Bioscience II: Test II

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1. Mr. Quoya has just received a blood transfusion of two units of type B+ blood. Woops…. He is A-. This is most likely to result in which of the following?

Explanation

Hemolytic Anemia occurs when there is an incompatibility between the blood types of the donor and the recipient. In this case, Mr. Quoya received type B+ blood, which is incompatible with his A- blood type. This leads to the destruction of the donor red blood cells by the recipient's immune system, causing hemolysis and resulting in Hemolytic Anemia.

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About This Quiz
Bioscience II: Test II - Quiz

A review of the material for Bioscience test 2. Covers hemostasis and hepatic physiology.

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2. To examine the extrinsic pathway, which labs would be most helpful?

Explanation

To examine the extrinsic pathway, the most helpful labs would be PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio). PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, specifically evaluating the extrinsic pathway. INR is a standardized measurement used to interpret PT results, allowing for comparison across different laboratories. Bleeding Time, aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time), and ACT (Activated Clotting Time) are not specific to the extrinsic pathway and would not provide the most relevant information in this context.

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3. Transfusion on multiple units of PRBC’s is associated with decreased levels of platelets, fibrinogen, and coagulation factors.

Explanation

Transfusion of multiple units of PRBCs (packed red blood cells) can lead to a decrease in platelet levels, fibrinogen levels, and coagulation factors. This is because PRBC transfusions do not contain these components, and repeated transfusions can dilute the existing levels in the recipient's blood. Consequently, this can impair the blood's ability to clot properly and increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the statement is true.

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4. The presence of hemoglobin S is seen in what disorder?

Explanation

Sickle cell anemia is caused by the presence of hemoglobin S, an abnormal form of hemoglobin. This disorder is characterized by the production of crescent-shaped red blood cells that can get stuck in blood vessels, leading to pain, organ damage, and other complications. The other options listed, such as aplastic anemia, Fanconi anemia, and megaloblastic anemia, are not associated with the presence of hemoglobin S.

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5. Parasympathetic stimulation of the liver comes mainly from what nerve?

Explanation

Parasympathetic stimulation of the liver primarily occurs through the Vagus nerve. The Vagus nerve, also known as the tenth cranial nerve, innervates various organs in the body, including the liver. It plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, including digestion and metabolism. Therefore, the Vagus nerve is responsible for transmitting parasympathetic signals to the liver, promoting activities such as bile production and glucose metabolism.

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6. APTT is generally used to assess the effectiveness of _____ and the _____ pathway.

Explanation

aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is a laboratory test used to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin, an anticoagulant medication, in inhibiting the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation. The intrinsic pathway is one of the two main pathways involved in the formation of blood clots. Coumadin, another anticoagulant, primarily affects the extrinsic pathway. Therefore, the correct answer is heparin and intrinsic pathway, as aPTT is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin in inhibiting the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation.

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7. Biliary atresia affects the outflow of bile from the liver into the digestive tract. Knowing the functions of bile acids, you would know these children most likely suffer from….

Explanation

Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the outflow of bile from the liver into the digestive tract. Bile acids are responsible for the digestion and absorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins. Therefore, if the outflow of bile is impaired, it would lead to the malabsorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins. This explains why children with biliary atresia would most likely suffer from malabsorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins.

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8. The most common cause of cirrhosis is…

Explanation

Alcohol consumption is the most common cause of cirrhosis. Excessive and prolonged alcohol intake can lead to liver damage and inflammation, causing the liver to become scarred and hardened. This condition, known as cirrhosis, can impair the liver's ability to function properly and can eventually lead to liver failure. It is important to note that not everyone who consumes alcohol excessively will develop cirrhosis, as individual susceptibility to liver damage can vary. However, alcohol abuse is a significant risk factor for developing this condition.

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9. Coumadin exerts its effects primarily on which coagulation pathway?

Explanation

Coumadin, also known as warfarin, primarily exerts its effects on the extrinsic coagulation pathway. The extrinsic pathway is one of the two main pathways involved in the coagulation cascade. It is initiated by tissue factor, which is released from damaged blood vessels. Coumadin works by inhibiting the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X, which are all involved in the extrinsic pathway. By inhibiting these factors, Coumadin helps to prevent the formation of blood clots.

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10. COMIC RELIEF: Wrong Hole Song

Explanation

The correct answer is "All the Above" because the given statement "Wow, a surprise ending. Is that Scott Baio? No!! Noooo!! Exit Only!!!" suggests that all of the options - "Wow, a surprise ending", "Is that Scott Baio?", and "No!! Noooo!! Exit Only!!!" - are correct.

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11. Following gastric bypass many patients must take vitamin supplements such as calcium, iron, and B12. A patient who is non-compliant with these vitamins may be at an increased risk for developing which of the following?

Explanation

A patient who is non-compliant with vitamin supplements such as calcium, iron, and B12 after gastric bypass surgery may be at an increased risk for developing anemia. This is because these vitamins are essential for the production of healthy red blood cells, and a deficiency in any of them can lead to decreased red blood cell production and subsequently anemia. Anemia is characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood, resulting in symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath.

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12. Which of the following is not a known precipitating factor of a sickle cell crisis?

Explanation

Fluid overload is not a known precipitating factor of a sickle cell crisis. A sickle cell crisis is typically triggered by factors that cause the red blood cells to become sickle-shaped and block blood flow, leading to pain and other complications. Acidosis, stress, and hypothermia are known precipitating factors as they can cause the red blood cells to sickle. However, fluid overload does not directly affect the shape of the red blood cells and is therefore not a known precipitating factor of a sickle cell crisis.

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13. Chronic alcoholics are most prone to which of the following?

Explanation

Chronic alcoholics are most prone to hypomagnesemia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. Alcoholism can lead to decreased intake of magnesium through the diet, increased excretion of magnesium by the kidneys, and impaired absorption of magnesium in the intestines. Magnesium plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including nerve and muscle function, blood pressure regulation, and bone health. Therefore, chronic alcoholics are at a higher risk of developing hypomagnesemia due to their alcohol consumption and its effects on magnesium levels in the body.

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14. You are caring for a patient who is having an ERCP today. Part way through the case the surgeon asks you is you gave the pt any fentanyl.  You innocently reply that you have…. At which point the surgeon turns psycho and starts screaming at you.  WHY?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Opioids cause spasm of Sphincter of Oddi." The surgeon is likely upset because the spasm of the Sphincter of Oddi caused by opioids can interfere with the ERCP procedure. The spasm can make it difficult for the surgeon to access and visualize the common bile duct, potentially leading to complications or the need for additional interventions.

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15. While in the middle of a cholangiogram the surgeon tells you to give the pt something to open up the Sphincter of Oddi. What will you give?

Explanation

Glucagon is the correct answer because it is known to relax the smooth muscles of the Sphincter of Oddi, which allows for better visualization during a cholangiogram. Rocuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent used for muscle relaxation during surgery, but it does not specifically target the Sphincter of Oddi. Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic and metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent used for gastric motility, neither of which affect the Sphincter of Oddi. Therefore, glucagon is the most appropriate choice to open up the Sphincter of Oddi in this situation.

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16. The liver is divided into right and left lobes by what?

Explanation

The liver is divided into right and left lobes by the falciform ligament. This ligament is a fold of peritoneum that attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and separates the liver into two distinct lobes. It is a thin, flat structure that runs from the diaphragm to the anterior abdominal wall, and its presence helps to maintain the position and stability of the liver within the abdominal cavity.

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17. What effect will volatile anesthetic agents have on portal hepatic blood flow?

Explanation

Volatile anesthetic agents are known to cause vasodilation, which leads to a decrease in systemic vascular resistance. This decrease in resistance can also affect the blood flow to the liver, specifically the portal hepatic blood flow. As a result, the volatile anesthetic agents will cause a decrease in portal hepatic blood flow.

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18. The endothelial lining of the blood vessel wall promotes anticoagulant activity.

Explanation

The endothelial lining of the blood vessel wall promotes anticoagulant activity because it releases substances such as nitric oxide and prostacyclin, which inhibit platelet aggregation and prevent blood clot formation. Additionally, the endothelial cells produce antithrombotic molecules like heparin sulfate and tissue factor pathway inhibitor, which further prevent clotting. This anticoagulant activity is crucial for maintaining blood flow and preventing the formation of dangerous blood clots that can lead to conditions like deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.

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19. Sympathetic stimulation of the liver is provided by the spinal nerves of…

Explanation

The correct answer is T6-T11. The sympathetic stimulation of the liver is provided by the spinal nerves in this region. These nerves originate from the thoracic region of the spinal cord and innervate various organs including the liver. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for regulating various physiological processes, including liver function, by increasing blood flow and promoting glucose release. Therefore, stimulation of the sympathetic nerves in the T6-T11 region would affect liver function.

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20. You are the SRNA for Mr. Burton who is coming in for an emergency cranitiomy for treatment of a SDH. Mr. Burton is being transferred from the keys and his medical records lists alcohol abuse, HTN, and Acute Hepatitis. What would be best for this patient?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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21. In hemostasis, ________ occurs several minutes after the other two processes.

Explanation

Coagulation of blood occurs several minutes after the other two processes in hemostasis. Vascular spasm is the initial response to vessel injury, where the smooth muscles in the blood vessel walls contract to reduce blood flow. Formation of a platelet plug follows, where platelets adhere to the damaged vessel wall and aggregate to form a temporary seal. Finally, coagulation of blood takes place, involving a complex cascade of reactions that result in the formation of a fibrin clot to stabilize the platelet plug and prevent further bleeding.

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22. Heparin affects which pathway of the clotting cascade?

Explanation

Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade. The intrinsic pathway is activated by contact with negatively charged surfaces, such as collagen or glass, and involves factors XII, XI, IX, and VIII. Heparin enhances the activity of antithrombin III, which inactivates factors XIIa, XIa, IXa, and Xa, thereby inhibiting the intrinsic pathway. This ultimately leads to the prevention of blood clot formation.

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23. Which of the following is true regarding anesthetic management of the pt with sickle cell anemia?

Explanation

Anesthetic management of a patient with sickle cell anemia involves providing generous IV fluids to ensure the patient is well hydrated. This is because sickle cell anemia can cause vaso-occlusive crises, which can be triggered by dehydration. By maintaining good hydration, the risk of vaso-occlusive crises can be reduced. Narcotics should not be avoided due to the risk of respiratory suppression, and maintaining slight hypothermia during surgery is not a true statement regarding anesthetic management of these patients.

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24. Approximately what percentage of cardiac output goes to the liver?

Explanation

Approximately 25-30% of the cardiac output goes to the liver. This means that a significant portion of the blood pumped by the heart is directed towards the liver. The liver plays a crucial role in various metabolic processes, including the detoxification of harmful substances and the production of important proteins. Therefore, it requires a substantial amount of blood supply to perform its functions effectively.

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25. Biliary flow into the duodenum is controlled by which of the following?

Explanation

The sphincter of Oddi controls the flow of bile from the common bile duct into the duodenum. It is a muscular valve that regulates the release of bile into the small intestine. When the sphincter of Oddi relaxes, bile is allowed to flow into the duodenum, aiding in the digestion and absorption of fats.

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26. The end product from the deamination of proteins in the liver is….

Explanation

During deamination, proteins are broken down into their constituent amino acids. In the liver, these amino acids undergo deamination, where the amino group (-NH2) is removed. The end product of this process is ammonia (NH3), which is highly toxic to the body. The liver then converts ammonia into urea, a less toxic compound that can be excreted in urine. Therefore, the correct answer is ammonia.

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27. You are doing a pre-op on Mrs. Marek who is coming  in for an elective foot surgery to fix a hammer toe. She looks a little yellow, and while reading through her paperwork from her primary doc, you realize she was just diagnosed with acute hepatitis 3 weeks ago. Mrs. Marek demands that she wants her surgery today, what do you tell her?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the surgery cannot be done until the acute hepatitis has resolved for the patient's own safety. Hepatitis is a liver inflammation that can cause complications during surgery, such as impaired liver function and increased risk of bleeding. It is important to wait until the liver has recovered and the patient's overall health has improved before proceeding with any surgical intervention.

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28. What would be your muscle blocking agent of choice for a pt with liver cirrhosis who requires long term paralysis?

Explanation

Cisatracurium would be the muscle blocking agent of choice for a patient with liver cirrhosis who requires long-term paralysis. Liver cirrhosis can affect the metabolism and clearance of drugs, and cisatracurium is primarily eliminated through non-organ-dependent Hoffman elimination. This makes it a suitable choice for patients with liver dysfunction as it is not dependent on liver metabolism for elimination. Succinylcholine, on the other hand, is metabolized by plasma pseudocholinesterase, which can be reduced in patients with liver cirrhosis. Rocuronium and vecuronium are primarily eliminated by the liver, so they may have prolonged effects in patients with liver dysfunction.

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29. The outermost layer of the blood vessel lining is known as….

Explanation

The outermost layer of the blood vessel lining is known as adventitia. This layer is composed of connective tissue and provides support and protection to the blood vessel. It helps to anchor the blood vessel to surrounding tissues and organs. The adventitia also contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels that supply the blood vessel itself.

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30. Which type of Hepatitis are you most likely to get from the Subway employee that forgot to wash their hands after going to the bathroom?

Explanation

Hepatitis A is primarily spread through contaminated food or water, and poor hygiene practices, such as not washing hands after using the bathroom, can contribute to its transmission. Therefore, if a Subway employee forgets to wash their hands after going to the bathroom and then handles food or prepares sandwiches, there is a higher risk of transmitting Hepatitis A to customers. Hepatitis B and C are primarily spread through contact with infected blood or body fluids, and the scenario described does not involve direct contact with blood or body fluids.

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31. Which layer of blood vessel lining synthesizes prostaglandins?

Explanation

The endothelial lining is responsible for synthesizing prostaglandins in the blood vessels. Prostaglandins are lipid compounds that have various physiological effects, including regulating inflammation, blood clotting, and blood pressure. The endothelial cells in the lining of blood vessels produce prostaglandins in response to various stimuli, such as injury or inflammation. These prostaglandins play a crucial role in maintaining vascular homeostasis and regulating blood flow.

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32. Where would you find Kupfer cells?

Explanation

Kupffer cells are a type of specialized macrophage found in the liver. They are responsible for removing foreign substances, such as bacteria and old red blood cells, from the blood. The sinusoids are blood vessels within the liver that are lined by liver cells, and it is within these sinusoids that Kupffer cells are found. Therefore, the correct answer is "Lining sinusoids between liver cells."

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33. Several days after birth it is common for many infants to experience a mild degree of jaundice due to the breakdown of fetal hemoglobin. What product of hemoglobin metabolism is responsible for this jaundice?

Explanation

After birth, the breakdown of fetal hemoglobin leads to the production of bilirubin, which is responsible for the mild degree of jaundice commonly seen in many infants. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is formed when heme, a component of hemoglobin, is broken down. It is then processed by the liver and excreted in the bile. In infants, the liver may not be fully developed, leading to a buildup of bilirubin in the bloodstream, causing the yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes known as jaundice.

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34. As you are sitting in the bathroom dropping a rather sizable fecal deposit into the toilet you start thinking back to bioscience. You begin to ponder the reduction of bilirubin in the intestines and the role this plays in your excretory process. What is the name of substance that bilirubin is converted to upon entering the intestines?

Explanation

Upon entering the intestines, bilirubin is converted to urobilinogen. This conversion is an important step in the excretory process as urobilinogen is further metabolized and eventually gives urine its yellow color.

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35. A patient is at risk for spontaneous bleeding at any platelet level that is below…

Explanation

A patient is at risk for spontaneous bleeding at any platelet level that is below 20. Platelets are responsible for blood clotting, and a low platelet count can result in difficulty in clotting, leading to spontaneous bleeding. Therefore, a platelet level below 20 indicates a significant risk for bleeding.

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36. At a platelet count <50, the pt is at risk for spontaneous bleeding.

Explanation

A platelet count of less than 50 indicates a low number of platelets in the blood, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the statement that at a platelet count

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37. Normal bleeding time is….

Explanation

Normal bleeding time refers to the time it takes for bleeding to stop after a small cut or injury. The correct answer, 2-9 minutes, indicates the normal range for bleeding to cease. This range is considered normal as it allows for the body's natural clotting mechanisms to take effect and stop the bleeding. Bleeding times that are significantly shorter or longer than this range may indicate underlying health conditions or disorders affecting the blood's ability to clot.

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38. The most well oxygenated cells in the hepatic lobules are those located….

Explanation

The most well oxygenated cells in the hepatic lobules are those located closest to the Portal tract. The Portal tract contains branches of the hepatic artery, which supplies oxygenated blood to the liver. As the blood flows through the sinusoids in the lobules, the cells closest to the Portal tract receive the highest concentration of oxygen.

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39. Venous drainage from the liver goes into the…

Explanation

The correct answer is Inferior Vena Cava. The liver receives blood from two sources - the hepatic artery, which carries oxygenated blood, and the portal vein, which carries nutrient-rich blood from the digestive organs. After the blood passes through the liver, it is drained by the hepatic veins into the inferior vena cava, which then carries the deoxygenated blood back to the heart. Therefore, the inferior vena cava is responsible for the venous drainage from the liver.

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40. Which of the following is not a function of the liver?

Explanation

The liver performs various functions in the body, including detoxification, protein synthesis, and the production of bile. However, it does not store ammonia. Ammonia is a toxic waste product that is produced by the breakdown of proteins in the body. It is converted into urea by the liver and then excreted by the kidneys. Therefore, the liver does not store ammonia but rather helps in its elimination from the body.

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41. What is the preferred treatment for intrahepatic cholestasis caused by viral hepatitis?

Explanation

The preferred treatment for intrahepatic cholestasis caused by viral hepatitis is medical treatment. This typically involves using antiviral medications to target and eliminate the viral infection. Medical treatment may also include supportive care such as managing symptoms, providing adequate nutrition, and monitoring liver function. Surgical treatment may be considered in some cases, but it is not the preferred or primary treatment option for this condition. Holistic treatment may have some complementary benefits, but it is not the mainstay of treatment. Ignoring the condition will not make it go away and can lead to further complications.

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42. Injury to the muscular layer of the blood vessel will have what result?

Explanation

When there is an injury to the muscular layer of the blood vessel, the body's response is to initiate acute vascular contraction. This contraction helps to lessen the blood flow to the injured site, which is beneficial in reducing bleeding and preventing further damage. By constricting the blood vessels, the body is able to limit the amount of blood reaching the injured area, allowing for better clot formation and healing. This response is an important mechanism in the body's overall process of repairing damaged blood vessels.

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43. Which Factors are involved in the intrinsic pathway?

Explanation

The correct answer is Factors XII, XI, IX, VIII. The intrinsic pathway is one of the two pathways involved in the process of blood clotting. It is initiated by factors XII and XI, which activate factor IX. Factor IX then combines with factor VIII, calcium ions, and phospholipids to form a complex that activates factor X. This ultimately leads to the formation of a blood clot. Factors III and VII are not involved in the intrinsic pathway, and factors V, X, I, and II are not the correct combination of factors for this pathway.

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44. Secondary hemostasis is also known as…

Explanation

Secondary hemostasis refers to the process of coagulation, which is the formation of a blood clot to stop bleeding. During this process, a series of enzymatic reactions occur, leading to the conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin threads. These threads form a mesh-like structure that traps platelets and other blood cells to form a stable blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is "Coagulation of blood."

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45. The intrinsic pathway is initiated with the activation of …

Explanation

The correct answer is Factor XII. The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated with the activation of Factor XII, also known as Hageman factor. Factor XII is activated by binding to negatively charged surfaces, such as collagen or platelets, and undergoes a series of enzymatic reactions leading to the formation of a blood clot. This pathway plays a crucial role in maintaining hemostasis and preventing excessive bleeding.

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46. What is the most common cause of platelet abnormalities?

Explanation

Drug therapy is the most common cause of platelet abnormalities because certain medications can affect the production, function, or lifespan of platelets. Drugs like aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and certain antibiotics can inhibit platelet aggregation and increase the risk of bleeding. Other medications, such as heparin and certain chemotherapy drugs, can cause a decrease in platelet count, leading to a condition called thrombocytopenia. Therefore, drug therapy is often associated with platelet abnormalities.

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47. The most common type of drug induced hepatitis comes from which of the following?

Explanation

Alcohol is the most common cause of drug-induced hepatitis. Prolonged and excessive alcohol consumption can lead to inflammation and damage to the liver, resulting in hepatitis. Alcohol-induced hepatitis can range from mild inflammation to severe liver damage, including cirrhosis. Chronic alcohol abuse can also increase the risk of developing other liver diseases, such as alcoholic fatty liver disease and alcoholic cirrhosis. It is important to note that other substances, such as medications and recreational drugs, can also cause drug-induced hepatitis, but alcohol remains the most common culprit.

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48. Signs and Symptoms of cirrhosis do not correlate with disease severity.

Explanation

The statement is true because the signs and symptoms of cirrhosis, such as fatigue, jaundice, and abdominal pain, do not necessarily indicate the severity of the disease. Some individuals with advanced cirrhosis may not exhibit any symptoms, while others with mild cirrhosis may experience significant symptoms. Therefore, the presence or absence of signs and symptoms cannot be used as a reliable indicator of the severity of cirrhosis.

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49. What effect would a plt. Count of 62 have on bleeding times?

Explanation

A plt. count of 62 refers to a platelet count of 62, which is below the normal range. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, and a low platelet count can lead to prolonged bleeding time. Therefore, a plt. count of 62 would have the effect of causing a prolonged bleeding time.

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50. Which of the following is true regarding management of the pt with ascites?

Explanation

The correct answer states that the patient should be well hydrated with colloids to prevent hypotension following the removal of ascites. This is because removing ascites can lead to a decrease in blood volume, which can cause hypotension. By ensuring that the patient is well hydrated with colloids, which are substances that increase blood volume, the risk of hypotension can be minimized.

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51. You are caring for Mr. Oradji today. His procedure had been previously postponed due to an elevated PT, yet even after treatment with Vit K his PT has not corrected. What are you starting to suspect may be wrong?

Explanation

Based on the information provided, Mr. Oradji's PT has not corrected even after treatment with Vitamin K, indicating that there may be an underlying issue with his liver. Acute liver disease can impair the liver's ability to produce clotting factors, leading to prolonged PT. Therefore, it is reasonable to suspect that acute liver disease may be the cause of Mr. Oradji's elevated PT.

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52. When Bilirubin is released into the blood stream it readily binds to ____.

Explanation

Bilirubin is a yellow pigment produced from the breakdown of heme in red blood cells. When it is released into the bloodstream, it binds to albumin, a protein found in the blood. This binding helps to transport bilirubin to the liver, where it is further processed and eventually excreted in the bile. Albumin serves as a carrier protein for various substances in the blood, including bilirubin, ensuring their proper transport and distribution throughout the body.

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53. Jaundice is usually observed once total bilirubin exceeds ____ mg/dL.

Explanation

Jaundice is a condition characterized by the yellowing of the skin and eyes due to an excess of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells break down. A normal level of total bilirubin is typically below 1.8 mg/dL. Once the total bilirubin exceeds this level, it is usually when jaundice becomes noticeable. Therefore, the correct answer is 1.8 mg/dL.

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54. ALT and AST correlate poorly with liver function in chronic liver disease.

Explanation

ALT (alanine aminotransferase) and AST (aspartate aminotransferase) are liver enzymes that are commonly measured in blood tests to assess liver function. However, in chronic liver disease, these enzymes may not accurately reflect the extent of liver damage or dysfunction. This is because ALT and AST can be elevated due to various factors, including inflammation and injury to the liver, but they do not provide a comprehensive picture of liver function. Therefore, the statement that ALT and AST correlate poorly with liver function in chronic liver disease is true.

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55. Which of the following represents a normal serum albumin?

Explanation

A normal serum albumin level typically falls within the range of 3.5-5.5 g/dL. Among the given options, 3.6 is the closest value to this range. Therefore, 3.6 represents a normal serum albumin level.

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56. Which of the following is not a metabolic manifestation of cirrhosis?

Explanation

Hyperkalemia is not a metabolic manifestation of cirrhosis. Cirrhosis is a condition characterized by liver damage and dysfunction, leading to various metabolic abnormalities. Hypoalbuminemia is a common finding in cirrhosis due to impaired liver function and decreased synthesis of albumin. Hyponatremia can occur due to fluid retention and dilutional effects. Hypoglycemia can result from impaired glycogen storage and gluconeogenesis in the liver. However, hyperkalemia is not typically associated with cirrhosis and is more commonly seen in conditions such as kidney dysfunction or certain medications.

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57. This program stinks! You are overly stressed by classes and your rotations through the memorial system have driven you to drink… heavily. How much beer would you have to drink daily in order to be at risk for developing cirrhosis?

Explanation

Drinking 7 bottles of beer daily puts you at risk for developing cirrhosis. Cirrhosis is a liver disease that occurs due to excessive alcohol consumption over a prolonged period of time. The liver is responsible for breaking down alcohol, and excessive drinking can lead to liver damage and scarring. Consuming 7 bottles of beer daily indicates a high alcohol intake, increasing the likelihood of developing cirrhosis. It is important to note that individual tolerance and susceptibility to liver damage may vary.

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58. Hemostasis is not dependent on which of the following?

Explanation

Hemostasis is the process of stopping bleeding, and it involves several mechanisms such as coagulation of blood, vascular spasm, and formation of a platelet plug. However, enzyme release from the endothelium is not a direct factor in hemostasis. While the endothelium does play a role in regulating blood flow and preventing excessive clotting, it does not release enzymes that directly contribute to the process of hemostasis.

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59. To prepare a patient with sickle cell anemia for surgry, your HCT should ideally be at least…

Explanation

The ideal hematocrit (HCT) level for a patient with sickle cell anemia before surgery should be at least 35%. Hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume. In sickle cell anemia, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped, leading to a decreased oxygen-carrying capacity and increased risk of complications during surgery. Maintaining a higher HCT level helps to ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the tissues and reduces the risk of complications such as tissue damage or organ failure. Therefore, a HCT level of at least 35% is recommended for surgical preparation in patients with sickle cell anemia.

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60. You are caring for a patient who calls herself “Crazy Dancing Eel”. Apparently she was even high enough at some point to legally change her name to this. As you do a pre-op interview for Ms. Eel (while trying your best to keep a straight face) she admits that she regularly abuses Ketamine, Alcohol, and Xanax while out at raves. What will this do your Mac requirements and why?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Increase MAC, due to induction of CYP450 system." The CYP450 system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs, including ketamine, alcohol, and Xanax. Inducing the CYP450 system leads to an increased metabolism of these drugs, resulting in a decreased duration and intensity of their effects. This means that higher doses of these substances may be required to achieve the desired effect, leading to an increased minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) requirement for anesthesia.

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61. The final phase of blood clotting is the interaction of _____ with _______.

Explanation

Thrombin is a key enzyme in the blood clotting process. It converts fibrinogen, a soluble protein, into fibrin, which forms a mesh-like structure that helps to stabilize the blood clot. This interaction between thrombin and fibrinogen is crucial for the formation of a stable blood clot.

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62. Which of the following labs assesses the fibrinolytic system?

Explanation

FDP, or fibrin degradation products, is a lab test that assesses the fibrinolytic system. Fibrinolytic system refers to the body's ability to break down blood clots. FDP measures the levels of breakdown products of fibrin, a protein involved in clot formation. Elevated levels of FDP indicate increased fibrinolysis, which may be seen in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) or thrombolytic therapy. PTT (partial thromboplastin time), TT (thrombin time), and INR (international normalized ratio) are other lab tests that assess different aspects of the coagulation system and are not specific to the fibrinolytic system.

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63. Which of the following is not a function of the liver?

Explanation

The liver is responsible for many important functions in the body, including the production of coagulation factors 1 & 2, secretion of bile, and fat metabolism and cholesterol synthesis. However, the liver does not produce and release the hormone calcitriol. Calcitriol is actually produced in the kidneys from its precursor, vitamin D, and plays a role in regulating calcium and phosphorus levels in the body.

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64. While prepping dinner last night you managed to cut your finger while chopping red onions.  As you furiously attempt to wash the burning onion juices from your cut, you are confident in the knowledge that you have just activated which clotting pathway?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Extrinsic Pathway. The Extrinsic Pathway is activated by tissue damage and the release of tissue factor (TF) from damaged cells. TF then forms a complex with Factor VII, which initiates a cascade of reactions leading to the formation of a blood clot. In this scenario, the cut on the finger caused tissue damage, leading to the activation of the Extrinsic Pathway.

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65. Primary hemostasis is also known as….

Explanation

Primary hemostasis refers to the initial steps in the blood clotting process that occur immediately after a blood vessel is injured. During primary hemostasis, platelets become activated and adhere to the site of injury, forming a plug that helps to stop bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is "Formation of platelet plug."

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66. Prehepatic jaundice in a pt post-op is likely to result from which of the following?

Explanation

Prehepatic jaundice refers to a type of jaundice that occurs before the liver. In this case, the correct answer is "Reabsorption of hematoma." Post-operative patients can develop hematoma, which is a collection of blood outside the blood vessels. When the hematoma is reabsorbed, it can release bilirubin, a yellow pigment that causes jaundice. Cirrhosis and biliary obstruction are not likely causes of prehepatic jaundice in a post-operative patient.

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67. Which layer of blood vessel lining is primarily responsible for blood flow though the vessel?

Explanation

The muscular layer of blood vessel lining is primarily responsible for blood flow through the vessel. This layer, also known as the tunica media, is composed of smooth muscle cells that can contract and relax to regulate the diameter of the blood vessel. By constricting or dilating the vessel, the muscular layer controls the amount of blood that flows through it. This layer plays a crucial role in maintaining blood pressure and directing blood flow to different parts of the body.

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68. Which of the following has decreased hepatic blood flow?

Explanation

Mr. B who sobered up about 7 hours ago is the correct answer because alcohol consumption can lead to a decrease in hepatic blood flow. When alcohol is consumed, it is metabolized by the liver, which can cause liver damage and impair liver function. However, once a person stops drinking and sobers up, the liver has a chance to recover and regain normal blood flow. Therefore, Mr. B, who has sobered up, would have a restored hepatic blood flow compared to Mrs. A, who is currently drunk, and Mrs. C, who has no alcohol problems.

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69. In sickle cell anemia, sickling will usually be noted once PO2 reaches a pressure of…

Explanation

Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder that affects the shape of red blood cells. When the oxygen level in the blood is low, these abnormal red blood cells can become rigid and take on a sickle shape. This process is known as sickling. The question is asking at what level of oxygen pressure sickling is usually noted. The correct answer is 30-40 mm HG, indicating that sickling is more likely to occur when the oxygen pressure in the blood is at this range.

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70. Which of the following statement would most frighten you to hear from a surgeon in the midst of removal of a hepatic tumor? (Better get ready to transfuse a LOT)

Explanation

The statement "Crap, I think I just cut the portal vein" would be the most frightening to hear from a surgeon in the midst of removing a hepatic tumor because the portal vein is a major blood vessel that carries blood from the digestive organs to the liver. Cutting the portal vein can lead to severe bleeding and potentially life-threatening complications.

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71. Which of the following is not a means of intrinsic regulation of hepatic blood flow?

Explanation

Neural control is not a means of intrinsic regulation of hepatic blood flow. Intrinsic regulation refers to the local mechanisms within the liver that regulate blood flow. Metabolic control involves the regulation of blood flow based on the metabolic needs of the liver, while arterial buffer response refers to the ability of the liver to buffer changes in arterial pressure and maintain a constant blood flow. Hepatic artery autoregulation is the ability of the hepatic artery to regulate its own blood flow. However, neural control refers to the regulation of blood flow by neural signals from the central nervous system, which is not considered an intrinsic mechanism.

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72. Which of the following is a phase II reaction of drug metabolism?

Explanation

Glucoronidation of propofol in the liver is a phase II reaction of drug metabolism. Phase II reactions involve the conjugation of drugs or their metabolites with endogenous compounds to increase their water solubility and facilitate their excretion from the body. Glucoronidation is a common phase II reaction where glucuronic acid is attached to a drug or its metabolite, in this case, propofol, to form a glucuronide conjugate. This conjugate is then eliminated through bile or urine.

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73. Which layer of the blood vessel lining contains fibronectin?

Explanation

The subendothelial layer is the layer of the blood vessel lining that contains fibronectin. Fibronectin is a glycoprotein that plays a role in cell adhesion and is found in the extracellular matrix. It helps to anchor cells to the underlying connective tissue and provides structural support to the blood vessel wall. The other layers mentioned in the options, such as the endothelial lining, adventitia, and muscular layer, do not typically contain fibronectin.

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74. Which of the following will not result in likely thrombus formation?

Explanation

Liver failure will not result in likely thrombus formation because the liver plays a crucial role in the production of clotting factors and the breakdown of clotting proteins. In liver failure, the liver's ability to produce these factors is impaired, leading to a decreased ability to form blood clots. Therefore, thrombus formation is less likely to occur in individuals with liver failure.

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75. What is the most important consideration for the anesthetic management of the pt with cirrhosis?

Explanation

In patients with cirrhosis, maintaining cardiac output (CO) is the most important consideration for anesthetic management. Cirrhosis can lead to decreased CO due to various factors such as portal hypertension, decreased systemic vascular resistance, and impaired contractility of the heart. Decreasing CO further can worsen the patient's condition and lead to complications. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any interventions or medications that can potentially decrease CO during anesthesia.

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76. Which Factors are involved in the extrinsic pathway?

Explanation

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation involves the activation of factors III (tissue factor) and VII. These factors play a crucial role in initiating the clotting process by forming a complex that activates factor X. Factors XII, XI, IX, and VIII are not involved in the extrinsic pathway. Factors V, X, I, II, and XIII are not specifically associated with the extrinsic pathway either. Therefore, the correct answer is Factors III, VII.

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77. Which of the following are phase I reactions?

Explanation

Phase I reactions are the initial step in the metabolism of drugs and other xenobiotics. These reactions involve the introduction or unmasking of a functional group, making the compound more polar and facilitating its elimination from the body. Oxidation is a common phase I reaction where a compound gains an oxygen atom or loses a hydrogen atom. Hydrolysis is another phase I reaction where a compound is broken down by the addition of water. Acetylation and glucoronidation, on the other hand, are phase II reactions where a functional group is conjugated with an endogenous molecule to further increase its polarity.

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78. Which of the following is not of the functions of platelets?

Explanation

Platelets have several functions in the process of blood clotting. They play a crucial role in morphologic aggregation, which involves clumping together to form a plug at the site of injury. Platelets also secrete factors V and XIII, which are important for the clotting process. Additionally, they contribute to plug formation by releasing substances that help in the formation of a stable clot. However, platelets do not directly activate vascular spasm, which is the constriction of blood vessels to reduce blood flow. This function is primarily carried out by smooth muscle cells in the blood vessel walls.

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79. To measure to conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, what lab would you use?

Explanation

The lab test that would be used to measure the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is TT (Thrombin Time). Thrombin is the enzyme responsible for converting fibrinogen to fibrin, which is essential for blood clot formation. Therefore, measuring the time it takes for thrombin to convert fibrinogen to fibrin can provide information about the clotting ability of the blood. PT (Prothrombin Time) measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, D-dimer is a marker of fibrin degradation, and FDP (Fibrin Degradation Products) measures the breakdown products of fibrin.

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80. Sepsis is likely to activate which of the coagulation pathways?

Explanation

Sepsis is likely to activate the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. The intrinsic pathway is initiated by factors within the blood, such as activated platelets and damaged endothelial cells. Sepsis, which is a severe infection, can cause widespread inflammation and damage to blood vessels, leading to the activation of the intrinsic pathway. This pathway ultimately leads to the formation of a blood clot, which is an important response to prevent excessive bleeding.

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81. The extrinsic pathway is activated with the release of….

Explanation

Thromboplastin is released to activate the extrinsic pathway. This pathway is initiated by tissue damage, which leads to the release of thromboplastin from damaged cells. Thromboplastin then combines with calcium ions and factor VII to form an enzyme complex. This enzyme complex activates factor X, which ultimately leads to the formation of a blood clot.

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82. The presence of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is most likely reflective of hepatocellular dysfunction.

Explanation

Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is not reflective of hepatocellular dysfunction, but rather indicates a problem with bilirubin metabolism or uptake by the liver. It occurs when there is an excess of bilirubin in the bloodstream due to factors such as increased red blood cell breakdown or impaired bilirubin conjugation. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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83. An excess of Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor I (PAI-1) would likely result in…

Explanation

An excess of Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor I (PAI-1) would likely result in excessive thrombus formation. PAI-1 is a protein that inhibits the activity of plasminogen activators, which are responsible for breaking down blood clots. When there is an excess of PAI-1, the normal balance between clot formation and clot breakdown is disrupted, leading to an increased tendency for blood to clot. This excessive thrombus formation can potentially lead to serious conditions such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, or stroke.

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84. You are following Mrs. Lindgren who has gone into DIC following a placental abruption.This patient  would most likely present with which of the following lab abnormalities?

Explanation

DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the clotting cascade, leading to both thrombosis and bleeding. Prolonged PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) is a common lab abnormality seen in DIC due to consumption of clotting factors. Increased FDP (Fibrin Degradation Products) is also seen as a result of fibrinolysis. Decreased Plt (Platelet) count occurs due to platelet consumption and activation. Therefore, the correct lab abnormalities in DIC are Prolonged PTT, Increased FDP, and Decreased Plt Count. Increased Fibrinogen and Decreased D-Dimer are not typically seen in DIC.

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85. The fibrinolytic process is normally triggered by…

Explanation

The fibrinolytic process is normally triggered by fibrin. Fibrin is a protein formed during the blood clotting process, and it is responsible for the formation of the mesh-like structure that makes up a blood clot. Once the clotting process is complete and the clot is no longer needed, the fibrinolytic process is initiated to break down the fibrin and dissolve the clot. This process involves the activation of plasmin, an enzyme that specifically targets and degrades fibrin. Therefore, fibrin plays a crucial role in triggering the fibrinolytic process.

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86. Which of the following are absolute contraindications to regional anesthesia?

Explanation

Pt refusal and infection over the injection site are absolute contraindications to regional anesthesia. Pt refusal means that the patient is unwilling to undergo the procedure, which makes it impossible to administer regional anesthesia. Infection over the injection site poses a risk of introducing bacteria into the surrounding tissues, potentially leading to a more severe infection. Both of these contraindications should be taken seriously to ensure patient safety and prevent complications.

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87. Which layer of blood vessel lining activates hemostasis?                

Explanation

The subendothelial layer of the blood vessel lining activates hemostasis. This layer is located beneath the endothelial lining and plays a crucial role in initiating the clotting process. When a blood vessel is damaged, the subendothelial layer is exposed to blood components, leading to the activation of platelets and the formation of a blood clot to prevent excessive bleeding.

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88. Which of the following is likely to progress to cirrhosis?

Explanation

Chronic Active Hepatitis is likely to progress to cirrhosis because it is characterized by ongoing inflammation and damage to the liver cells. This chronic inflammation can lead to the formation of scar tissue, which can ultimately result in cirrhosis. Chronic Biliary inflammation, on the other hand, refers to inflammation of the bile ducts and is not directly associated with the development of cirrhosis.

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Mr. Quoya has just received a blood transfusion of two units of type...
To examine the extrinsic pathway, which labs would be most helpful?
Transfusion on multiple units of PRBC’s is associated with decreased...
The presence of hemoglobin S is seen in what disorder?
Parasympathetic stimulation of the liver comes mainly from what nerve?
APTT is generally used to assess the effectiveness of _____ and the...
Biliary atresia affects the outflow of bile from the liver into the...
The most common cause of cirrhosis is…
Coumadin exerts its effects primarily on which coagulation pathway?
COMIC RELIEF: Wrong Hole Song
Following gastric bypass many patients must take vitamin supplements...
Which of the following is not a known precipitating factor of a sickle...
Chronic alcoholics are most prone to which of the following?
You are caring for a patient who is having an ERCP today. Part way...
While in the middle of a cholangiogram the surgeon tells you to give...
The liver is divided into right and left lobes by what?
What effect will volatile anesthetic agents have on portal hepatic...
The endothelial lining of the blood vessel wall promotes anticoagulant...
Sympathetic stimulation of the liver is provided by the spinal nerves...
You are the SRNA for Mr. Burton who is coming in for an emergency...
In hemostasis, ________ occurs several minutes after the other two...
Heparin affects which pathway of the clotting cascade?
Which of the following is true regarding anesthetic management of the...
Approximately what percentage of cardiac output goes to the liver?
Biliary flow into the duodenum is controlled by which of the...
The end product from the deamination of proteins in the liver is….
You are doing a pre-op on Mrs. Marek who is coming  in for an...
What would be your muscle blocking agent of choice for a pt with liver...
The outermost layer of the blood vessel lining is known as….
Which type of Hepatitis are you most likely to get from the Subway...
Which layer of blood vessel lining synthesizes prostaglandins?
Where would you find Kupfer cells?
Several days after birth it is common for many infants to experience a...
As you are sitting in the bathroom dropping a rather sizable fecal...
A patient is at risk for spontaneous bleeding at any platelet level...
At a platelet count <50, the pt is at risk for spontaneous...
Normal bleeding time is….
The most well oxygenated cells in the hepatic lobules are those...
Venous drainage from the liver goes into the…
Which of the following is not a function of the liver?
What is the preferred treatment for intrahepatic cholestasis caused by...
Injury to the muscular layer of the blood vessel will have what...
Which Factors are involved in the intrinsic pathway?
Secondary hemostasis is also known as…
The intrinsic pathway is initiated with the activation of …
What is the most common cause of platelet abnormalities?
The most common type of drug induced hepatitis comes from which of the...
Signs and Symptoms of cirrhosis do not correlate with disease...
What effect would a plt. Count of 62 have on bleeding times?
Which of the following is true regarding management of the pt with...
You are caring for Mr. Oradji today. His procedure had been previously...
When Bilirubin is released into the blood stream it readily binds to...
Jaundice is usually observed once total bilirubin exceeds ____ mg/dL.
ALT and AST correlate poorly with liver function in chronic liver...
Which of the following represents a normal serum albumin?
Which of the following is not a metabolic manifestation of cirrhosis?
This program stinks! You are overly stressed by classes and your...
Hemostasis is not dependent on which of the following?
To prepare a patient with sickle cell anemia for surgry, your HCT...
You are caring for a patient who calls herself “Crazy Dancing...
The final phase of blood clotting is the interaction of _____ with...
Which of the following labs assesses the fibrinolytic system?
Which of the following is not a function of the liver?
While prepping dinner last night you managed to cut your finger while...
Primary hemostasis is also known as….
Prehepatic jaundice in a pt post-op is likely to result from which of...
Which layer of blood vessel lining is primarily responsible for blood...
Which of the following has decreased hepatic blood flow?
In sickle cell anemia, sickling will usually be noted once PO2 reaches...
Which of the following statement would most frighten you to hear from...
Which of the following is not a means of intrinsic regulation of...
Which of the following is a phase II reaction of drug metabolism?
Which layer of the blood vessel lining contains fibronectin?
Which of the following will not result in likely thrombus formation?
What is the most important consideration for the anesthetic management...
Which Factors are involved in the extrinsic pathway?
Which of the following are phase I reactions?
Which of the following is not of the functions of platelets?
To measure to conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, what lab would you...
Sepsis is likely to activate which of the coagulation pathways?
The extrinsic pathway is activated with the release of….
The presence of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is most likely...
An excess of Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor I (PAI-1) would likely...
You are following Mrs. Lindgren who has gone into DIC following a...
The fibrinolytic process is normally triggered by…
Which of the following are absolute contraindications to regional...
Which layer of blood vessel lining activates hemostasis?...
Which of the following is likely to progress to cirrhosis?
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