B777 TKE EXAM

1. Which MCP actions are accomplished during preflight?

Turn off left and right flight directors and set initial heading

Arm left and right autothrottle, turn left and right FD switches ON, check Bank Limit Switch in AUTO.

Disarm right autothrottle and set initial heading. Set initial altitude.

Engage autopilot, Arm LOC and APP and set initial altitude.

The correct answer is Arm left and right autothrottle, turn left and right FD switches ON, check Bank Limit Switch in AUTO. This is because during preflight, the autothrottle should be armed and the flight director switches should be turned on. Additionally, the Bank Limit Switch should be checked and set to AUTO. The other options mentioned do not include all of these actions that are typically accomplished during preflight.

Explanation

The correct answer is Arm left and right autothrottle, turn left and right FD switches ON, check Bank Limit Switch in AUTO. This is because during preflight, the autothrottle should be armed and the flight director switches should be turned on. Additionally, the Bank Limit Switch should be checked and set to AUTO. The other options mentioned do not include all of these actions that are typically accomplished during preflight.

2. During preflight, what position should the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches and LDG ALT selector be in?

OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pulled OUT

OUTFLOW VALVE switches in OFF and LDG ALT selector pushed IN

OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pushed IN

OUTFLOW VALVE switches in MAN and LDG ALT selector pushed IN

During preflight, the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches should be in the AUTO position and the LDG ALT selector should be pushed IN. This configuration ensures that the outflow valves will automatically regulate the cabin pressure during flight, and the landing altitude will be set to the current airport altitude.

Explanation

During preflight, the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches should be in the AUTO position and the LDG ALT selector should be pushed IN. This configuration ensures that the outflow valves will automatically regulate the cabin pressure during flight, and the landing altitude will be set to the current airport altitude.

3. What flight deck lights are turned on by the STORM light switch?

All flight deck lights are illuminated bright.

All external airplane lights are illuminated bright.

Landing lights, navigation lights, strobe lights, and wing lights are automatically illuminated.

The STORM light switch is responsible for turning on the flight deck aisle stand, glareshield, and instrument flood lights, dome lights, and illuminated indicator lights at maximum brightness. This means that when the STORM light switch is activated, these specific lights will be illuminated brightly.

Explanation

The STORM light switch is responsible for turning on the flight deck aisle stand, glareshield, and instrument flood lights, dome lights, and illuminated indicator lights at maximum brightness. This means that when the STORM light switch is activated, these specific lights will be illuminated brightly.

4. Why should the CABIN TEMP control be set to mid range position?

To set the maximum temperature in any zone

To allow full temperature range adjustment on cabin attendant panel

C. To prevent cabin overheat during low altitude flight

D. To set the actual temperature in cabin zones A-F

Setting the CABIN TEMP control to the mid-range position allows for full temperature range adjustment on the cabin attendant panel. This means that the temperature can be adjusted to the desired level in each zone of the cabin. It does not specifically set the maximum temperature or prevent cabin overheat during low altitude flight, nor does it set the actual temperature in cabin zones A-F.

Explanation

Setting the CABIN TEMP control to the mid-range position allows for full temperature range adjustment on the cabin attendant panel. This means that the temperature can be adjusted to the desired level in each zone of the cabin. It does not specifically set the maximum temperature or prevent cabin overheat during low altitude flight, nor does it set the actual temperature in cabin zones A-F.

5. What does the EICAS message NO LAND 3 mean when FLARE and ROLLOUT
armed are displayed on the FMA?

The autopilot disconnect switch has been pushed.

The autopilot is inoperative. Manual landing is required.

The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland.

NO LAND 3 means you are more than 3 miles from land.

The EICAS message NO LAND 3 means that the autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland. This means that the system is not able to provide the necessary backup or redundancy for a triple channel autoland, indicating that it may not be safe to rely on the autopilot for landing.

Explanation

The EICAS message NO LAND 3 means that the autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland. This means that the system is not able to provide the necessary backup or redundancy for a triple channel autoland, indicating that it may not be safe to rely on the autopilot for landing.

6. What does the •SELCAL communication EICAS alert message indicate?

The selective calling system has failed.

A VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered.

. A cabin attendant is calling the flight deck.

An uplink has been received.

The correct answer indicates that the EICAS alert message is indicating that a VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered.

Explanation

The correct answer indicates that the EICAS alert message is indicating that a VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered.

7. Which statement about checklist overrides is correct?

To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key.

Closed loop steps cannot be overridden.

Steps that are overridden remain white.

To override a checklist it must first be reset.

To override a checklist, you must first display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key.

Explanation

To override a checklist, you must first display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key.

8. Why does the flight deck receive air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin?

Conditioned air is ducted into the flight deck before the passenger cabin.

To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck.

To defog the forward windows.

To cool the equipment in the aisle stand.

The flight deck receives air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin to prevent smoke from entering the flight deck. By maintaining a higher pressure in the flight deck, any smoke that may be present in the passenger cabin is prevented from entering the flight deck area, ensuring the safety and visibility for the pilots.

Explanation

The flight deck receives air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin to prevent smoke from entering the flight deck. By maintaining a higher pressure in the flight deck, any smoke that may be present in the passenger cabin is prevented from entering the flight deck area, ensuring the safety and visibility for the pilots.

9. What does an illuminated flight interphone CALL light on the audio control panel indicate?

Another airplane is calling.

A ground crew technician is calling the flight deck.

Someone is calling the flight deck on VHF radio.

The FLT transmitter select switch is stuck in the ON position.

An illuminated flight interphone CALL light on the audio control panel indicates that a ground crew technician is calling the flight deck.

Explanation

An illuminated flight interphone CALL light on the audio control panel indicates that a ground crew technician is calling the flight deck.

10. How long will a WINDSHEAR warning on the PFD remain active?

Until windshear conditions are no longer detected.

Until the master warning light reset switch is pushed.

Until the GND PROX G/S caution light is pushed.

Until the landing gear are retracted.

A WINDSHEAR warning on the PFD will remain active until windshear conditions are no longer detected. This means that the warning will stay active as long as the aircraft is still experiencing windshear, which is a sudden change in wind speed and/or direction that can be hazardous to aircraft during takeoff, approach, or landing. Once the windshear conditions have passed and are no longer detected, the warning will deactivate.

Explanation

A WINDSHEAR warning on the PFD will remain active until windshear conditions are no longer detected. This means that the warning will stay active as long as the aircraft is still experiencing windshear, which is a sudden change in wind speed and/or direction that can be hazardous to aircraft during takeoff, approach, or landing. Once the windshear conditions have passed and are no longer detected, the warning will deactivate.

11. What does the MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP control do?

It removes power from the trim air system.

It causes the packs to provide air at an average mid temperature range. .

It allows the trim air valve to be operated manually

It removes control at the cabin attendant panel.

The MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP control allows the trim air valve to be operated manually.

Explanation

The MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP control allows the trim air valve to be operated manually.

12. What does the EICAS message ENG FUEL VALVE R indicate?

The engine fuel valve on the right engine is open.

Both the spar and the engine fuel valves on the right engine are commanded to the same position.

The spar or engine fuel valve on the right engine has not reached its commanded position.

The fuel filter bypass valve is not functioning.

The correct answer is that the spar or engine fuel valve on the right engine has not reached its commanded position. This means that there is an issue with the fuel valve on the right engine, as it has not fully opened or closed as it should according to the commands given. This could indicate a malfunction or failure in the fuel valve system, which would need to be addressed and fixed.

Explanation

The correct answer is that the spar or engine fuel valve on the right engine has not reached its commanded position. This means that there is an issue with the fuel valve on the right engine, as it has not fully opened or closed as it should according to the commands given. This could indicate a malfunction or failure in the fuel valve system, which would need to be addressed and fixed.

13. When does the autobrake RTO setting command maximum braking?

On the ground, with wheel speed above 45 knots and both thrust levers retarded to idle.

On the ground, When both thrust levers are retarded to idle.

On the ground, with wheel speed above 85 knots and both thrust levers retarded to idle.

On the ground, with maximum brake peddle pressure applied

The autobrake RTO setting commands maximum braking on the ground when the wheel speed is above 85 knots and both thrust levers are retarded to idle. This means that the autobrake system will apply the maximum amount of braking force in order to bring the aircraft to a stop as quickly as possible.

Explanation

The autobrake RTO setting commands maximum braking on the ground when the wheel speed is above 85 knots and both thrust levers are retarded to idle. This means that the autobrake system will apply the maximum amount of braking force in order to bring the aircraft to a stop as quickly as possible.

14. What does the EICAS message AUTOPILOT mean when an amber line is drawn through the pitch mode on the FMA?

The engaged autopilot has failed.

The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is operating in a degraded mode.

The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is disconnected.

The Autopilot does not have flight envelope protection.

The EICAS message AUTOPILOT with an amber line drawn through the pitch mode on the FMA indicates that the pitch mode of the autopilot has failed. However, the autopilot is still operational but in a degraded mode. This means that the autopilot may not be able to fully control the pitch of the aircraft, leading to reduced functionality and potentially requiring manual intervention from the pilot.

Explanation

The EICAS message AUTOPILOT with an amber line drawn through the pitch mode on the FMA indicates that the pitch mode of the autopilot has failed. However, the autopilot is still operational but in a degraded mode. This means that the autopilot may not be able to fully control the pitch of the aircraft, leading to reduced functionality and potentially requiring manual intervention from the pilot.

15. What is the operating condition of the nose gear landing lights when the NOSE LANDING light switch is ON but the nose landing gear is NOT down and locked?

The nose gear landing lights are illuminated.

The nose gear landing lights extend from the body outboard of the nose gear doors but remain extinguished.

The nose gear landing lights are illuminated if both main landing gear are down and locked.

The nose gear landing lights cannot illuminate when the nose landing gear is not down and locked.

The nose gear landing lights cannot illuminate when the nose landing gear is not down and locked. This means that even if the NOSE LANDING light switch is ON, the lights will not turn on if the nose landing gear is not properly extended and locked.

Explanation

The nose gear landing lights cannot illuminate when the nose landing gear is not down and locked. This means that even if the NOSE LANDING light switch is ON, the lights will not turn on if the nose landing gear is not properly extended and locked.

16. Is it possible to check at a door if the girt bar is attached to the floor fittings?

Yes, the girt bar indicator flags are colored black.

No, the girt bar indicator flags only indicate if the slide is usable.

Yes, the girt bar indicator flags are colored yellow.

No, the girt bar indicator is not visible.

The correct answer is Yes, the girt bar indicator flags are colored yellow. This suggests that it is possible to check at a door if the girt bar is attached to the floor fittings. The yellow color of the girt bar indicator flags indicates that they serve the purpose of indicating the attachment of the girt bar to the floor fittings.

Explanation

The correct answer is Yes, the girt bar indicator flags are colored yellow. This suggests that it is possible to check at a door if the girt bar is attached to the floor fittings. The yellow color of the girt bar indicator flags indicates that they serve the purpose of indicating the attachment of the girt bar to the floor fittings.

17. Which statement about the hydraulic systems is true?

Hydraulic fluid is supplied to each hydraulic pump from the single central reservoir

The demand pumps for the left and right systems are bleed air driven.

Flight control system components are distributed so that any one hydraulic system can provide adequate airplane controllability.

The left and right primary pumps are electric driven.

The correct answer states that flight control system components are distributed in such a way that any one hydraulic system can provide adequate airplane controllability. This means that even if one hydraulic system fails, the remaining system(s) can still maintain control of the airplane. This distribution of components ensures redundancy and enhances the safety and reliability of the hydraulic systems in controlling the aircraft.

Explanation

The correct answer states that flight control system components are distributed in such a way that any one hydraulic system can provide adequate airplane controllability. This means that even if one hydraulic system fails, the remaining system(s) can still maintain control of the airplane. This distribution of components ensures redundancy and enhances the safety and reliability of the hydraulic systems in controlling the aircraft.

18. In case of an emergency, open a passenger entry door from the inside by performing which of the following action?

Pulling the door handle fully up to the emergency position.

Pushing toe door handle fully down to the emergency position.

Rotating the door handle to the emergency position.

Rotating the door handle to the open position.

To open a passenger entry door from the inside in case of an emergency, the correct action is to rotate the door handle to the open position. This action will unlock the door and allow it to be opened.

Explanation

To open a passenger entry door from the inside in case of an emergency, the correct action is to rotate the door handle to the open position. This action will unlock the door and allow it to be opened.

19. What happens in flight when both transfer busses become unpowered?

The APU starts automatically, regardless of the APU selector position.

The RAT powers both transfer busses action.

No other power source is available so only the standby bus remains powered until pilot action

The APU must be manually started and connected to the transfer busses.

When both transfer busses become unpowered, the APU starts automatically, regardless of the APU selector position. This means that the APU will automatically provide power to the aircraft's systems, ensuring that there is still a power source available.

Explanation

When both transfer busses become unpowered, the APU starts automatically, regardless of the APU selector position. This means that the APU will automatically provide power to the aircraft's systems, ensuring that there is still a power source available.

20. When must an immediate missed approach must be executed?

When on an ILS approach and radio communication is lost.

When the navigation instruments show significant disagreement, but visual contact with the runway is made

When on an ILS approach, the localizer shows half scale deflection.

An immediate missed approach must be executed when there is a navigation radio or flight instrument failure that affects the ability to safely complete the approach in instrument conditions. This means that if there is a failure in the navigation equipment or flight instruments that would compromise the pilot's ability to navigate and safely land the aircraft, a missed approach should be initiated without delay.

Explanation

An immediate missed approach must be executed when there is a navigation radio or flight instrument failure that affects the ability to safely complete the approach in instrument conditions. This means that if there is a failure in the navigation equipment or flight instruments that would compromise the pilot's ability to navigate and safely land the aircraft, a missed approach should be initiated without delay.

21. Under what conditions may the flight deck number two windows be operated in flight?

The number two windows may not be opened in flight

The number two windows may be easily operated in flight at any speed if the airplane is unpressurized.

The number two windows may be opened in flight only at airspeeds above 250 kts.

The correct answer is that the number two windows may be operated in flight if the airplane is unpressurized and airspeed is below Vref + 80 kts. This means that the windows can be opened during flight only if the aircraft is not pressurized and the airspeed is below a certain threshold. It is important to ensure that the cabin pressure is regulated and that the airspeed is within the specified range to maintain the safety and integrity of the aircraft during flight.

Explanation

The correct answer is that the number two windows may be operated in flight if the airplane is unpressurized and airspeed is below Vref + 80 kts. This means that the windows can be opened during flight only if the aircraft is not pressurized and the airspeed is below a certain threshold. It is important to ensure that the cabin pressure is regulated and that the airspeed is within the specified range to maintain the safety and integrity of the aircraft during flight.

22. Which statement about the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) is most correct?

It displays airplane attitude, airspeed and ILS information.

It displays airplane attitude, heading and airspeed information.

It displays airplane attitude, altitude and ILS information.

It displays airplane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading and ILS information.

The Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) is designed to provide essential flight information to the pilot in case of a failure in the primary flight display. The most correct statement about the ISFD is that it displays airplane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading, and ILS (Instrument Landing System) information. This means that it provides the pilot with key data on the aircraft's position, speed, altitude, direction, and guidance information for precision instrument approaches. Having all of this information readily available on the ISFD ensures that the pilot can maintain situational awareness and make informed decisions during a flight.

Explanation

The Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) is designed to provide essential flight information to the pilot in case of a failure in the primary flight display. The most correct statement about the ISFD is that it displays airplane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading, and ILS (Instrument Landing System) information. This means that it provides the pilot with key data on the aircraft's position, speed, altitude, direction, and guidance information for precision instrument approaches. Having all of this information readily available on the ISFD ensures that the pilot can maintain situational awareness and make informed decisions during a flight.

23. During preflight with only APU electrical power in use, you note that all main and center tank fuel pump switches are OFF but the left forward pump PRESS light is not displayed. Are these indications correct if the APU is operating?

Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump.

Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished indicating the DC pump is on.

No. The right forward PRESS light should also be extinguished.

No. All of the PRESS lights should be extinguished when the fuel pumps are commanded off.

The correct answer is "Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump." This is because when the APU is operating, it automatically uses the left forward fuel pump and therefore the PRESS light for that pump is extinguished.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump." This is because when the APU is operating, it automatically uses the left forward fuel pump and therefore the PRESS light for that pump is extinguished.

24. When is the pitch limit indication displayed?

When the flaps are NOT up, or at slow speeds with the flaps up

Only when the flaps are NOT in the up position

If airspeed is close to maximum

After takeoff until passing 1000 feet.

The pitch limit indication is displayed when the flaps are NOT up, indicating that the aircraft is not in a configuration that allows for maximum pitch maneuverability. Additionally, the indication is also displayed at slow speeds with the flaps up, as the aircraft's maneuverability is limited in this situation as well.

Explanation

The pitch limit indication is displayed when the flaps are NOT up, indicating that the aircraft is not in a configuration that allows for maximum pitch maneuverability. Additionally, the indication is also displayed at slow speeds with the flaps up, as the aircraft's maneuverability is limited in this situation as well.

25. When is the landing altitude flag (LDG ALT) removed during preflight?

After landing altitude is set on the pressurization panel.

After the original airfield is entered on CDU route page

After correct local altimeter is set.

Only after takeoff.

The landing altitude flag (LDG ALT) is removed during preflight after the original airfield is entered on the CDU route page. This indicates that the aircraft's navigation system has been programmed with the correct information regarding the departure airport, including the altitude at which the aircraft will land.

Explanation

The landing altitude flag (LDG ALT) is removed during preflight after the original airfield is entered on the CDU route page. This indicates that the aircraft's navigation system has been programmed with the correct information regarding the departure airport, including the altitude at which the aircraft will land.

26. Which statement about Resets Menu Page is correct?

RESETS key resets all of the normal checklists.

RESETS key resets all of the non-normal checklists.

All checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET ALL key.

All checklists can be reset at once by using the NON- NORMAL MENU key followed by the RESET ALL key.

The correct answer states that all checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET ALL key. This means that the RESETS key is used to reset all checklists, both normal and non-normal, and the RESET ALL key is used to reset all checklists at once. This implies that the RESETS key can reset both normal and non-normal checklists, contradicting the other statements which state that the RESETS key only resets normal or non-normal checklists.

Explanation

The correct answer states that all checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET ALL key. This means that the RESETS key is used to reset all checklists, both normal and non-normal, and the RESET ALL key is used to reset all checklists at once. This implies that the RESETS key can reset both normal and non-normal checklists, contradicting the other statements which state that the RESETS key only resets normal or non-normal checklists.

27. Which statement is true regarding fuel crossfeed?

Crossfeed valves are normally open, providing fuel feed from tank to engine.

Although there are two valves, only one open crossfeed valve is required for successful crossfeed operation.

There is only one crossfeed valve even though there are two switches to control it.

Fuel crossfeed can only be accomplished in the air.

The statement that is true regarding fuel crossfeed is that although there are two valves, only one open crossfeed valve is required for successful crossfeed operation. This means that even though there are two switches to control the valves, only one valve needs to be open in order to allow fuel to flow from the tank to the engine. This is important for efficient fuel management during flight.

Explanation

The statement that is true regarding fuel crossfeed is that although there are two valves, only one open crossfeed valve is required for successful crossfeed operation. This means that even though there are two switches to control the valves, only one valve needs to be open in order to allow fuel to flow from the tank to the engine. This is important for efficient fuel management during flight.

28. When does LNAV automatically engage if selected during preflight?

At or above 50 feet when within 2.5 NM laterally from the active route leg.

When does LNAV automatically engage if selected during preflight?

Only at or above 50 feet on the departure route active leg.

LNAV is already active during takeoff.

LNAV automatically engages when the aircraft reaches or exceeds an altitude of 50 feet and is within a lateral distance of 2.5 nautical miles from the active route leg. This means that LNAV will not engage if the aircraft is below 50 feet or if it is outside the lateral range of the active route leg. It is important to note that LNAV is not active during takeoff and needs to be selected during preflight for it to engage automatically at the specified conditions.

Explanation

LNAV automatically engages when the aircraft reaches or exceeds an altitude of 50 feet and is within a lateral distance of 2.5 nautical miles from the active route leg. This means that LNAV will not engage if the aircraft is below 50 feet or if it is outside the lateral range of the active route leg. It is important to note that LNAV is not active during takeoff and needs to be selected during preflight for it to engage automatically at the specified conditions.

29. What precaution should be taken if a tail strike occurs during takeoff?

No special precautions are necessary.

The airplane should not be pressurized.

Pressurize the airplane to a lower cabin altitude.

The flight may continue normally, but an entry must be made in the maintenance log.

If a tail strike occurs during takeoff, the precaution that should be taken is to not pressurize the airplane. This is because a tail strike can cause damage to the structure of the aircraft, including the fuselage, and pressurizing the airplane could exacerbate any potential structural issues. Therefore, it is important to avoid pressurizing the airplane in order to ensure the safety of the flight.

Explanation

If a tail strike occurs during takeoff, the precaution that should be taken is to not pressurize the airplane. This is because a tail strike can cause damage to the structure of the aircraft, including the fuselage, and pressurizing the airplane could exacerbate any potential structural issues. Therefore, it is important to avoid pressurizing the airplane in order to ensure the safety of the flight.

30. Why should you minimize flight time at low altitude when the EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is displayed?

AFT and BULK cargo compartments may overheat.

Pack temperature would cause damage.

Electronic equipment and displays may fail.

Recirculation fan may not cool equipment adequately.

When the EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is displayed, it indicates that there is an issue with the cooling system of the aircraft's electronic equipment. This message serves as a warning that the equipment may overheat and fail if the flight time at low altitude is not minimized. Therefore, it is important to minimize flight time at low altitude to prevent the electronic equipment and displays from failing.

Explanation

When the EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is displayed, it indicates that there is an issue with the cooling system of the aircraft's electronic equipment. This message serves as a warning that the equipment may overheat and fail if the flight time at low altitude is not minimized. Therefore, it is important to minimize flight time at low altitude to prevent the electronic equipment and displays from failing.

31. Which of the following are maximum allowable wind speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations?

Headwind 30 knots

Tailwind 5 knots

Crosswind 38 knots

Crosswind 25 kts

The maximum allowable wind speed for landing weather minima predicted on autoland operations is a crosswind of 25 knots. This means that the aircraft can safely land with a maximum crosswind component of 25 knots. The other options, such as a headwind of 30 knots or a tailwind of 5 knots, are not relevant to the question as they are not specifically related to autoland operations.

Explanation

The maximum allowable wind speed for landing weather minima predicted on autoland operations is a crosswind of 25 knots. This means that the aircraft can safely land with a maximum crosswind component of 25 knots. The other options, such as a headwind of 30 knots or a tailwind of 5 knots, are not relevant to the question as they are not specifically related to autoland operations.

32. What is the level of urgency for a warning displayed on the PFD? (Example: ENG FAIL, PULL UP, or WINDSHEAR)

Requires immediate crew awareness and may require crew action be performed in a timely manner

Reminds the crew of the current state of manually or automatically configured airplane systems.

Requires crew awareness and may require that crew action be accomplished "as time permits."

Requires immediate crew awareness and immediate response, and is usually associated with flight path control.

The correct answer is "Requires immediate crew awareness and immediate response, and is usually associated with flight path control." This answer indicates that a warning displayed on the PFD (Primary Flight Display) requires the crew's immediate attention and immediate response. It suggests that the warning is typically related to flight path control, emphasizing the importance of taking immediate action to address the situation.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Requires immediate crew awareness and immediate response, and is usually associated with flight path control." This answer indicates that a warning displayed on the PFD (Primary Flight Display) requires the crew's immediate attention and immediate response. It suggests that the warning is typically related to flight path control, emphasizing the importance of taking immediate action to address the situation.

33. When does the ground crew call horn sound?

When hydraulics are pressurized.

In case of an APU fire.

Before starting engines

If the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative.

The ground crew calls horn sounds when the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative. This indicates that there is an issue with the cooling system and it needs attention or repair before the aircraft can proceed with its operations.

Explanation

The ground crew calls horn sounds when the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative. This indicates that there is an issue with the cooling system and it needs attention or repair before the aircraft can proceed with its operations.

34. When will the EICAS advisory message ANTI-ICE ON be displayed?

TAT above 10 degrees C, all ANTI-ICE selectors OFF and ice is NOT detected

TAT above 10 degrees C, any ANTI-ICE selector ON and ice is NOT detected

TAT below 10 degrees C, all ANTI-ICE selectors ON and ice is detected

TAT below 10 degrees C, any ANTI-ICE selector OFF and ice is NOT detected

The EICAS advisory message "ANTI-ICE ON" will be displayed when the Total Air Temperature (TAT) is above 10 degrees Celsius, any ANTI-ICE selector is ON, and ice is NOT detected. This means that the anti-ice system has been activated, but there is no indication of ice being present.

Explanation

The EICAS advisory message "ANTI-ICE ON" will be displayed when the Total Air Temperature (TAT) is above 10 degrees Celsius, any ANTI-ICE selector is ON, and ice is NOT detected. This means that the anti-ice system has been activated, but there is no indication of ice being present.

35. What automatic switching will occur if you start the APU with primary and secondary external power on the BUS TIE system?

The APU connects to the BUS TIE switches but does not power either main bus.

The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces secondary external power on the left main bus.

The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces primary external power.

The APU powers both main buses.

If the APU is started with both primary and secondary external power on the BUS TIE system, it will connect to the BUS TIE and replace the secondary external power on the left main bus. This means that the APU will take over the power supply for the left main bus, while the primary external power continues to supply power to the right main bus.

Explanation

If the APU is started with both primary and secondary external power on the BUS TIE system, it will connect to the BUS TIE and replace the secondary external power on the left main bus. This means that the APU will take over the power supply for the left main bus, while the primary external power continues to supply power to the right main bus.

36. What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are shut down?

The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged manually.

The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically.

The APU does NOT shut down automatically but the fire bottle discharges automatically.

The APU does NOT shut down automatically and the fire bottle must be discharged manually.

When an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are shut down, the APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically.

Explanation

When an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are shut down, the APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically.

37. When do the control wheel stabilizer trim switches control stabilizer movement directly?

All the time.

Only during approaches

Only on the ground and in the Secondary and Direct flight control modes

During engine out go-arounds

The control wheel stabilizer trim switches control stabilizer movement directly only on the ground and in the Secondary and Direct flight control modes. This means that the switches have the ability to directly adjust the position of the stabilizer during these specific conditions.

Explanation

The control wheel stabilizer trim switches control stabilizer movement directly only on the ground and in the Secondary and Direct flight control modes. This means that the switches have the ability to directly adjust the position of the stabilizer during these specific conditions.

38. What normally powers the 4 Transformer-rectifier units (TRUs)?

Ground service bus

Both AC transfer buses

Left and right main DC bus

APU battery

The correct answer is "Both AC transfer buses." The AC transfer buses are responsible for providing power to the transformer-rectifier units (TRUs). These TRUs convert the AC power from the transfer buses into DC power, which is then used to power various systems and equipment on the aircraft. Therefore, the AC transfer buses are the source of power for the TRUs.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Both AC transfer buses." The AC transfer buses are responsible for providing power to the transformer-rectifier units (TRUs). These TRUs convert the AC power from the transfer buses into DC power, which is then used to power various systems and equipment on the aircraft. Therefore, the AC transfer buses are the source of power for the TRUs.

39. When does RTO automatically apply maximum brake pressure?

When a thrust lever is retarded to idle.

When the speedbrake lever reaches the UP position.

When the thrust levers are retarded to idle above 85 knots

When the reverse thrust levers are raised to idle above 85 knots.

When the thrust levers are retarded to idle above 85 knots, the RTO (Rejected Takeoff) system automatically applies maximum brake pressure. This is a safety measure to quickly bring the aircraft to a stop in case of an aborted takeoff. By applying maximum brake pressure, the system helps to decelerate the aircraft as quickly as possible, reducing the risk of runway overrun or other potential hazards.

Explanation

When the thrust levers are retarded to idle above 85 knots, the RTO (Rejected Takeoff) system automatically applies maximum brake pressure. This is a safety measure to quickly bring the aircraft to a stop in case of an aborted takeoff. By applying maximum brake pressure, the system helps to decelerate the aircraft as quickly as possible, reducing the risk of runway overrun or other potential hazards.

40. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ground wind limits for doors?

38 knots while opening or closing, 45 knots while open

15 knots while opening or closing, 25 knots while open

40 knots while opening or closing, 65 knots while open

There are no ground wind Limits for doors

The correct answer is 40 knots while opening or closing, 65 knots while open. This means that the ground wind limits for doors are 40 knots when they are being opened or closed, and 65 knots when they are fully open. This suggests that there are specific wind speed limits that need to be adhered to when operating the doors to ensure safety and prevent damage.

Explanation

The correct answer is 40 knots while opening or closing, 65 knots while open. This means that the ground wind limits for doors are 40 knots when they are being opened or closed, and 65 knots when they are fully open. This suggests that there are specific wind speed limits that need to be adhered to when operating the doors to ensure safety and prevent damage.

41. When can the ground handling bus be powered?

On the ground, with either APU or external power available

Only when the APU is running while on the ground

Either on the ground or in flight, with APU power available.

On the ground, with the ground service switch selected.

The ground handling bus can be powered when the aircraft is on the ground and either the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) or external power is available. This means that the bus can receive power from either the APU or from an external power source while the aircraft is on the ground.

Explanation

The ground handling bus can be powered when the aircraft is on the ground and either the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) or external power is available. This means that the bus can receive power from either the APU or from an external power source while the aircraft is on the ground.

42. What action is required during preflight if the EICAS message LANDING ALTITUDE is displayed, with the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO?

Verify that a destination airport has been loaded in the FMC

Pull the LDG ALT selector OUT.

Verify the LDG ALT selector is in.

Verify that a destination airport has been loaded in the FMC and verify the LDG ALT selector is in.

If the EICAS message LANDING ALTITUDE is displayed and the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches are in AUTO, it is necessary to verify that a destination airport has been loaded in the FMC and also verify that the LDG ALT selector is in. This is because the LANDING ALTITUDE message indicates that the aircraft is approaching its landing altitude, and the FMC needs to have the correct destination airport information for accurate altitude calculations. Additionally, the LDG ALT selector needs to be in the correct position to ensure that the landing altitude is properly set.

Explanation

If the EICAS message LANDING ALTITUDE is displayed and the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches are in AUTO, it is necessary to verify that a destination airport has been loaded in the FMC and also verify that the LDG ALT selector is in. This is because the LANDING ALTITUDE message indicates that the aircraft is approaching its landing altitude, and the FMC needs to have the correct destination airport information for accurate altitude calculations. Additionally, the LDG ALT selector needs to be in the correct position to ensure that the landing altitude is properly set.

43. Following automatic deployment of the RAT due to system failures, what systems receive hydraulic power from the RAT?

Alternate gear extension system

Normal brakes (after landing and airspeed below 60 kts)

Primary flight control components normally powered by the center hydraulic system

All primary flight control components

The primary flight control components normally receive hydraulic power from the center hydraulic system.

Explanation

The primary flight control components normally receive hydraulic power from the center hydraulic system.

44. How can the aircrew retract the gear following alternate gear extension?

The landing gear lever must be in the down position when using the alternate gear extension system

After the landing gear is extended, the main gear doors close

The normal landing gear indications are displayed on EICAS

If the normal system is operating, select DN then UP

The correct answer suggests that if the normal landing gear system is operating, the aircrew should select the gear lever to the DN (down) position and then back to the UP (up) position in order to retract the gear following alternate gear extension. This indicates that the normal system is capable of controlling the gear retraction process and the aircrew should follow this procedure to ensure proper operation.

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that if the normal landing gear system is operating, the aircrew should select the gear lever to the DN (down) position and then back to the UP (up) position in order to retract the gear following alternate gear extension. This indicates that the normal system is capable of controlling the gear retraction process and the aircrew should follow this procedure to ensure proper operation.

45. What happens when the BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector is positioned to HIGH?

The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 7 degrees C or 45 degrees F.

The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 21 degrees C or 70degrees F.

The bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.

When the BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector is positioned to HIGH, the compartment temperature is automatically maintained at around 21 degrees C or 70 degrees F. Additionally, the bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.

Explanation

When the BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector is positioned to HIGH, the compartment temperature is automatically maintained at around 21 degrees C or 70 degrees F. Additionally, the bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.

46. What happens when the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid?

The EICAS message STAB GREENBAND displays.

The green band on the indicator turns amber.

The green band and the pointer are not displayed.

The CDU displays the VERIFY TRIM message in the scratchpad.

When the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid, the green band and the pointer are not displayed.

Explanation

When the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid, the green band and the pointer are not displayed.

47. Which fuel pumps are used for fuel jettison?

Left and right main tank fuel pumps and the center tank override pumps

Left and right main tank jettison pumps only

Left and right main tank jettison pumps and the center tank jettison/override pumps

All fuel pumps are used for fuel jettison.

The correct answer is "Left and right main tank jettison pumps and the center tank jettison/override pumps." This means that the fuel jettison process involves using the left and right main tank jettison pumps, as well as the center tank jettison/override pumps. These pumps are specifically designed to remove fuel from the respective tanks during the jettison procedure.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Left and right main tank jettison pumps and the center tank jettison/override pumps." This means that the fuel jettison process involves using the left and right main tank jettison pumps, as well as the center tank jettison/override pumps. These pumps are specifically designed to remove fuel from the respective tanks during the jettison procedure.

48. When the Door Select Lever is in the red armed position, which of the following is correct?

The slide bar is attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for electrical emergency operation.

The slide bar is attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for pneumatic emergency operation.

The slide bar is not attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for normal operation.

The slide bar is attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for counterbalance emergency opening.

When the Door Select Lever is in the red armed position, it means that the door is selected for pneumatic emergency operation. In this position, the slide bar is attached to the floor fittings, indicating that the door is ready for emergency opening using pneumatic power. This allows for quick and efficient evacuation in case of an emergency situation.

Explanation

When the Door Select Lever is in the red armed position, it means that the door is selected for pneumatic emergency operation. In this position, the slide bar is attached to the floor fittings, indicating that the door is ready for emergency opening using pneumatic power. This allows for quick and efficient evacuation in case of an emergency situation.

49. What does the EICAS advisory message WINDOW HEAT indicate?

The backup window heat system is inoperative

The windows are using back up heat.

Two or more window heat faults have occurred.

A single overheat or fault has occurred.

The EICAS advisory message WINDOW HEAT indicates that two or more window heat faults have occurred. This means that there are issues with the window heating system, which is responsible for preventing ice formation on the windows. Multiple faults suggest that there are significant problems with the system, and it may not be functioning properly.

Explanation

The EICAS advisory message WINDOW HEAT indicates that two or more window heat faults have occurred. This means that there are issues with the window heating system, which is responsible for preventing ice formation on the windows. Multiple faults suggest that there are significant problems with the system, and it may not be functioning properly.

50. A high-low chime sounds and a •COMM communications alert message appears on EICAS. What action should you take?

Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message in the CDU scratchpad.

Push the FMC COMM function key on the CDU and view the uplinked message.

Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message on the MFD.

Push the transmitter select switch with the illuminated CALL light and respond to the call.

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Explanation

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51. For an automatic landing, which of the following statements is correct?

The maximum glideslope angle is 3.25 degrees and flap 30 must be used

The minimum glideslope angle is 2.5 degrees and autoland status must display LAND 3

Automatic landings can be made using flaps 20 or 30, with both engines operative or one engine inoperative.

Contact flight dispatch for the landing climbout performance dictated flap setting

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Explanation

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52. Which statement about the Fuel temperature display is true?

Fuel temperature is displayed on the PFD (primary flight display).

Fuel temperature display turns amber when approaching the fuel freeze point entered in the FMS CDU.

Fuel temperature in each fuel tank is displayed on the primary EICAS display.

Fuel temperature display turns amber during a fuel overheat condition.

The correct answer is that the fuel temperature display turns amber when approaching the fuel freeze point entered in the FMS CDU. This means that when the temperature of the fuel is getting close to the point where it could freeze, the display will change color to alert the pilot. This is important information for the pilot to have in order to prevent any issues with the fuel system due to freezing temperatures.

Explanation

The correct answer is that the fuel temperature display turns amber when approaching the fuel freeze point entered in the FMS CDU. This means that when the temperature of the fuel is getting close to the point where it could freeze, the display will change color to alert the pilot. This is important information for the pilot to have in order to prevent any issues with the fuel system due to freezing temperatures.

53. What does the EICAS Message CONFIG DOORS indicate?

At lease two doors are not closed, latched and locked and both thrust levers are in the takeoff range

The EICAS Message CONFIG DOORS indicates that a passenger entry door, forward cargo door, or aft cargo door is not closed, latched, and locked, and either engine's thrust lever is in the takeoff range on the ground. This message is important because it alerts the pilot to a potential safety issue, as the doors need to be securely closed before takeoff to ensure the aircraft's structural integrity and prevent any objects from being sucked out of the aircraft during flight. Therefore, it is crucial for the pilot to address this issue before proceeding with the flight.

Explanation

The EICAS Message CONFIG DOORS indicates that a passenger entry door, forward cargo door, or aft cargo door is not closed, latched, and locked, and either engine's thrust lever is in the takeoff range on the ground. This message is important because it alerts the pilot to a potential safety issue, as the doors need to be securely closed before takeoff to ensure the aircraft's structural integrity and prevent any objects from being sucked out of the aircraft during flight. Therefore, it is crucial for the pilot to address this issue before proceeding with the flight.

54. What is the minimum radio altitude for the deployment of the Speedbrakes in flight?

There are no operating limitations on speedbrake operation.

400 feet

1500 feet

700 feet

The correct answer is "There are no operating limitations on speedbrake operation." This means that there is no specific minimum radio altitude required for the deployment of speedbrakes in flight. The speedbrakes can be deployed at any altitude without any restrictions or limitations.

Explanation

The correct answer is "There are no operating limitations on speedbrake operation." This means that there is no specific minimum radio altitude required for the deployment of speedbrakes in flight. The speedbrakes can be deployed at any altitude without any restrictions or limitations.

55. Which of the following does not display the Secondary Engine Indications?

A secondary engine Parameter is exceeded

The displays initially receive electrical power

A Fuel Control switch is moved to CUTOFF on the ground.

A Fuel Control switch is moved to CUTOFF in flight.

Moving the Fuel Control switch to CUTOFF on the ground does not display the Secondary Engine Indications. This is because the Secondary Engine Indications are only displayed when a secondary engine parameter is exceeded, or when the displays initially receive electrical power. Moving the Fuel Control switch to CUTOFF on the ground does not trigger either of these conditions, so the Secondary Engine Indications are not displayed.

Explanation

Moving the Fuel Control switch to CUTOFF on the ground does not display the Secondary Engine Indications. This is because the Secondary Engine Indications are only displayed when a secondary engine parameter is exceeded, or when the displays initially receive electrical power. Moving the Fuel Control switch to CUTOFF on the ground does not trigger either of these conditions, so the Secondary Engine Indications are not displayed.

56. Before a normal ground start, the right center tank pump PRESS light is illuminated however, the EICAS message FUEL PUMP CENTER R is not displayed. Is this a normal indication?

Yes, one pump is electrically load shed and the message is inhibited.

Yes, center tank fuel is not used during engine start and the message is inhibited.

No, the EICAS message is never inhibited.

No, the EICAS message will be displayed after a short sensing delay

During a normal ground start, one of the center tank pumps is electrically load shed to prevent excessive fuel flow. This causes the right center tank pump PRESS light to be illuminated. However, the EICAS message FUEL PUMP CENTER R is inhibited and not displayed. Therefore, it is a normal indication for the right center tank pump PRESS light to be illuminated while the EICAS message is not displayed.

Explanation

During a normal ground start, one of the center tank pumps is electrically load shed to prevent excessive fuel flow. This causes the right center tank pump PRESS light to be illuminated. However, the EICAS message FUEL PUMP CENTER R is inhibited and not displayed. Therefore, it is a normal indication for the right center tank pump PRESS light to be illuminated while the EICAS message is not displayed.

57. How are the main AC busses powered if the right engine is started with the APU powering the left bus system and external power powering the right bus system?

External power continues to supply the right main bus.

The right engine generator automatically powers both main busses.

The right engine generator automatically powers the right main bus.

The right engine generator automatically powers the left main bus.

The right engine generator automatically powers the right main bus. This means that when the right engine is started with the APU powering the left bus system and external power powering the right bus system, the right engine generator will provide power to the right main bus. This ensures that both main buses are powered and functioning properly.

Explanation

The right engine generator automatically powers the right main bus. This means that when the right engine is started with the APU powering the left bus system and external power powering the right bus system, the right engine generator will provide power to the right main bus. This ensures that both main buses are powered and functioning properly.

58. Which statement is correct concerning the AFDS status annunciation?

Below 200 feet it can change from LAND 3 to LAND 2.

Below 500 feet, changes in autoland status are inhibited.

Below 200 feet, changes in autoland status are inhibited other than a transition to NO AUTOLAND.

Below 500 feet, changes in autoland status are inhibited other than a transition to NO AUTOLAND.

Below 200 feet, changes in autoland status are inhibited other than a transition to NO AUTOLAND. This means that once the aircraft descends below 200 feet, the autoland status cannot be changed to any other mode except for transitioning to NO AUTOLAND. This restriction ensures that the aircraft remains in a stable and controlled landing configuration during critical phases of the approach and landing. Changes in autoland status can still occur above 200 feet, but below this altitude, the only allowed change is transitioning to NO AUTOLAND.

Explanation

Below 200 feet, changes in autoland status are inhibited other than a transition to NO AUTOLAND. This means that once the aircraft descends below 200 feet, the autoland status cannot be changed to any other mode except for transitioning to NO AUTOLAND. This restriction ensures that the aircraft remains in a stable and controlled landing configuration during critical phases of the approach and landing. Changes in autoland status can still occur above 200 feet, but below this altitude, the only allowed change is transitioning to NO AUTOLAND.

59. Which statement is not correct concerning stabilizer trim?

The green band on the stabilizer position indicator shows the acceptable range for takeoff.

Activating the stabilizer trim switches on the control wheel disengages the autopilot.

As airspeed increases, trim rate decreases.

You can use the pitch trim switches on the ground to set the trim.

The statement that activating the stabilizer trim switches on the control wheel disengages the autopilot is incorrect. Activating the stabilizer trim switches does not disengage the autopilot. The autopilot and stabilizer trim are separate systems and can be operated independently.

Explanation

The statement that activating the stabilizer trim switches on the control wheel disengages the autopilot is incorrect. Activating the stabilizer trim switches does not disengage the autopilot. The autopilot and stabilizer trim are separate systems and can be operated independently.

60. What are the types of TCAS traffic alerts?

Proximate, traffic advisory, resolution advisory, and other

Other advisory, proximate advisory, traffic advisory, traffic resolution

None, approximate, traffic resolution, other advisory

TA/RA, TA ONLY, proximate, other

The correct answer is "Proximate, traffic advisory, resolution advisory, and other." This is because these are the types of TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) traffic alerts that are commonly used in aviation. Proximate alerts are given when there is a potential conflict with another aircraft in the vicinity. Traffic advisory alerts provide information about nearby aircraft that may pose a risk. Resolution advisory alerts provide guidance on how to avoid a potential collision. "Other" refers to any additional types of alerts that may be used in specific situations.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Proximate, traffic advisory, resolution advisory, and other." This is because these are the types of TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) traffic alerts that are commonly used in aviation. Proximate alerts are given when there is a potential conflict with another aircraft in the vicinity. Traffic advisory alerts provide information about nearby aircraft that may pose a risk. Resolution advisory alerts provide guidance on how to avoid a potential collision. "Other" refers to any additional types of alerts that may be used in specific situations.

61. Which of the following is not a condition that allows an excessive Localizer deviation alert to occur?

Low radio altitude

Autopilot or Flight Director engaged

Incorrect ILS frequency and course selected

LOC roll mode engaged

An excessive Localizer deviation alert occurs when the aircraft deviates significantly from the localizer course during an ILS approach. This alert is triggered by certain conditions. Low radio altitude, autopilot or flight director engagement, and LOC roll mode engagement are all conditions that can cause an excessive Localizer deviation alert. However, selecting an incorrect ILS frequency and course does not directly contribute to this alert.

Explanation

An excessive Localizer deviation alert occurs when the aircraft deviates significantly from the localizer course during an ILS approach. This alert is triggered by certain conditions. Low radio altitude, autopilot or flight director engagement, and LOC roll mode engagement are all conditions that can cause an excessive Localizer deviation alert. However, selecting an incorrect ILS frequency and course does not directly contribute to this alert.

62. What does the EICAS Message MAIN GEAR BRACE L indicate?

The left main gear is not down and locked

A brace on the left main gear is unlocked.

Both drag and side braces on the left main gear are not locked.

A main gear brace remains locked during attempted gear retraction.

The EICAS Message MAIN GEAR BRACE L indicates that a brace on the left main gear is unlocked.

Explanation

The EICAS Message MAIN GEAR BRACE L indicates that a brace on the left main gear is unlocked.

63. Which statement about the Landing Gear system is not correct?

Air/ground sensing logic signals come from the nose wheel strut.

With the landing gear retracted and all doors closed, the landing gear hydraulic system is automatically depressurized.

The landing free-fall without hydraulic power to the locked position

The landing gear lever position has no effect on landing gear alternate extension.

The statement "Air/ground sensing logic signals come from the nose wheel strut" is incorrect. The air/ground sensing logic signals actually come from the main landing gear struts, not the nose wheel strut.

Explanation

The statement "Air/ground sensing logic signals come from the nose wheel strut" is incorrect. The air/ground sensing logic signals actually come from the main landing gear struts, not the nose wheel strut.

64. After application of de-icing fluids to the exterior of the airplane, how long should you wait before restoring normal Engine and APU bleed air operation?

Approximately 1 minute

3 minutes

5 minutes

None, normal bleed air operation is allowed during de-icing procedures.

After the application of de-icing fluids to the exterior of the airplane, it is recommended to wait for approximately 1 minute before restoring normal Engine and APU bleed air operation. This waiting period allows the de-icing fluids to properly disperse and ensures that the engine and APU are not affected by any residual fluids. Waiting for this short period of time helps to maintain the safety and efficiency of the aircraft's systems.

Explanation

After the application of de-icing fluids to the exterior of the airplane, it is recommended to wait for approximately 1 minute before restoring normal Engine and APU bleed air operation. This waiting period allows the de-icing fluids to properly disperse and ensures that the engine and APU are not affected by any residual fluids. Waiting for this short period of time helps to maintain the safety and efficiency of the aircraft's systems.

65. Select the ones you like

Option1

Option2

Option3

Option4

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Explanation

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66. What does the DET FIRE CARGO AFT EICAS message indicate?

A fire has been detected in the aft cargo compartment.

There is a detection zone fault in the smoke detector for the aft cargo compartment.

The aft cargo fire heat sensor is inoperative

Fire detection for the aft cargo compartment is not available.

The DET FIRE CARGO AFT EICAS message indicates that the fire detection system for the aft cargo compartment is not functioning properly. This means that if there is a fire in the aft cargo compartment, it may not be detected by the system. This is a critical issue as it could lead to a dangerous situation if a fire were to occur and go unnoticed.

Explanation

The DET FIRE CARGO AFT EICAS message indicates that the fire detection system for the aft cargo compartment is not functioning properly. This means that if there is a fire in the aft cargo compartment, it may not be detected by the system. This is a critical issue as it could lead to a dangerous situation if a fire were to occur and go unnoticed.

67. When will the FMC not automatically sequence the active waypoint in flight?

When more than 21 NM off the active route and not on an offset

When more than 2.5 NM off the active route and not on an offset.

When passing over the waypoint in HDG SEL

When passing over the PROCEDURE HOLD waypoint on an approach.

The FMC will not automatically sequence the active waypoint in flight when the aircraft is more than 21 NM off the active route and not on an offset. This means that if the aircraft deviates significantly from the planned route and is not following any offset instructions, the FMC will not automatically move on to the next waypoint. The pilot will have to manually select the next waypoint or make the necessary adjustments to get back on track.

Explanation

The FMC will not automatically sequence the active waypoint in flight when the aircraft is more than 21 NM off the active route and not on an offset. This means that if the aircraft deviates significantly from the planned route and is not following any offset instructions, the FMC will not automatically move on to the next waypoint. The pilot will have to manually select the next waypoint or make the necessary adjustments to get back on track.

68. What does the EICAS message SGL SOURCE ILS indicate?

Both PFDs and NDs are using the same source of ILS information

Only one ILS receiver is tuned.

Both PFDs and NDs are using the same source of air data information.

A single source of display information is used by some or all display units.

The EICAS message "SGL SOURCE ILS" indicates that both the Primary Flight Displays (PFDs) and Navigation Displays (NDs) are using the same source of Instrument Landing System (ILS) information. This means that the ILS receiver is tuned to only one frequency, and this information is being shared and used by both the PFDs and NDs. This ensures consistency and accuracy in the ILS information displayed on these instruments.

Explanation

The EICAS message "SGL SOURCE ILS" indicates that both the Primary Flight Displays (PFDs) and Navigation Displays (NDs) are using the same source of Instrument Landing System (ILS) information. This means that the ILS receiver is tuned to only one frequency, and this information is being shared and used by both the PFDs and NDs. This ensures consistency and accuracy in the ILS information displayed on these instruments.

69. If the left engine fails at 90 knots during the takeoff roll, what alerts are presented to the aircrew?

Mater Caution lights, beeper, and Amber ENG FAIL L EICAS message are presented.

None, ENG FAIL alerts are inhibited at 65 knots.

Voice annunciation "Engine Fail", Master Warning lights, and red ENG FAIL message on both PFD's.

None. ENG FAIL alerts are inhibited at 80 knots.

If the left engine fails at 90 knots during the takeoff roll, the aircrew will be alerted with a voice annunciation saying "Engine Fail", along with the activation of the Master Warning lights and a red ENG FAIL message appearing on both Primary Flight Displays (PFD's). This alert system is designed to provide immediate and clear notification to the aircrew about the engine failure, ensuring they can take appropriate actions to handle the situation.

Explanation

If the left engine fails at 90 knots during the takeoff roll, the aircrew will be alerted with a voice annunciation saying "Engine Fail", along with the activation of the Master Warning lights and a red ENG FAIL message appearing on both Primary Flight Displays (PFD's). This alert system is designed to provide immediate and clear notification to the aircrew about the engine failure, ensuring they can take appropriate actions to handle the situation.

70. During center hydraulic system non-normal operation, which statement is correct when center system quantity is sensed to be low and airspeed is greater than 60 knots?

The isolation valves close to isolate the flight controls from the center system.

Nose gear actuation and steering are isolated.

Main gear actuation and steering are isolated.

Thrust reversers are isolated.

During center hydraulic system non-normal operation, when the center system quantity is sensed to be low and airspeed is greater than 60 knots, the correct statement is that nose gear actuation and steering are isolated. This means that the hydraulic system is designed to isolate the nose gear actuation and steering functions in such a situation, ensuring that they are not affected by the low quantity of hydraulic fluid in the center system. This is an important safety measure to maintain control and maneuverability of the aircraft.

Explanation

During center hydraulic system non-normal operation, when the center system quantity is sensed to be low and airspeed is greater than 60 knots, the correct statement is that nose gear actuation and steering are isolated. This means that the hydraulic system is designed to isolate the nose gear actuation and steering functions in such a situation, ensuring that they are not affected by the low quantity of hydraulic fluid in the center system. This is an important safety measure to maintain control and maneuverability of the aircraft.

71. What will occur if a single IDG is powering both buses, and the PRIMARY EXTERNAL POWER switch is selected ON?

Primary external power connects to both busses and the IDG power source is removed.

Primary external power connects to the bus which is normally powered by the non-operating IDG. .

The single IDG will continue to power both busses

External power cannot be applied in this situation.

If a single IDG is powering both buses and the PRIMARY EXTERNAL POWER switch is selected ON, the primary external power will connect to both buses and the IDG power source will be removed. This means that the single IDG will no longer power both buses and external power will be used instead.

Explanation

If a single IDG is powering both buses and the PRIMARY EXTERNAL POWER switch is selected ON, the primary external power will connect to both buses and the IDG power source will be removed. This means that the single IDG will no longer power both buses and external power will be used instead.

72. Pushing the TOGA switch after takeoff with LNAV and VNAV engaged and the flaps not up causes which of the following conditions?

LNAV and VNAV remain engaged, the autothrottle engages in THR REF and the takeoff thrust derates are removed.

The AFDS modes change to TOGA and the autothrottle engages in THR REF and the takeoff thrust derates remains unchanged.

The AFDS modes change to TOGA, the autothrottle engages in THR REF and the takeoff thrust derates are removed.

LNAV and VNAV remain engaged, the autothrottle engages in THR REF and the takeoff thrust derates remains unchanged.

Pushing the TOGA switch after takeoff with LNAV and VNAV engaged and the flaps not up will result in LNAV and VNAV remaining engaged. Additionally, the autothrottle will engage in THR REF, meaning it will maintain the thrust reference for takeoff. The takeoff thrust derates, which are reductions in thrust used during takeoff, will be removed.

Explanation

Pushing the TOGA switch after takeoff with LNAV and VNAV engaged and the flaps not up will result in LNAV and VNAV remaining engaged. Additionally, the autothrottle will engage in THR REF, meaning it will maintain the thrust reference for takeoff. The takeoff thrust derates, which are reductions in thrust used during takeoff, will be removed.

73. Which statement is not correct concerning the PWS Alert GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD?

Windshear location on the ND is too close to be displayed in any mode.

The message is enabled during approach below 1200 feet radio altitude.

A red WINDSHEAR message is displayed on both PFDs.

Windshear is predicted within 1.5 miles and directly ahead of the airplane.

The statement "Windshear location on the ND is too close to be displayed in any mode" is not correct. The windshear location on the Navigation Display (ND) can be displayed in certain modes, such as the map mode or the expanded mode.

Explanation

The statement "Windshear location on the ND is too close to be displayed in any mode" is not correct. The windshear location on the Navigation Display (ND) can be displayed in certain modes, such as the map mode or the expanded mode.

74. Which of the following does not happen when the Fuel Control switch is placed to RUN with Autostart ON?

The engine fuel valve is armed

The spar fuel valve is armed.

The engine ignitor(s) is/are armed.

The EEC opens the valve and turns on the ignitor(s) when required.

When the Fuel Control switch is placed to RUN with Autostart ON, the engine fuel valve is armed, the engine ignitor(s) is/are armed, and the EEC opens the valve and turns on the ignitor(s) when required. However, the spar fuel valve is not armed.

Explanation

When the Fuel Control switch is placed to RUN with Autostart ON, the engine fuel valve is armed, the engine ignitor(s) is/are armed, and the EEC opens the valve and turns on the ignitor(s) when required. However, the spar fuel valve is not armed.

75. Which statement about a manual engine start is correct?

A manual start is possible with the Autostart system switch in the ON position.

Manual start procedures are part of the normal Engine Start procedure

The EEC controls when fuel is first provided to the engine.

The correct statement about a manual engine start is that the EICAS message ENG AUTOSTART is displayed if the fuel control switch is moved to RUN before the rpm specified in the manual start procedure. This indicates that the engine is starting manually and not using the Autostart system.

Explanation

The correct statement about a manual engine start is that the EICAS message ENG AUTOSTART is displayed if the fuel control switch is moved to RUN before the rpm specified in the manual start procedure. This indicates that the engine is starting manually and not using the Autostart system.

76. Which of the following is not a stall protection feature?

The out-of-trim forces increase above normal for a condition above the minimum maneuver speed.

The pilot must apply continuous aft column force to maintain airspeed below the maneuvering speed.

Stab trim is inhibitied in the nose up direction at approximately the minimum maneuvering speed.

Use of alternate pitch trim levers reduces the column forces below the minimum maneuvering speed.

The use of alternate pitch trim levers does not reduce the column forces below the minimum maneuvering speed.

Explanation

The use of alternate pitch trim levers does not reduce the column forces below the minimum maneuvering speed.

77. During Rapid depressurization checklist recall steps, when is the passenger oxygen switch is activated?

Cabin altitude exceeds 15,000 feet

Cabin altitude is 12,500 feet or lower

Cabin altitude is 10,000 feet

Cabin altitude is uncontrollable

The passenger oxygen switch is activated when the cabin altitude is uncontrollable. This means that the cabin altitude is at a level where it cannot be maintained or controlled within a safe range. In such a situation, activating the passenger oxygen switch ensures that the passengers have access to oxygen to prevent hypoxia or other health issues due to lack of oxygen at high altitudes.

Explanation

The passenger oxygen switch is activated when the cabin altitude is uncontrollable. This means that the cabin altitude is at a level where it cannot be maintained or controlled within a safe range. In such a situation, activating the passenger oxygen switch ensures that the passengers have access to oxygen to prevent hypoxia or other health issues due to lack of oxygen at high altitudes.

78. What does the EICAS Message SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS indicate?

Both PFDs are using the same source for radio altitude display.

Both PFDs are receiving air data from the same single channel source.

Both PFDs are using the same source for flight director information.

A single source of display information is used by some or all display units.

The EICAS Message SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS indicates that a single source of display information is being used by some or all display units. This means that the information displayed on the units is coming from a single source, rather than multiple sources.

Explanation

The EICAS Message SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS indicates that a single source of display information is being used by some or all display units. This means that the information displayed on the units is coming from a single source, rather than multiple sources.

79. At 500 feet above field elevation, in IFR conditions on an autoland ILS approach,the pilot not flying will make which of the following callouts according to the Flight Crew Training Manual?

"FLARE ARMED"

"FLARE ENABLED"

"LAND 3" or "LAND 2", or "NO AUTOLAND"

"500 FEET"

The correct answer is "LAND 3" or "LAND 2", or "NO AUTOLAND". At 500 feet above field elevation, the pilot not flying will make a callout to indicate the status of the autoland system. If the autoland system is engaged and functioning properly, the callout will be "LAND 3" or "LAND 2" depending on the category of the approach. If the autoland system is not engaged or not available, the callout will be "NO AUTOLAND". This callout is important for situational awareness and to ensure that the correct landing procedures are followed.

Explanation

The correct answer is "LAND 3" or "LAND 2", or "NO AUTOLAND". At 500 feet above field elevation, the pilot not flying will make a callout to indicate the status of the autoland system. If the autoland system is engaged and functioning properly, the callout will be "LAND 3" or "LAND 2" depending on the category of the approach. If the autoland system is not engaged or not available, the callout will be "NO AUTOLAND". This callout is important for situational awareness and to ensure that the correct landing procedures are followed.

80. What components make up the Standby Electrical System?

The main battery, the standby inverter, the APU battery, the L TRU and R TRU

The main battery, the standby inverter, the RAT generator amd its associated generator control unit

The main battery, the standby inverter, the L TRU and R TRU

The correct answer is the main battery, the standby inverter, the RAT generator and its associated generator control unit. These components make up the Standby Electrical System.

Explanation

The correct answer is the main battery, the standby inverter, the RAT generator and its associated generator control unit. These components make up the Standby Electrical System.

81. The FMC scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED does not display for which of the following conditions?

A new ZFW is entered on the PERF INIT page.

A new FLAPS setting is entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.

A new CG value is entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.

New runway winds are entered on the TAKEOFF REF page

When a new CG value is entered on the TAKEOFF REF page, the FMC scratchpad message "TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED" does not display. This means that changing the CG value does not affect the takeoff speeds calculation. The message is displayed for the other conditions mentioned in the question, such as entering a new ZFW, FLAPS setting, or runway winds on the TAKEOFF REF page.

Explanation

When a new CG value is entered on the TAKEOFF REF page, the FMC scratchpad message "TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED" does not display. This means that changing the CG value does not affect the takeoff speeds calculation. The message is displayed for the other conditions mentioned in the question, such as entering a new ZFW, FLAPS setting, or runway winds on the TAKEOFF REF page.

82. Which of the following statements is true when the FUEL IMBALANCE message is displayed?

A solid white fuel imbalance pointer is displayed beside the tank with the low quantity.

A flashing amber fuel imbalance pointer is displayed beside the tank with the low quantity.

A solid amber fuel imbalance pointer is displayed beside the tank with the low quantity.

The fuel quantity indicator in the low tank turns amber.

When the FUEL IMBALANCE message is displayed, a solid amber fuel imbalance pointer is shown beside the tank with the low quantity. This indicates that there is an imbalance in the fuel levels between the tanks, with one tank having a lower quantity than the other.

Explanation

When the FUEL IMBALANCE message is displayed, a solid amber fuel imbalance pointer is shown beside the tank with the low quantity. This indicates that there is an imbalance in the fuel levels between the tanks, with one tank having a lower quantity than the other.

83. Which statement is not accurate concerning the EICAS caution message FUEL PRESS ENG L?

Crossfeed may be necessary to prevent thrust decay.

Both left main fuel tank pumps are operating at a lower pressure

The left engine is using suction feeds from the left main fuel tank.

This message can not display with fuel in the center tank

The EICAS caution message FUEL PRESS ENG L can be displayed even if there is fuel in the center tank.

Explanation

The EICAS caution message FUEL PRESS ENG L can be displayed even if there is fuel in the center tank.

84. Which of the following statements about waypoint altitude constraints is not correct?

The active altitude constraint is displayed on line 1 of the LEGS page.

The active altitude constraint is displayed in magenta

The active altitude constraint is displayed on the ND map

The active altitude constraint can be displayed on the CLB, CRZ and DES pages

The active altitude constraint is not displayed on line 1 of the LEGS page.

Explanation

The active altitude constraint is not displayed on line 1 of the LEGS page.

85. You notice the EICAS message ELT ON. What tab number of the QRH contains the appropriate non-normal procedure?

5, Communications

1, Airplane General

15, Warning Systems

11, Flight Management

The EICAS message "ELT ON" indicates that the Emergency Locator Transmitter is turned on. This is a non-normal situation that requires appropriate action. The "Airplane General" tab in the Quick Reference Handbook (QRH) would contain the relevant non-normal procedure for dealing with the ELT being turned on. This tab would provide the necessary guidance and steps to address the situation.

Explanation

The EICAS message "ELT ON" indicates that the Emergency Locator Transmitter is turned on. This is a non-normal situation that requires appropriate action. The "Airplane General" tab in the Quick Reference Handbook (QRH) would contain the relevant non-normal procedure for dealing with the ELT being turned on. This tab would provide the necessary guidance and steps to address the situation.

86. The EICAS message AUTOPILOT is displayed passing the Alert Height on a category IIIA approach and visual reference is not established, what should the pilot do?

Continue the approach with autopilot disengaged.

Re-engage the autopilot and continue the approach.

Execute an immediate manual go-around

Execute an immediate go around.

In this scenario, the correct answer is to execute an immediate go-around. When the EICAS message AUTOPILOT is displayed passing the Alert Height on a category IIIA approach and visual reference is not established, it indicates that the autopilot is not able to continue the approach safely. Therefore, the pilot should disengage the autopilot and initiate a go-around to ensure the safety of the aircraft.

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct answer is to execute an immediate go-around. When the EICAS message AUTOPILOT is displayed passing the Alert Height on a category IIIA approach and visual reference is not established, it indicates that the autopilot is not able to continue the approach safely. Therefore, the pilot should disengage the autopilot and initiate a go-around to ensure the safety of the aircraft.

87. Pushing the TOGA switch a second time with the glideslope captured below 1500 feet RA causes which of the following conditions?

Disengages the autopilot and places the flight director in the terrain avoidance mode.

Engages the autothrottle in THR REF mode.

The AFDS modes change to TOGA, the autothrottle engages in THR REF and the thrust limit changes to CON.

The AFDS modes change to TOGA, the autothrottle engages in THR and the thrust limit changes to G/A.

Pushing the TOGA switch a second time with the glideslope captured below 1500 feet RA engages the autothrottle in THR REF mode. This means that the autothrottle will maintain the thrust reference speed, which is the speed at which the aircraft should climb during a go-around. This mode is activated to ensure that the aircraft climbs at the appropriate speed during the go-around maneuver.

Explanation

Pushing the TOGA switch a second time with the glideslope captured below 1500 feet RA engages the autothrottle in THR REF mode. This means that the autothrottle will maintain the thrust reference speed, which is the speed at which the aircraft should climb during a go-around. This mode is activated to ensure that the aircraft climbs at the appropriate speed during the go-around maneuver.

88. The EXEC light is illuminated and you push the DEP ARR key but do not see the desired destination ARRIVALS page. Which of the following actions will not display the DEP/ARR INDEX page?

Push the INTIT REF key and select the INDEX line select key(6L).

Push the ERASE prompt line select key(6L) then push the INDEX line select key(6L).

Push the EXEC key then push the INDEX line select key(6L).

Pushing the INTIT REF key and selecting the INDEX line select key (6L) will not display the DEP/ARR INDEX page.

Explanation

Pushing the INTIT REF key and selecting the INDEX line select key (6L) will not display the DEP/ARR INDEX page.

89. Which statement about the Parking Brake is correct?

The parking brake is set using the normal brake hydraulic system.

The parking brake is set by fully depressing a brake pedal and simultaneously pulling he parking brake lever up.

The parking brake pressure can be maintained by the brake accumulator.

The correct answer is that the parking brake pressure can be maintained by the brake accumulator. This means that even if there is a loss of hydraulic pressure in the brake system, the parking brake can still be engaged and the pressure can be maintained by the brake accumulator.

Explanation

The correct answer is that the parking brake pressure can be maintained by the brake accumulator. This means that even if there is a loss of hydraulic pressure in the brake system, the parking brake can still be engaged and the pressure can be maintained by the brake accumulator.

90. Which statement concerning nose gear actuation and steering is not true?

It is reconnected to the center hydraulic system when airspeed decreases below 60 knots

It is reconnected to the center hydraulic system when hydraulic pressure to the center system flight controls goes low.

The statement that is not true is that the nose gear actuation and steering is reconnected to the center hydraulic system when the system determines that both engines have been running for more than 30 seconds.

Explanation

The statement that is not true is that the nose gear actuation and steering is reconnected to the center hydraulic system when the system determines that both engines have been running for more than 30 seconds.

91. An engine start is desired after a shutdown with no fire or apparent damage. How much time can it take from placing the fuel control switch to RUN to stabilized engine idle?

3 minutes

3 1/2 minutes

2 minutes

2 1/2 minutes

After a shutdown with no fire or apparent damage, it can take approximately 2 1/2 minutes from placing the fuel control switch to RUN to reach a stabilized engine idle.

Explanation

After a shutdown with no fire or apparent damage, it can take approximately 2 1/2 minutes from placing the fuel control switch to RUN to reach a stabilized engine idle.

92. During Center Hydraulic system Non-Normal operation, which of the following statements is correct when center system quantity is sensed to be low and airspeed is greater than 60 knots?

The isolation valves close to isolate the flight controls from the center system.

Nose gear actuation and steering are not isolated.

Thrust reversers are isolated.

Leading edge slats are isolated and not allowed to operate in the primary mode.

When the center hydraulic system is experiencing non-normal operation and the center system quantity is low while the airspeed is greater than 60 knots, the leading edge slats are isolated and not allowed to operate in the primary mode. This means that the slats, which are located on the leading edge of the wings and help to increase lift during takeoff and landing, will not be able to function as intended. This could potentially affect the aircraft's performance and handling in certain flight conditions.

Explanation

When the center hydraulic system is experiencing non-normal operation and the center system quantity is low while the airspeed is greater than 60 knots, the leading edge slats are isolated and not allowed to operate in the primary mode. This means that the slats, which are located on the leading edge of the wings and help to increase lift during takeoff and landing, will not be able to function as intended. This could potentially affect the aircraft's performance and handling in certain flight conditions.

93. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding flap position during automatic landings?

Automatic landings may be accomplished using flaps 20, 25 or 30.

Automatic landings may be accomplished using flaps 20 or 30 when LAND 2 or LAND 3 is annunciated.

Automatic landings may be accomplished using flaps 20, 25 or 30 when LAND 2 or LAND 3 is annunciated.

Automatic landings may be accomplished using flaps 20 or 30.

The most correct statement regarding flap position during automatic landings is that automatic landings may be accomplished using flaps 20, 25 or 30 when LAND 2 or LAND 3 is annunciated. This means that the flaps can be set at any of these three positions during automatic landings, but only when the LAND 2 or LAND 3 mode is engaged.

Explanation

The most correct statement regarding flap position during automatic landings is that automatic landings may be accomplished using flaps 20, 25 or 30 when LAND 2 or LAND 3 is annunciated. This means that the flaps can be set at any of these three positions during automatic landings, but only when the LAND 2 or LAND 3 mode is engaged.

94. Which of the following is correct during an ILS approach with TAC inoperative?

Roper trim includes a sideslip and the control wheel will not be centered.

Rudder trim inputs are not effective in the LOC or ROLLOUT modes.

Engaged autopilots control the yaw using the rudder before LAND 2 or LAND 3 are annunciated.

During an ILS approach with TAC inoperative, the correct statement is that rudder trim inputs are not effective in the LOC or ROLLOUT modes. This means that adjusting the rudder trim will not have any impact on controlling the yaw of the aircraft during these specific phases of the approach. The rudder trim is only effective in other modes of the approach.

Explanation

During an ILS approach with TAC inoperative, the correct statement is that rudder trim inputs are not effective in the LOC or ROLLOUT modes. This means that adjusting the rudder trim will not have any impact on controlling the yaw of the aircraft during these specific phases of the approach. The rudder trim is only effective in other modes of the approach.

95. What is the minimum duct pressure for starting engines when performing a crossbleed start?

15 PSI

25 PSI

45 PSI

55 PSI

The minimum duct pressure required for starting engines during a crossbleed start is 45 PSI. This pressure is necessary to ensure that there is sufficient airflow and pressure in the duct system to successfully start the engines. A lower pressure may not provide enough air and pressure to initiate the start-up process.

Explanation

The minimum duct pressure required for starting engines during a crossbleed start is 45 PSI. This pressure is necessary to ensure that there is sufficient airflow and pressure in the duct system to successfully start the engines. A lower pressure may not provide enough air and pressure to initiate the start-up process.

96. Which statement about the fuel system limitation is most correct?

Main tanks must be maintained full on the ground if center tank fuel is loaded.

Main tanks must be scheduled to be full if center tank fuel is loaded

Fuel crossfeed valves must be closed for landing.

Fuel imbalance must not exceed 1000 pounds (500 kilograms).

The correct answer is "Fuel crossfeed valves must be closed for landing." This means that during the landing phase, the fuel crossfeed valves, which allow fuel to be transferred between tanks, must be shut off. This is important for maintaining proper balance and stability in the fuel system during the landing process.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Fuel crossfeed valves must be closed for landing." This means that during the landing phase, the fuel crossfeed valves, which allow fuel to be transferred between tanks, must be shut off. This is important for maintaining proper balance and stability in the fuel system during the landing process.

B777 Tke Exam