches are inhibited. This means that the pilot is unable to make adjustments to the pitch trim using the control wheel switches while the autopilot is active. The autopilot takes control of the pitch trim function and makes necessary adjustments automatically, based on the flight parameters and inputs received from other systems. This helps to maintain stability and control of the aircraft during autopilot operation.
9.
What could cause the EICAS message STAB GREENBAND to be displayed?
Correct Answer
D. Nose gear pressure sensor disagrees with the FMC calculation.
Explanation
The EICAS message STAB GREENBAND could be displayed if the nose gear pressure sensor disagrees with the FMC calculation. This means that there is a discrepancy between the pressure reading from the nose gear pressure sensor and the calculated value by the Flight Management Computer (FMC). This could indicate a potential issue with the nose gear system or a malfunction in the FMC's calculations.
10.
Which control surfaces are used for normal roll control on the 777?
Correct Answer
A. Ailerons, flaperons and spoilers
Explanation
The correct answer is ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers. Ailerons are the primary control surfaces for roll control, while flaperons are a combination of flaps and ailerons that provide additional roll control. Spoilers, on the other hand, are used to decrease lift and increase drag, aiding in roll control during certain maneuvers.
11.
Automatic speedbrake operation is provided for which flight control system modes?
Correct Answer
B. Normal
Explanation
Automatic speedbrake operation is provided in the Normal flight control mode. This mode allows the aircraft to automatically deploy the speedbrakes when certain conditions are met, such as during landing or when the aircraft exceeds a certain airspeed. The speedbrakes help to slow down the aircraft by increasing drag, and their automatic operation in the Normal mode ensures that they are used efficiently and effectively during appropriate flight phases.
12.
Which one of the following statements are incorrect?
Correct Answer
D. The extension of speedbrakes in the landing configuration is prohibited.
Explanation
The incorrect statement is "The extension of speedbrakes in the landing configuration is prohibited." This is incorrect because speedbrakes can be extended during landing to help reduce the aircraft's speed and aid in deceleration.
13.
Under what conditions does the EICAS message SPEEDBRAKE EXTENDED display?
Correct Answer
B. Speedbrakes are extended, and landing flaps are selected or RA is between 15 and 800 feet.
Explanation
The EICAS message SPEEDBRAKE EXTENDED will display when the speedbrakes are extended and either the landing flaps are selected or the radio altitude (RA) is between 15 and 800 feet. This means that the message will appear when the speedbrakes are deployed during landing or during a low altitude maneuver.
14.
Which statement is not correct regarding the flap position indicator?
Correct Answer
A. The flap position indicator is located on the PFD.
Explanation
The given statement is not correct because the flap position indicator is not located on the PFD.
15.
What causes the EICAS message FLAPS DRIVE?
Correct Answer
C. The message is displayed when the flap drive mechanism has failed.
Explanation
The EICAS message FLAPS DRIVE is caused when the flap drive mechanism has failed. This message is displayed as an indication of the failure. It does not provide a solution or suggest arming the alternate system. The magenta flap indicator display is not mentioned as a cause of the message. The information provided states that the flaps will operate in secondary mode, but this is not mentioned as the cause of the message.
16.
Which functions are not available when the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTER DISCONNECT switch is positioned to DISC?
Correct Answer
D. Autopilot, automatic speedbrakes and envelope protection
Explanation
When the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTER DISCONNECT switch is positioned to DISC, the functions that are not available are autopilot, automatic speedbrakes, and envelope protection.
17.
What is wheel to rudder cross-tie?
Correct Answer
B. Ability to control initial effects of an engine failure with control wheel only.
Explanation
The wheel to rudder cross-tie refers to the ability to control the initial effects of an engine failure using only the control wheel. This means that in the event of an engine failure, the pilot can use the control wheel to compensate for the asymmetrical thrust and maintain control of the aircraft. This cross-tie system helps to minimize the yawing motion caused by the loss of engine power and allows the pilot to safely continue flying the aircraft.
18.
When do the control wheel stabilizer trim switches control stabilizer movement directly?
Correct Answer
C. Only on the ground and in the Secondary and Direct flight control modes
Explanation
The control wheel stabilizer trim switches control stabilizer movement directly only on the ground and in the Secondary and Direct flight control modes. This means that the switches are not active all the time, but only in specific situations such as when the aircraft is on the ground or when it is in the Secondary or Direct flight control modes.
19.
When are pitch trim changes required with normal pitch mode control?
Correct Answer
A. During airspeed changes only.
Explanation
Pitch trim changes are required with normal pitch mode control during airspeed changes only. This means that when the aircraft's airspeed is being adjusted, the pitch trim needs to be changed to maintain the desired pitch attitude. Pitch trim is used to balance the aircraft and ensure that it remains stable and in control during different flight conditions. Therefore, pitch trim changes are not required when the landing gear is extended, when thrust is changed, or for all configuration changes.
20.
What happens when the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid?
Correct Answer
C. The green band and the pointer are not displayed.
Explanation
When the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid, the green band and the pointer on the indicator are not displayed.
21.
When do the alternate pitch trim levers move the stabilizer?
Correct Answer
D. The levers move the stabilizer directly in all modes.
Explanation
The alternate pitch trim levers move the stabilizer directly in all modes. This means that regardless of whether the autopilot is engaged or disengaged, and whether the aircraft is on the ground or in flight, the levers have the ability to directly control and adjust the position of the stabilizer.
22.
What does the EICAS message PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS indicate?
Correct Answer
B. The system is in the direct mode.
Explanation
The EICAS message "PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS" indicates that the system is in the direct mode. This means that the flight control computers are directly controlling the aircraft without any intervention or assistance from other systems or modes.
23.
What are the initial steps to extend the flaps using the alternate flap mode?
Correct Answer
A. Arm ALT FLAPS ARM switch. Select ALT FLAPS selector to EXT
24.
Which of the following is not correct concerning the flight control system when operating in secondary mode?
Correct Answer
D. All spoilers remain usable.
Explanation
In secondary mode of the flight control system, all spoilers remain usable. This means that the spoilers can still be deployed to assist in controlling the aircraft's roll and descent. The other options mentioned in the question state that certain features are not available in secondary mode, such as envelope protection, autopilot, and thrust asymmetry. However, it is stated that all spoilers remain usable, making this the correct answer.
25.
Why is there is no limitation in the Boeing airplane Operations Manual or QRH regarding Flap selection at high altitudes above 20,000 feet?
Correct Answer
B. Flap extension is inhibited at high altitudes and airspeeds above FLAPS 1 limit placard speed plus 10 knots.
Explanation
The reason there is no limitation in the Boeing airplane Operations Manual or QRH regarding Flap selection at high altitudes above 20,000 feet is because flap extension is already inhibited at high altitudes and airspeeds above FLAPS 1 limit placard speed plus 10 knots. This means that the flaps cannot be extended beyond a certain point at these altitudes and speeds, so there is no need for a specific limitation in the manual or QRH.
26.
What does the EICAS message FLIGHT CONTROL MODE indicate?
Correct Answer
C. Flight control system is operating in the secondary mode.
Explanation
The EICAS message FLIGHT CONTROL MODE indicates that the flight control system is operating in the secondary mode. This means that there may be a fault or failure in the primary mode of the flight control system, and the secondary mode is being used as a backup. This message alerts the pilots to the change in control mode and indicates that they should be aware of potential limitations or changes in the aircraft's handling characteristics.
27.
When does TAC automatically add rudder to minimize yaw?
Correct Answer
B. When one engine differs by 10 percent or more from the other engine.
Explanation
When one engine differs by 10 percent or more from the other engine, TAC automatically adds rudder to minimize yaw. This is because a significant difference in thrust between the two engines can cause the aircraft to yaw or turn in the direction of the engine with higher thrust. By adding rudder, TAC helps to counteract this yawing motion and maintain stability in the aircraft's flight path.
28.
What control do the flaperons and ailerons provide?
Correct Answer
B. Roll control assisted by asymmetric spoilers.
Explanation
The flaperons and ailerons provide roll control assisted by asymmetric spoilers. Flaperons are control surfaces that combine the functions of flaps and ailerons, while ailerons are hinged control surfaces on the wings that can be raised or lowered to control the roll of an aircraft. Asymmetric spoilers are panels on the wings that can be raised on one side and lowered on the other to create drag and assist in rolling the aircraft. Therefore, the correct answer is roll control assisted by asymmetric spoilers.
29.
A wheel to rudder cross-tie function provides the capability of being able to control the initial effects of an engine failure using control wheel inputs only. How many degrees of rudder deflection can be obtained from control wheel inputs?
Correct Answer
C. 8 degrees
Explanation
A wheel to rudder cross-tie function allows the pilot to control the initial effects of an engine failure using only control wheel inputs. This means that when the pilot turns the control wheel, it will also result in a corresponding deflection of the rudder. The correct answer of 8 degrees suggests that the maximum rudder deflection that can be obtained from control wheel inputs is 8 degrees.
30.
What is the meaning of the EICAS advisory message STABILIZER CUTOUT?
Correct Answer
A. Both stabilizer cutout switches are in the CUTOUT position.
Explanation
The EICAS advisory message "STABILIZER CUTOUT" means that both stabilizer cutout switches are in the CUTOUT position. This indicates that the stabilizer control system is deactivated, potentially leading to a loss of control over the aircraft's stabilizer.
31.
How many spoiler panels are used as Speedbrakes?
Correct Answer
C. A total of 14 spoiler panels.
Explanation
The correct answer is A total of 14 spoiler panels. This means that there are 14 spoiler panels used as speedbrakes.