B777 Low Visibilty Operation
- 1.
Which of the following system(s) must be operative for an automatic approach in Cat II condition?
- A.
Two source of electrical power (the APU may not be used as a substitute for the left or right source)
- B.
2 operation engines
- C.
SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS EICAS message displayed
- D.
LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated
Correct Answer
D. LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciatedExplanation
In Cat II conditions, an automatic approach requires the LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated. This means that the aircraft's autopilot system is capable of automatically landing the aircraft in low visibility conditions with the assistance of the Instrument Landing System (ILS). The other options listed, such as two sources of electrical power and two operational engines, are important for the overall functioning and safety of the aircraft but are not specifically required for an automatic approach in Cat II conditions.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What operating condition is required for category IIIa operations?
- A.
Two engines operating for a flaps 20 landing.
- B.
One engine operating for a flaps 20 or 30 landing.
- C.
APU as the only source of electrical power
- D.
Display of SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS, SGL SOURCE RAD ALT, SGL SOURCE ILS EICAS message
Correct Answer
B. One engine operating for a flaps 20 or 30 landing. -
- 3.
Which of the following system is required to be operative for a flight director (FD) approach in Cat II conditions?
- A.
Normal flight controls
- B.
Antiskid operative
- C.
Autothrottle engaged
- D.
Two autoland status annunciators
Correct Answer
A. Normal flight controlsExplanation
In order to perform a flight director (FD) approach in Cat II conditions, it is necessary for the normal flight controls to be operative. This means that the aircraft's control surfaces, such as the ailerons, elevators, and rudder, must be fully functional and responsive. The other options listed, such as antiskid operative, autothrottle engaged, and two autoland status annunciators, are not specifically required for a FD approach in Cat II conditions.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which is not an element of a stabilized approach?
- A.
Only small changes in heading/pitch are required to maintain the correct flight path.
- B.
Indicated airspeed is not less than VREF or more than VREF+20 knots
- C.
The airplane is in the correct landing configuration.
- D.
Airplane sink rate is less than 1100 fpm.
Correct Answer
D. Airplane sink rate is less than 1100 fpm.Explanation
The correct answer is "Airplane sink rate is less than 1100 fpm." In a stabilized approach, the sink rate should be less than a certain threshold, typically 1000 fpm. This ensures a smooth and controlled descent towards the landing runway. If the sink rate exceeds this threshold, it indicates an unstable approach and increases the risk of a hard landing or runway overshoot. Therefore, a sink rate less than 1100 fpm is an essential element of a stabilized approach.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What actions must a pilot take on a category IIIb approach when the AUTOTHROTTLE DISC EICAS message is displayed?
- A.
Above the Alert Height, re-engaged the autothrottle and continue.
- B.
Below the Alert Height execute a go-around if you do not have a visual reference established.
- C.
During rollout discontinue use of reverse thrust.
- D.
Below the Alert Height continue the approach using manual throttle control until you have a visual reference established or execute a go-around at minimums.
Correct Answer
B. Below the Alert Height execute a go-around if you do not have a visual reference established.Explanation
When the AUTOTHROTTLE DISC EICAS message is displayed below the Alert Height on a category IIIb approach, the pilot must execute a go-around if they do not have a visual reference established. This means that if the pilot does not have a clear view of the runway or the necessary visual cues to safely continue the approach, they should abort the landing and initiate a go-around procedure. This ensures the safety of the aircraft and passengers in low visibility conditions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The EICAS message AUTOPILOT is displayed passing the Alert Height on a category IIIA approach and visual reference is not established, what should the pilot do?
- A.
Continue the approach with autopilot disengaged.
- B.
Re-engaged the autopilot and continue the approach.
- C.
Execute an immediate manual go-around.
- D.
Execute an immediate go around.
Correct Answer
D. Execute an immediate go around.Explanation
If the EICAS message "AUTOPILOT" is displayed passing the Alert Height on a category IIIA approach and visual reference is not established, the correct action for the pilot is to execute an immediate go-around. This means discontinuing the approach and initiating a climb to a safe altitude. This is necessary because without visual reference and with the autopilot engaged, there is a higher risk of a potential accident or loss of control. Therefore, it is important for the pilot to take immediate action and go around to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The GS will not capture before LOC capture when the localizer intercept angle exceeds what value?
- A.
80 degrees
- B.
90 degrees
- C.
60 degrees
- D.
120 degrees
Correct Answer
A. 80 degreesExplanation
When the localizer intercept angle exceeds 80 degrees, the GS (Glide Slope) will not capture before LOC (Localizer) capture. This means that when the angle is greater than 80 degrees, the aircraft will not be able to capture the Glide Slope before capturing the Localizer.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is correct during an ILS approach with TAC inoperative?
- A.
Pilot rudder pedal pressure and rudder trim inputs are required to control yaw after 1500-foot radio altitude with localizer and glideslope capture.
- B.
Roper trim includes a slideslip and the control wheel will not be centered.
- C.
Rudder trim inputs are not effective in the LOC or ROLLOUT modes.
- D.
Engaged autopilots control the yaw using the rudder before LAND 2 or LAND 3 are annunciated.
Correct Answer
C. Rudder trim inputs are not effective in the LOC or ROLLOUT modes.Explanation
During an ILS approach with TAC inoperative, the correct answer is that rudder trim inputs are not effective in the LOC or ROLLOUT modes. This means that the pilot cannot use rudder trim to control the yaw of the aircraft during these phases of the approach. The rudder trim will not have any effect on the aircraft's yaw when it is in the LOC or ROLLOUT modes.Rate this question:
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- 9.
For straight in approaches, what is the 777 minima category ________?
- A.
A (-200) B (-300)
- B.
B (-200) C (-300)
- C.
C (-200 & -300)
- D.
C (-200) D(-300)
Correct Answer
D. C (-200) D(-300)Explanation
The correct answer is C (-200) D(-300). This means that for straight in approaches, the minimum category for a Boeing 777 aircraft is -200 feet decision height for Category C and -300 feet decision height for Category D. This indicates the minimum altitude at which the pilot must have the runway in sight in order to continue the approach and land safely.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What weather conditions require ILS critical areas to be restricted from all vehicle or aircraft operation?
- A.
Less than 800 foot ceiling and / or 2 miles visibility
- B.
Less than 600 foot ceiling and / or 1.5 miles visibility
- C.
Less than 1000 foot ceiling and / or 2 miles visibility
- D.
Less than 200 foot ceiling and / or RVR 2,000
Correct Answer
A. Less than 800 foot ceiling and / or 2 miles visibilityExplanation
The ILS critical areas need to be restricted from all vehicle or aircraft operation when the weather conditions have a ceiling of less than 800 feet and/or visibility of less than 2 miles. This is because these conditions can significantly affect the visibility and navigation capabilities of pilots, making it unsafe to operate in the critical areas.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Cat II flight director approaches may be conducted with which of the following conditions?
- A.
Using flight control Secondary operation
- B.
With SGL SOURCE RAD ALT EICAS message displayed.
- C.
During SAARU only operation
- D.
With SGL SOURCE F/D EICAS message not displayed
Correct Answer
D. With SGL SOURCE F/D EICAS message not displayedExplanation
Cat II flight director approaches may be conducted when the SGL SOURCE F/D EICAS message is not displayed. This means that the flight director system is functioning properly and is not relying on a single source for its information. This condition ensures that the flight director commands are accurate and reliable, which is crucial for conducting Cat II approaches where precision and accuracy are necessary for safe landing in low visibility conditions.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The GS will not capture before LOC capture when the localizer intercept angle exceeds what value?
- A.
80 degrees
- B.
90 degrees
- C.
It can not capture without LOC already captured.
- D.
120 degrees
Correct Answer
A. 80 degreesExplanation
When the localizer intercept angle exceeds 80 degrees, the glide slope (GS) will not capture before the localizer (LOC) capture. This means that the aircraft's vertical guidance system will not align with the runway centerline until the LOC is captured first.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What does the EICAS message NO LAND 3 indicate when FLARE and ROLL OUT are armed and displayed on the FMA?
- A.
The autopilot disconnect switch has been pushed.
- B.
The autopilot is inoperative and a manual landing is required
- C.
The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland.
- D.
NO LAND 3 means the airplane is more than 3 miles from landing.
Correct Answer
C. The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland.Explanation
The EICAS message NO LAND 3 indicates that the autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland. This means that the system does not have multiple backup channels for the autoland function, which could potentially affect the reliability and safety of the landing procedure.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which statement is not correct concerning the rollout mode?
- A.
Rollout is armed below 1500 feet RA.
- B.
ROLLOUT replaces the FLARE mode annunciation.
- C.
Rollout guidance continues until the autopilots are disengaged.
- D.
The rollout mode engages below 2 feet RA.
Correct Answer
B. ROLLOUT replaces the FLARE mode annunciation.Explanation
The statement "ROLLOUT replaces the FLARE mode annunciation" is not correct concerning the rollout mode. The rollout mode engages below 2 feet RA, but it does not replace the FLARE mode annunciation.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which statement is not correct concerning the flare mode?
- A.
Flare engages between 60 and 40 feet RA.
- B.
The PFD autothrottle annunciation changed from SPD to IDLE.
- C.
Between 25 and 50 feet RA the autothrottle begins retarding the thrust levers to idle.
- D.
Flare commands can be used during a Flight Director approach and landing.
Correct Answer
D. Flare commands can be used during a Flight Director approach and landing.Explanation
The statement "Flare commands can be used during a Flight Director approach and landing" is incorrect. Flare commands are not used during a Flight Director approach and landing. The flare mode engages between 60 and 40 feet RA, the PFD autothrottle annunciation changes from SPD to IDLE, and between 25 and 50 feet RA the autothrottle begins retarding the thrust levers to idle.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which statement is correct concerning the AFDS status annunciation?
- A.
Below 200 feet it can change from LAND 3 to LAND 2
- B.
Below 500 feet, changes in autoland status are inhibited.
- C.
Below 200 feet, changes in autoland status are inhibited other than a transition to NO AUTOLAND.
Correct Answer
C. Below 200 feet, changes in autoland status are inhibited other than a transition to NO AUTOLAND.Explanation
Below 200 feet, changes in autoland status are inhibited other than a transition to NO AUTOLAND. This means that once the aircraft descends below 200 feet, the autoland system cannot be changed to any other status except for transitioning to NO AUTOLAND. This restriction ensures that the autoland system remains stable and consistent during critical phases of landing.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which statement is correct concerning an automatic approach in Cat II conditions?
- A.
2 engines must be operating
- B.
EICAS message SGL SOURCE DISPLAY must not be displayed and LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated.
- C.
Minimums must be referenced to radio altitude.
- D.
LAND 3 must be annunciated.
Correct Answer
B. EICAS message SGL SOURCE DISPLAY must not be displayed and LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated.Explanation
In Cat II conditions, an automatic approach requires that the EICAS message "SGL SOURCE DISPLAY" is not displayed and either "LAND 3" or "LAND 2" is annunciated. This means that the aircraft's flight control system should not indicate any issues with the source of the displayed information, and the system should be ready for a landing with either LAND 3 or LAND 2 mode active.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The 777 is certified for category III a operations and requires all but which of the following for an autoland approach?
- A.
The autothrottle engaged.
- B.
Two autoland status annunciators
- C.
LAND 3 or LAND 4 annunciated.
- D.
SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS, SGL SOURCE RAD ALT, SGL SOURCE ILS EICAS messages not displayed.
Correct Answer
A. The autothrottle engaged.Explanation
The correct answer is "The autothrottle engaged." In an autoland approach, the autothrottle does not need to be engaged. Autoland is a system that allows an aircraft to perform a fully automated landing, including the flare and touchdown. The autothrottle, on the other hand, controls the aircraft's engine thrust. While it is typically used during normal operations, it is not a requirement for an autoland approach.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What action must the pilot take when the EICAS message AUTOPILOT is displayed below 500 feet RA on a category III approach?
- A.
Continue the approach with the autopilot disengaged.
- B.
Re-engaged the autopilot and continue the approach. The autothrotlle engaged.
- C.
Continue the approach to minimums and go-around
- D.
Execute a go-around
Correct Answer
D. Execute a go-aroundExplanation
The correct answer is to execute a go-around. When the EICAS message AUTOPILOT is displayed below 500 feet RA on a category III approach, it indicates that the autopilot should be disengaged and a go-around should be initiated. This is a safety measure to ensure that the aircraft is under the direct control of the pilot during the critical phase of landing. Continuing the approach with the autopilot disengaged or re-engaging the autopilot would not be appropriate in this situation as it could compromise the safety of the aircraft. Therefore, the pilot must execute a go-around to abort the landing and initiate a climb to a safe altitude.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which one of the following statements is required for an automatic approach in category II conditions?
- A.
Two sources of electrical power operating (the APU may not be used as a substitute for the left or right source).
- B.
Two operating engines are required.
- C.
SGL SOURCE IS – EICAS message is not displayed.
- D.
LAND 3 or LAND 2 does not have to be annunciated, only LAND1.
Correct Answer
C. SGL SOURCE IS – EICAS message is not displayed.Explanation
The correct answer is "SGL SOURCE IS – EICAS message is not displayed." In category II conditions, where visibility and cloud cover are low, it is important to have redundancy in electrical power sources. This means that two sources of electrical power should be operating, with the APU not being used as a substitute for the left or right source. However, the absence of the "SGL SOURCE IS" EICAS message indicates that the single source of power is functioning properly, providing the necessary redundancy for an automatic approach in category II conditions.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What equipment must be operating for category IIIa operations?
- A.
LAND 3 status is annunciated only on the Captain’s PFD.
- B.
Two hydraulic systems must be operating normally.
- C.
APU is operating.
- D.
LAND 2 status is annunciated on both PFD’s.
Correct Answer
D. LAND 2 status is annunciated on both PFD’s.Explanation
For category IIIa operations, the equipment that must be operating includes the LAND 2 status being annunciated on both Primary Flight Displays (PFDs). This indicates that the aircraft's autoland system is functioning properly and providing the necessary guidance for landing in low visibility conditions. The other statements in the question, such as LAND 3 status only being annunciated on the Captain's PFD, two hydraulic systems operating normally, and the APU operating, are not specifically related to category IIIa operations.Rate this question:
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- 22.
In Order to be stabilized, an additional constraint placed on category II approaches is:
- A.
The ILS approach is flown within the expanded localizer band.
- B.
The vertical speed is within 200 feet per minute of the published value.
- C.
Heading changes do not exceed 5 degrees of the approach course.
- D.
The glideslope is flown within a quarter dot.
Correct Answer
A. The ILS approach is flown within the expanded localizer band.Explanation
The correct answer is that the ILS approach is flown within the expanded localizer band. This means that the aircraft must stay within the designated area around the localizer signal, which provides horizontal guidance during the approach. Staying within this band ensures that the aircraft remains on the correct course and is properly aligned with the runway. By adhering to this constraint, pilots can maintain the necessary precision and accuracy required for a safe and stabilized approach.Rate this question:
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- 23.
When must an immediate missed approach must be executed?
- A.
When on an ILS approach and radio communication is lost.
- B.
When a navigation radio or flight instrument failure occurs which affects the ability to safely complete the approach in instrument conditions.
- C.
When the navigation instruments show significant disagreement, but visual contact with the runway is made.
- D.
When on an ILS approach, the localizer shows half scale deflection.
Correct Answer
B. When a navigation radio or flight instrument failure occurs which affects the ability to safely complete the approach in instrument conditions.Explanation
An immediate missed approach must be executed when there is a navigation radio or flight instrument failure that affects the ability to safely complete the approach in instrument conditions. This means that if there is a malfunction or failure in the navigation equipment or flight instruments that could compromise the pilot's ability to navigate and safely complete the approach, they should immediately abort the approach and initiate a missed approach procedure. This ensures the safety of the aircraft and everyone on board.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following systems is required to be operative for flight director (FD) approach in category II conditions?
- A.
FTCM/Holding, approach a Center and Right hydraulic system are operating normally.
- B.
Antiskids is operative
- C.
Autothrottle is engaged.
- D.
ADIRU is operating.
Correct Answer
D. ADIRU is operating.Explanation
The question is asking which system is required to be operative for flight director (FD) approach in category II conditions. The given information states that FTCM/Holding, approach a Center and Right hydraulic system are operating normally, antiskids is operative, autothrottle is engaged. The only system that is specifically mentioned as required for the FD approach in category II conditions is ADIRU. Therefore, the correct answer is ADIRU is operating.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following equipment is not required to be operational for an autopilot approach in category III conditions using autoland?
- A.
EICAS message SGLSOURCE ILS is not displayed.
- B.
Both engines are operating.
- C.
EICAS message SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS is not displayed.
- D.
An FMA is displayed for each pilot.
Correct Answer
B. Both engines are operating.Explanation
In an autopilot approach in category III conditions using autoland, all equipment should be operational except for the engines. The fact that both engines are operating is not required for the autopilot approach. The other statements mention the required equipment such as the EICAS messages and the FMA display for each pilot.Rate this question:
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- 26.
During a Category III approach above the alert height, on glideslope, with the weather at minimums, you notice an EICAS AUTOPILOT warning message. What are you required to do?
- A.
Continue the approach with autopilot engaged.
- B.
Disengaged the autopilot and execute a manual landing.
- C.
Adjusting to the appropriate higher minimums of immediately execute a manual go-around.
- D.
Select the other autopilot.
Correct Answer
C. Adjusting to the appropriate higher minimums of immediately execute a manual go-around.Explanation
When flying a Category III approach, any warning message from the EICAS (Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System) should be taken seriously. In this scenario, the correct response is to adjust to the appropriate higher minimums, which means increasing the altitude at which the approach is continued, and immediately execute a manual go-around. This ensures the safety of the flight and allows the crew to address the warning message properly. Continuing the approach with the autopilot engaged or selecting another autopilot could be risky if there is an issue with the autopilot. Disengaging the autopilot and executing a manual landing is not the correct response as it does not address the warning message.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The Flight Crew Training Manual list additional callouts for category II approaches. Which of the following is not one of those additional callouts?
- A.
“Look left/right/ahead” at 200 feet above DA H).
- B.
“Strobe lights” when individual sequence flasher light bars are visible.
- C.
“Threshold” when the threshold light are seen.
- D.
“Check missed approach altitude” at 100 fee above DA (H).
Correct Answer
D. “Check missed approach altitude” at 100 fee above DA (H).Explanation
The Flight Crew Training Manual lists additional callouts for category II approaches, but "Check missed approach altitude" at 100 feet above DA (H) is not one of them.Rate this question:
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- 28.
During a category II approach, at 500 feet above field elevation you notice there is no FLARE arm annunciation. What should you do?
- A.
Continue the approach.
- B.
Select the other autopilot switch and continue the approach
- C.
Disengaged the autopilot and execute a manual landing or immediately execute a manual go-around.
- D.
All of these option are correct.
Correct Answer
C. Disengaged the autopilot and execute a manual landing or immediately execute a manual go-around.Explanation
In a category II approach, the FLARE arm annunciation is a critical indication that the autopilot is ready to initiate the flare maneuver for landing. If there is no FLARE arm annunciation at 500 feet above field elevation, it indicates a malfunction or failure of the autopilot system. In such a situation, it is necessary to disengage the autopilot and take control manually to either execute a manual landing or perform a go-around. This ensures the safety of the aircraft and the passengers on board.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which statement about using autoland on contaminated runways is correct?
- A.
The ROLLOUT mode has been fully demonstrated to be capable on contaminated runways.
- B.
The pilot must be prepared to disengaged the autopilot and take over manually should ROLLOUT directional control become inadequate.
- C.
The ROLLOUT mode uses only rudder for directional control.
- D.
The ROLLOUT mode uses nose wheel steering and main gear tracking for directional control.
Correct Answer
B. The pilot must be prepared to disengaged the autopilot and take over manually should ROLLOUT directional control become inadequate.Explanation
The correct answer is that the pilot must be prepared to disengage the autopilot and take over manually should ROLLOUT directional control become inadequate. This means that if the autopilot is unable to maintain proper control during the rollout phase on a contaminated runway, the pilot must be ready to intervene and take over the control of the aircraft manually.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which statement is correct about using RVR when it is reported for the landing runway?
- A.
It shall be used regardless of reported meteorological visibility.
- B.
It shall not be used for only Category II and IIIA approaches.
- C.
It less meaningful than meteorological visibility
- D.
It should be disregarded.
Correct Answer
A. It shall be used regardless of reported meteorological visibility.Explanation
The correct answer is "It shall be used regardless of reported meteorological visibility." This means that regardless of the visibility reported by meteorological instruments, the RVR (Runway Visual Range) should still be used. RVR provides information about the distance a pilot can see along the runway, which is important for safe landing. It is a separate measurement from meteorological visibility and should not be disregarded.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Prior to arming the APP mode on the MCP an ILS approach, which action is not required?
- A.
The ILS tuned and identified.
- B.
The aircraft on an intercept heading less than 120 degrees
- C.
Both localizer and glideslope pointers displayed and in the proper position.
- D.
The aircraft is under radar control.
Correct Answer
D. The aircraft is under radar control.Explanation
The correct answer is that the aircraft is under radar control. This means that it is not necessary for the aircraft to be under radar control in order to arm the APP mode on the MCP for an ILS approach. The other actions mentioned, such as tuning and identifying the ILS, being on an intercept heading less than 120 degrees, and having both localizer and glideslope pointers displayed and in the proper position, are all required before arming the APP mode.Rate this question:
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- 32.
At 500 feet above field elevation, in IFR conditions on an autoland ILS approach, the pilot not flying will make which of the following callouts according to the Flight Crew Training Manual?
- A.
“FLARE ARMED”
- B.
“FLARE ENABLED”
- C.
“LAND 3” or “LAND 2”, or “NO AUTOLAND”
- D.
“500 FEET”
Correct Answer
C. “LAND 3” or “LAND 2”, or “NO AUTOLAND”Explanation
At 500 feet above field elevation, in IFR conditions on an autoland ILS approach, the pilot not flying will make the callout "LAND 3" or "LAND 2", or "NO AUTOLAND". This callout is made to inform the pilot flying and other crew members about the status of the autoland system. "LAND 3" indicates that the autoland system is engaged and in control of the aircraft for landing. "LAND 2" indicates that the autoland system is engaged, but with a lower level of redundancy. "NO AUTOLAND" indicates that the autoland system is not engaged and the pilot flying will manually control the landing.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Upon reaching DA (H) or MDA in IFR conditions, the pilot not flying calls “minimums” and the appropriate runway environment reference, if applicable. At this time, what does the pilot flying say?
- A.
“TALLY HO” or “ABORTING APPROACH”
- B.
“LANDING” or “GO AROUND”
- C.
“STOPPING” or “OVERSHOOTING” “STOPPING” or “OVERSHOOTING” “STOPPING” or “OVERSHOOTING”
- D.
“VISUAL” or “ON THE GO”
Correct Answer
B. “LANDING” or “GO AROUND”Explanation
When the pilot not flying calls "minimums" and the appropriate runway environment reference, it indicates that the aircraft has reached the decision altitude (DA) or minimum descent altitude (MDA) in instrument flight rules (IFR) conditions. At this point, the pilot flying would respond by saying "LANDING" if they have a visual of the runway and intend to continue with the landing. Alternatively, they would say "GO AROUND" if they do not have a clear visual of the runway or if they decide to abort the approach for any other reason.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which attribute of a stabilized approach by 1,000 feet above the airport, as listed below, is not correct?
- A.
Aircraft speed is not more than VREF+10 knots or less than VREF.
- B.
Aircraft is in the correct landing configuration.
- C.
Sink rate is not greater than 1000fpm.
- D.
All checklists except the Landing checklist are complete.
Correct Answer
D. All checklists except the Landing checklist are complete.Explanation
The correct answer is "All checklists except the Landing checklist are complete." This means that all the checklists, except for the Landing checklist, should be completed by the time the aircraft is 1,000 feet above the airport. This ensures that all necessary preparations and procedures have been followed before landing.Rate this question:
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