Boe - Sabe501 Certification

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| By PrismaGmbH

PrismaGmbH

Community Contributor

Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 240

Questions: 71 | Attempts: 109 | Updated: Jul 18, 2024

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This Quiz is for preparation purposes regarding BOE Certification

Questions and Answers

1.

Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
- A.
  
  In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
- B.
  
  In the Central Management Server (CMS) System database
- C.
  
  In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
- D.
  
  In the Event Server Service properties
Correct Answer
B. In the Central Management Server (CMS) System database

Explanation
The properties for the Event Server are stored in the Central Management Server (CMS) System database. This is where the configuration information and settings for the Event Server are stored and managed. The CMS System database serves as a central repository for various server-related information in the BusinessObjects environment, including the Event Server properties. Storing the properties in the CMS System database allows for centralized management and ensures that the Event Server operates according to the specified settings and configurations.

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2.

Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  Security
- B.
  
  Administrative accessibility
- C.
  
  Email notification
- D.
  
  Reliability
Correct Answer(s)
A. Security
B. Administrative accessibility
D. Reliability

Explanation
The Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) provides three benefits: security, administrative accessibility, and reliability. Security is important to ensure that the server and its data are protected from unauthorized access and potential threats. Administrative accessibility allows authorized individuals to easily manage and control the server, making it more efficient to perform administrative tasks. Reliability ensures that the server operates consistently and without interruptions, minimizing downtime and ensuring smooth operation. These benefits contribute to a secure, accessible, and reliable server environment.

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3.

Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
- A.
  
  Perl
- B.
  
  Java
- C.
  
  PHP
- D.
  
  C++
Correct Answer
B. Java

Explanation
InfoView was developed using Java. Java is a popular web programming language known for its versatility and platform independence. It is widely used for building web applications, including InfoView, due to its robustness, scalability, and security features. Java's object-oriented nature and extensive libraries make it suitable for developing complex and dynamic web applications. Additionally, Java's compatibility with different operating systems and its ability to run on various devices make it a preferred choice for web development.

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4.

How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
- A.
  
  Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add New Template
- B.
  
  Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific Server and click on Add New Template
- C.
  
  Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set Configuration Template
- D.
  
  Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific Server and click on Set Configuration Template
Correct Answer
D. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific Server and click on Set Configuration Template

Explanation
The correct answer is to go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the properties of the specific server and click on Set Configuration Template. This explanation provides the specific steps and location within the CMC to set up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server.

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5.

Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
- A.
  
  .BIAR
- B.
  
  .REP
- C.
  
  .Binary
- D.
  
  .BOMain
Correct Answer
A. .BIAR

Explanation
The replication process uses the .BIAR file type to transfer content.

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6.

Which replication object would you schedule?
- A.
  
  Replication Job
- B.
  
  Replication List
- C.
  
  Replication Connection
- D.
  
  Replication Package
Correct Answer
A. Replication Job

Explanation
The correct answer is Replication Job because a replication job is a specific task that is scheduled to replicate data from a source system to a target system. It defines the scope and settings for the replication process, such as the tables or objects to be replicated, the frequency of replication, and any transformations or filters to be applied. Replication jobs are typically used in data replication scenarios where specific data needs to be synchronized between systems on a regular basis.

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7.

Which three application Servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  Oracle Containers for J2EE
- B.
  
  SAP Netweaver
- C.
  
  JRun
- D.
  
  Sun Java Application Server
Correct Answer(s)
A. Oracle Containers for J2EE
B. SAP Netweaver
D. Sun Java Application Server

Explanation
The three application servers that can deploy Web Archive (WAR) files using wdeploy are Oracle Containers for J2EE, SAP Netweaver, and Sun Java Application Server. These servers have the capability to host and run WAR files, which are a standard format for packaging Java web applications. By using wdeploy, developers can easily deploy their WAR files to these application servers, enabling the deployment and execution of their web applications.

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8.

Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
- A.
  
  Web Services
- B.
  
  Logging
- C.
  
  FileStore
- D.
  
  Win32_x86
Correct Answer
D. Win32_x86

Explanation
The bootstrap file is saved in the "Win32_x86" directory by default on the Windows platform.

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9.

Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
- A.
  
  Modify advanced rights on all groups.
- B.
  
  Apply a predefined access level to all folders
- C.
  
  Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders
- D.
  
  Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Correct Answer
C. Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders

Explanation
By creating a custom access level and applying it to all folders, we can ensure that each group of users has the necessary permissions to edit existing Web Intelligence documents. This allows us to set up a secure folder structure for the different departments, granting appropriate access rights to the Human Resources and Finance departments separately. Modifying advanced rights on all groups or a top-level folder may not provide the necessary granularity to differentiate between the two departments' access requirements. Applying a predefined access level to all folders may not cater to the specific needs of each department.

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10.

What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two successful instances?
- A.
  
  The latest data from the database
- B.
  
  The oldest data from the database
- C.
  
  The oldest successful instance
- D.
  
  The newest successful instance
Correct Answer
D. The newest successful instance

Explanation
When viewing a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two successful instances, the answer states that you will see the newest successful instance. This means that the most recent instance of the report that was successfully generated and saved will be displayed. This suggests that the system prioritizes showing the most up-to-date information to the user.

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11.

A user belongs to both Group 1 and Group 2 and you want that user to see a specific folder. What folder security settings would you use to enable the user to view the folder?
- A.
  
  Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2 and also not specified for the Everyone group
- B.
  
  Set the view right to denied for Group 1 and granted for Group 2
- C.
  
  Set the view right to not specified for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2
- D.
  
  Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and denied for Group 2
- E.
  
  Create a custom access level and grant for Group 1 and deny for Group 2
Correct Answer
A. Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2 and also not specified for the Everyone group

Explanation
By setting the view right to granted for Group 1, the user who belongs to Group 1 will have permission to view the specific folder. By not specifying the view right for Group 2 and the Everyone group, the user who belongs to both Group 1 and Group 2 will not be denied access to the folder, allowing them to view it.

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12.

What action would the Deployment Diagnostic Tool take when an InfoObject exists in the Central Management Server (CMS) System database, but the corresponding file cannot be found in the File Repository Server (FRS)?
- A.
  
  Remove the InfoObject from the Central Management Server (CMS) System database, unless otherwise specified
- B.
  
  Create a blank report as a placeholder
- C.
  
  Notify the user to republish the object.
- D.
  
  Reassign the InfoObject to a new file.
Correct Answer
A. Remove the InfoObject from the Central Management Server (CMS) System database, unless otherwise specified

Explanation
When an InfoObject exists in the CMS System database but the corresponding file cannot be found in the FRS, the Deployment Diagnostic Tool will remove the InfoObject from the CMS System database, unless otherwise specified. This means that the InfoObject will be deleted from the database to maintain data consistency and prevent any potential errors or conflicts.

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13.

What is the difference between one-way replication and two-way replication?
- A.
  
  In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin Site to Destination Site. In two-way replication, content only travels from Destination site to Origin Site.
- B.
  
  In one-way replication, content only travels from Destination site to Origin site. In two-way replication, content can travel from Origin site to Destination site, or from Destination site to Origin site.
- C.
  
  In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication, content also travels only from Origin site to Destination site but this Operation can happen more than once.
- D.
  
  In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication, content also travels from Origin site to Destination site but this Operation can happen more than once.
Correct Answer
D. In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication, content also travels from Origin site to Destination site but this Operation can happen more than once.

Explanation
One-way replication refers to the process where content is replicated from the origin site to the destination site. In this case, the content only travels in one direction, from the origin site to the destination site. On the other hand, two-way replication involves the replication of content from the origin site to the destination site, but it can also happen in the opposite direction, from the destination site to the origin site. Additionally, in two-way replication, this operation can occur multiple times, meaning that the content can be replicated back and forth between the two sites multiple times.

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14.

Which Statement is true of a Single Replication Job?
- A.
  
  Has two or more origin Sites and no destination sites
- B.
  
  Has only one origin site and only one destination site
- C.
  
  Has one or more origin sites and only one destination site
- D.
  
  Has one or more origin sites and possibly many destination sites
Correct Answer
B. Has only one origin site and only one destination site

Explanation
A single replication job refers to a process where data is copied or replicated from one location (origin site) to another location (destination site). In this case, the correct answer states that a single replication job has only one origin site and only one destination site. This means that the data is being replicated from a single source to a single target location, without involving multiple origin or destination sites.

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15.

You are migrating content into a new System. Which task must you perform to maintain the System integrity (CUID)?
- A.
  
  Define the LDAP configuration
- B.
  
  Define the LDAP configuration
- C.
  
  Define custom security settings
- D.
  
  List the active content folders
Correct Answer
A. Define the LDAP configuration

Explanation
To maintain system integrity during the migration of content into a new system, it is important to define the LDAP configuration. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a protocol used to access and manage directory information. By defining the LDAP configuration, you ensure that the new system can properly authenticate and authorize users, manage user permissions, and access directory services. This helps maintain the integrity of the system by ensuring that user information and access controls are accurately migrated and maintained in the new system.

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16.

Which three parameters can you specify in the command line for wdeploy? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  Web Server Type
- B.
  
  CMS Administrator Username
- C.
  
  Deployment Parameters
- D.
  
  Deployment Actions
Correct Answer(s)
A. Web Server Type
C. Deployment Parameters
D. Deployment Actions

Explanation
The command line for wdeploy allows you to specify three parameters: Web Server Type, Deployment Parameters, and Deployment Actions. The Web Server Type parameter is used to specify the type of web server being used for deployment. The Deployment Parameters parameter allows you to specify any additional parameters or configurations needed for the deployment. The Deployment Actions parameter is used to specify the specific actions or tasks that should be performed during the deployment process.

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17.

In which two locations could you configure the port numbers for the local Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)
- A.
  
  In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Startup tab for the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)
- B.
  
  In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Configuration tab for the CMS
- C.
  
  In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Server settings for the CMS
- D.
  
  In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) settings
Correct Answer(s)
A. In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Startup tab for the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)
C. In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Server settings for the CMS

Explanation
You can configure the port numbers for the local Central Management Server (CMS) in two locations. Firstly, in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Startup tab for the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA). Secondly, in the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Server settings for the CMS. These two locations allow you to access and modify the port numbers for the CMS, providing flexibility and customization options for your server configuration.

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18.

Which Servers should you examine if you are unable to schedule a Web Intelligence document? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  Web Intelligence Processing Server
- B.
  
  Connection Server
- C.
  
  Adaptive Job Server
- D.
  
  Output File Repository Server (FRS)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Web Intelligence Processing Server
C. Adaptive Job Server
D. Output File Repository Server (FRS)

Explanation
If you are unable to schedule a Web Intelligence document, you should examine the Web Intelligence Processing Server, Adaptive Job Server, and Output File Repository Server (FRS). The Web Intelligence Processing Server is responsible for processing and scheduling Web Intelligence documents. The Adaptive Job Server manages the scheduling and execution of jobs in the system. The Output File Repository Server (FRS) stores the output files generated by Web Intelligence documents. By examining these servers, you can identify any issues or errors that may be causing the scheduling problem.

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19.

How do you change the System database properties for the Central Management Server (CMS)?
- A.
  
  Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is pointing to the remote CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Configuration tab
- B.
  
  Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Startup tab.
- C.
  
  Select the CMS in the Central Management Console (CMC), stop the service and go to the Configuration tab
- D.
  
  Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the service and go to the Configuration tab.
Correct Answer
D. Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the service and go to the Configuration tab.
20.

Where do you configure the Login action for Desktop Intelligence users in a 3-tier mode?
- A.
  
  Under Settings in the Desktop Intelligence dient
- B.
  
  In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence Cache Server
- C.
  
  In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Central Management Server (CMS)
- D.
  
  In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence application
Correct Answer
C. In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Central Management Server (CMS)

Explanation
The correct answer is in the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Central Management Server (CMS). This is where the Login action for Desktop Intelligence users in a 3-tier mode is configured. The CMC is the central administration tool for managing and configuring various components of the BusinessObjects Enterprise system. The Audit Events section allows administrators to configure and monitor events related to user activity, including login events. The Central Management Server (CMS) is the core component of the BusinessObjects Enterprise system that manages user authentication and authorization.

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21.

Which three objects can be migrated from a Development XI 3.0 Repository to a Production XI 3.0 Repository using the Import Wizard? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  Custom Access Levels
- B.
  
  Bootstrap Information
- C.
  
  Replication Schedules
- D.
  
  Remote Connections
Correct Answer(s)
A. Custom Access Levels
C. Replication Schedules
D. Remote Connections

Explanation
The Import Wizard in XI 3.0 allows for the migration of Custom Access Levels, Replication Schedules, and Remote Connections from a Development XI 3.0 Repository to a Production XI 3.0 Repository. These objects are essential for maintaining consistency and functionality between the two repositories. Custom Access Levels ensure that the appropriate access permissions are applied to users and groups. Replication Schedules allow for the automated replication of data between repositories. Remote Connections enable communication and integration with external systems.

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22.

Which server distributes publications?
- A.
  
  Destination Job Server
- B.
  
  Central Management Server (CMS
- C.
  
  Adaptive Job Server
- D.
  
  Adaptive Processing Server
Correct Answer
A. Destination Job Server

Explanation
The correct answer is Destination Job Server. The Destination Job Server is responsible for distributing publications. This server receives the publication requests from the Central Management Server (CMS) and then distributes the publications to the specified destinations. The Adaptive Job Server and Adaptive Processing Server are not involved in the distribution of publications.

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23.

Which three pre-defined Wizard? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  Full Control
- B.
  
  Schedule
- C.
  
  View on Demand
- D.
  
  No Access
Correct Answer(s)
A. Full Control
B. Schedule
C. View on Demand

Explanation
The question is asking for three pre-defined Wizards. The correct answer choices are Full Control, Schedule, and View on Demand. These three options are pre-defined Wizards that are commonly used in various systems or software. The option "No Access" is not a pre-defined Wizard, so it is not included in the correct answer.

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24.

Which service needs to be selected in the Adaptive Job Server to allow Web Intelligence documents to be scheduled?
- A.
  
  Web Intelligence Job Service
- B.
  
  Destination Configuration Service
- C.
  
  Web Intelligence Scheduling and Publishing Service
- D.
  
  Web Intelligence Scheduling and Replication Service
Correct Answer
C. Web Intelligence Scheduling and Publishing Service

Explanation
The Web Intelligence Scheduling and Publishing Service needs to be selected in the Adaptive Job Server to allow Web Intelligence documents to be scheduled. This service is specifically designed to handle the scheduling and publishing of Web Intelligence documents, ensuring that they are executed and delivered according to the specified schedule. By selecting this service in the Adaptive Job Server, users can easily schedule and automate the generation and distribution of Web Intelligence documents.

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25.

How do you use a configuration template for the Input File Repository Server (FRS)?
- A.
  
  In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), stop the Input FRS, in the Input FRS properties, check Use Configuration Template.
- B.
  
  In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), in the Input FRS properties, select Use Configuration Template
- C.
  
  In the Central Management Console (CMC), in the Server Template area, click Use Configuration Template
- D.
  
  In the Central Management Console (CMC), in the Servers area, in the Input FRS properties, select Use Configuration Template
Correct Answer
D. In the Central Management Console (CMC), in the Servers area, in the Input FRS properties, select Use Configuration Template

Explanation
To use a configuration template for the Input File Repository Server (FRS), you need to go to the Central Management Console (CMC) and navigate to the Servers area. From there, you should select the Input FRS properties and then choose the option "Use Configuration Template". This allows you to apply a pre-defined configuration template to the Input FRS, which can help streamline the setup and configuration process.

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26.

Single Sign-On for Java InfoView has improved since BusinessObjects Enterprise XI R2 with Active Directory (AD). Which authentication method does BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0 use with AD?
- A.
  
  LAN Manager
- B.
  
  Kerberos
- C.
  
  Sesame
- D.
  
  IBM KryptoKnight
Correct Answer
B. Kerberos

Explanation
BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0 uses Kerberos as the authentication method with Active Directory (AD). Kerberos is a network authentication protocol that provides secure authentication for client/server applications. It uses tickets to verify the identity of users and allows them to access resources without the need to re-enter their credentials. This authentication method offers improved security and convenience for users accessing Java InfoView with Single Sign-On.

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27.

Which parameter does InfoView use to log you in?
- A.
  
  Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) port
- B.
  
  Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) name
- C.
  
  Central Management Server (CMS) name
- D.
  
  Repository port
Correct Answer
C. Central Management Server (CMS) name

Explanation
InfoView uses the Central Management Server (CMS) name to log you in. The CMS is responsible for managing the BusinessObjects environment and acts as a central hub for user authentication and authorization. By providing the CMS name, InfoView can establish a connection to the correct CMS and verify your credentials, allowing you to access the necessary reports and documents.

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28.

Which three Publishing steps would you use for Single pass report bursting? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  Create User Profiles
- B.
  
  Create the Publication Object
- C.
  
  Create the Web Publication Object
- D.
  
  Schedule the Publication Object
Correct Answer(s)
A. Create User Profiles
B. Create the Publication Object
D. Schedule the Publication Object

Explanation
To implement single pass report bursting, three publishing steps need to be followed. Firstly, user profiles need to be created to define the recipients of the bursted reports. Secondly, the publication object needs to be created, which includes selecting the report to be bursted and specifying the burst criteria. Lastly, the publication object needs to be scheduled to determine the frequency and timing of the report bursting. The creation of the web publication object is not necessary for single pass report bursting.

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29.

Which two options are available for resolving publication profile conflicts? (Choose two.)
- A.
  
  Do not merge
- B.
  
  Merge
- C.
  
  Advanced
- D.
  
  Custom access
Correct Answer(s)
A. Do not merge
B. Merge

Explanation
The two options available for resolving publication profile conflicts are "Do not merge" and "Merge". The "Do not merge" option means that the conflicting profiles will not be merged and will remain separate. The "Merge" option, on the other hand, allows for the conflicting profiles to be combined into one.

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30.

Which two types of access levels can be combined in BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0? (Choose two.)
- A.
  
  Profiles
- B.
  
  Clone
- C.
  
  Predefined
- D.
  
  Custom
Correct Answer(s)
C. Predefined
D. Custom

Explanation
In BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0, the access levels that can be combined are Predefined and Custom. Predefined access levels are predefined sets of permissions that are provided by the system, while Custom access levels are created by the user and can be tailored to specific needs. By combining these two types of access levels, users can have a combination of predefined permissions and custom permissions to access and manage different resources within the system.

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31.

Which component Starts the Central Management Server (CMS)?
- A.
  
  Adaptive Job Server
- B.
  
  Windows Service Control Manager
- C.
  
  Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)
- D.
  
  Central Configuration Manager (CCM)
Correct Answer
C. Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)

Explanation
The Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) is responsible for starting the Central Management Server (CMS). The SIA is a component of the SAP BusinessObjects platform that manages the lifecycle of servers and services. It is responsible for starting, stopping, and monitoring the CMS, as well as other server processes. Therefore, the SIA is the correct component that starts the CMS.

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32.

You have an existing Business Intelligence deployment that includes Web Intelligence. Your business group has asked you to deploy Crystal On Demand. Which configuration would you define for the new quad machines?
- A.
  
  Two Crystal Reports Cache Servers and two Adaptive Processing Servers
- B.
  
  Four Crystal Reports Cache Servers and two Crystal Reports Processing Servers
- C.
  
  Two Crystal Reports Cache Servers and one Adaptive Processing Server
- D.
  
  Two Crystal Reports Cache Servers and one Crystal Reports Processing Server
Correct Answer
D. Two Crystal Reports Cache Servers and one Crystal Reports Processing Server

Explanation
The correct configuration for the new quad machines would be to have two Crystal Reports Cache Servers and one Crystal Reports Processing Server. This configuration allows for efficient caching of Crystal Reports, which helps improve performance and response time. The Crystal Reports Processing Server is responsible for processing and generating the reports, while the Cache Servers store and serve the cached reports to users. Having two Cache Servers ensures redundancy and high availability.

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33.

When using two-way replication, which server initiates the Replication Job?
- A.
  
  Central Management Server (CMS) on the Origin system
- B.
  
  Central Management Server (CMS) on the Destination system
- C.
  
  Event Server on the Origin system
- D.
  
  Event Server on the Destination system
Correct Answer
B. Central Management Server (CMS) on the Destination system

Explanation
In two-way replication, the Central Management Server (CMS) on the Destination system initiates the Replication Job. This means that the CMS on the Destination system is responsible for starting the replication process between the two systems. The CMS on the Origin system does not initiate the replication job in this scenario.

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34.

How do you modify the properties of the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) from the Central Configuration Manager (CCM)?
- A.
  
  Stop the Central Management Server (CMS) and view the Properties tab for the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)
- B.
  
  Stop the Web Application Server (WAS) and view its Properties tab
- C.
  
  Stop the SIA and select the Configure Bootstrap icon in menu bar
- D.
  
  Stop the SIA, select Properties and then click the Startup tab
Correct Answer
D. Stop the SIA, select Properties and then click the Startup tab

Explanation
To modify the properties of the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) from the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), you need to stop the SIA and then select Properties. After that, click on the Startup tab to make the necessary modifications. This process allows you to access and modify the startup properties of the SIA, enabling you to customize its behavior and settings according to your requirements.

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35.

Which component can be added using the Central Configuration Manager (CCM)?
- A.
  
  Local Central Management Server
- B.
  
  Remote Central Management Server
- C.
  
  .Local Server Intelligence Agent
- D.
  
  Remote Server Intelligence Agent
Correct Answer
C. .Local Server Intelligence Agent

Explanation
The correct answer is ".Local Server Intelligence Agent". This component can be added using the Central Configuration Manager (CCM). The Local Server Intelligence Agent is responsible for managing and monitoring the local server and its resources. It allows for centralized control and configuration of the local server, providing a convenient way to manage and administer the server's intelligence capabilities.

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36.

What is a dynamic recipient?
- A.
  
  A document that is dynamically updated by a recipient
- B.
  
  A publication recipient that exists inside the BusinessObjects Enterprise System
- C.
  
  A publication recipient that exists outside the BusinessObjects Enterprise System
- D.
  
  A publication recipient that has no profile
Correct Answer
C. A publication recipient that exists outside the BusinessObjects Enterprise System

Explanation
A dynamic recipient refers to a publication recipient that exists outside the BusinessObjects Enterprise System. This means that the recipient is not a part of the system itself but can still receive dynamically updated documents from it.

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37.

Which three are report bursting methods? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  One database fetch for each publication
- B.
  
  One database fetch for each batch of recipients
- C.
  
  One database fetch for all publications
- D.
  
  One database fetch per recipient
Correct Answer(s)
A. One database fetch for each publication
B. One database fetch for each batch of recipients
D. One database fetch per recipient

Explanation
The question is asking for the report bursting methods. Report bursting is a process where a single report is automatically split into multiple reports and distributed to different recipients. The correct answers are: One database fetch for each publication, which means that the report data is fetched from the database once for each publication; One database fetch for each batch of recipients, which means that the report data is fetched from the database once for each batch of recipients; and One database fetch per recipient, which means that the report data is fetched from the database separately for each recipient.

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38.

How do you create a silent installation response file named setup_file.ini?
- A.
  
  Run setup.exe with ilent parameter switch
- B.
  
  Run setup.exe and then the silent install Option
- C.
  
  Run setup.exe with /qb setup_file.ini parameter switch
- D.
  
  Run setup.exe with setup_file.ini parameter switch
Correct Answer
D. Run setup.exe with setup_file.ini parameter switch

Explanation
To create a silent installation response file named setup_file.ini, you need to run setup.exe with the setup_file.ini parameter switch. This means that you include the setup_file.ini file as a parameter when executing the setup.exe file. This allows the setup program to read the instructions and settings from the response file, enabling a silent installation without any user interaction.

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39.

Which version of Apache Tomcat is shipped with BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0?
- A.
  
  3.3
- B.
  
  4.1
- C.
  
  5.5
- D.
  
  6.0
Correct Answer
C. 5.5

Explanation
BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0 is shipped with Apache Tomcat version 5.5.

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40.

How do you add additional Services to an Adaptive Processing Server?
- A.
  
  Start the Adaptive Processing Server, choose Select Services in the Actions menu
- B.
  
  Start the Adaptive Processing Server, choose Clone Server in the Actions menu
- C.
  
  Stop the Adaptive Processing Server, choose Properties in the Manage menu
- D.
  
  Stop the Adaptive Processing Server, choose Select Services in the Actions menu
Correct Answer
D. Stop the Adaptive Processing Server, choose Select Services in the Actions menu

Explanation
To add additional services to an Adaptive Processing Server, the server needs to be stopped first. Then, in the Actions menu, the option to select services should be chosen. This allows for the selection and addition of the desired services to the server configuration.

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41.

Which two features are new to the BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0 security model? (Choose two.)
- A.
  
  Custom Access Levels
- B.
  
  Predefined Access Levels
- C.
  
  Server Intelligence
- D.
  
  Scope of Rights
Correct Answer(s)
A. Custom Access Levels
D. Scope of Rights

Explanation
The two features that are new to the BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0 security model are Custom Access Levels and Scope of Rights. Custom Access Levels allow users to define their own access levels based on their specific requirements. Scope of Rights allows users to assign rights to specific objects or folders within the system, giving them more granular control over access permissions. These new features enhance the flexibility and customization options available in the security model of BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0.

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42.

You would like to audit Desktop Intelligence. You can login successfully to Desktop Intelligence in 2-tier mode, but the Auditing folder on the Server is empty. Which Server should be both turned on and enabled to enable Desktop Intelligence auditing?
- A.
  
  Adaptive Processing Server
- B.
  
  Desktop Intelligence Processing Server
- C.
  
  .Desktop Intelligence Cache Server
- D.
  
  Adaptive Job Server
Correct Answer
A. Adaptive Processing Server

Explanation
To enable Desktop Intelligence auditing, the Adaptive Processing Server should be both turned on and enabled. This server is responsible for managing and executing tasks related to auditing in Desktop Intelligence. Without the Adaptive Processing Server being turned on and enabled, the Auditing folder on the server will remain empty, indicating that auditing is not functioning properly.

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43.

Which three are profile values? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  Static values
- B.
  
  Expressions
- C.
  
  Variables
- D.
  
  Universe objects
Correct Answer(s)
A. Static values
B. Expressions
C. Variables

Explanation
Profile values are values that can be assigned to a user's profile in a system. Static values are fixed values that do not change. Expressions are formulas or calculations that can be used to derive a value. Variables are placeholders for values that can be assigned or changed. Universe objects, on the other hand, are not profile values. They are objects used for creating reports and queries in business intelligence systems.

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44.

Which server is impacted by the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) startup account?
- A.
  
  Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)
- B.
  
  All processing Servers in the cluster
- C.
  
  Central Management Server (CMS)
- D.
  
  .Any server managed by the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)
Correct Answer
D. .Any server managed by the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)

Explanation
The Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) startup account impacts any server managed by the SIA. This means that the SIA startup account is responsible for managing and controlling the operations of all servers that are under the supervision of the SIA. Therefore, the startup account has the ability to impact and influence the functioning of any server that falls under its management.

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45.

How do you specify the auto-start option for the Event Server?
- A.
  
  Login to the Central Management Console (CMC), select the Servers icon, select a Node and click Manage Object Properties
- B.
  
  Login to the Central Management Console (CMC), select the Servers icon, select a Server from the list and then click Manage Object Properties
- C.
  
  Launch the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), select Server Intelligence Agent and select View Properties
- D.
  
  Launch the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), select the Server Intelligence Agent and click Manage Servers
Correct Answer
B. Login to the Central Management Console (CMC), select the Servers icon, select a Server from the list and then click Manage Object Properties

Explanation
To specify the auto-start option for the Event Server, you need to login to the Central Management Console (CMC), select the Servers icon, choose a Server from the list, and then click on Manage Object Properties. This allows you to access the server's properties and configure the auto-start option as desired.

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46.

Which three objects can you import from BCA Publisher 6.5 to BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  Extemal Recipients
- B.
  
  Hierarchical Reports
- C.
  
  Publications
- D.
  
  Profiles
Correct Answer(s)
A. Extemal Recipients
C. Publications
D. Profiles

Explanation
In BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0, you can import three objects from BCA Publisher 6.5. These objects are External Recipients, Publications, and Profiles. External Recipients are individuals or groups outside the organization who can receive reports or publications. Publications are collections of reports or documents that can be scheduled and distributed to users. Profiles are sets of predefined settings that can be applied to reports or documents for consistent formatting and layout.

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47.

Which three Web Application Servers (WAS) does wdeploy support in standalone mode for BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0? (Choose three.)
- A.
  
  WebLogic
- B.
  
  JBoss
- C.
  
  WebSphere
- D.
  
  JRun
Correct Answer(s)
A. WebLogic
B. JBoss
C. WebSpHere

Explanation
wdeploy supports WebLogic, JBoss, and WebSphere as Web Application Servers (WAS) in standalone mode for BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0. JRun is not supported in this context.

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48.

Which Server must be running in order for you to be able to delete the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)?
- A.
  
  File Repository Server (FRS)
- B.
  
  Central Management Server (CMS)
- C.
  
  Web Application Server (WAS)
- D.
  
  Web Server
Correct Answer
B. Central Management Server (CMS)

Explanation
The Central Management Server (CMS) must be running in order to delete the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA). The CMS is responsible for managing and controlling all the server components in the BusinessObjects system, including the SIA. Without the CMS running, there would be no centralized control and management of the server components, making it impossible to delete the SIA. The other servers listed (File Repository Server, Web Application Server, and Web Server) do not have the authority to delete the SIA.

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49.

Where do you configure the auditing of the Document Edited action for Desktop Intelligence users?
- A.
  
  Under Settings in the Desktop Intelligence dient
- B.
  
  In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Audit Events for the Adaptive Processing Server
- C.
  
  In the Central Management Console, (CMC) under Audit Events for the Central Management Server (CMS)
- D.
  
  In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Audit Events for the Desktop Intelligence application
Correct Answer
D. In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Audit Events for the Desktop Intelligence application
50.

How do you clone the Input File Repository Server (FRS) Service?
- A.
  
  In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), click on the Input FRS and click the Clone button.
- B.
  
  In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), click on the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) and expand it. Highlight Input FRS and click the Clone button.
- C.
  
  In the Central Management Console (CMC), in the Servers area, highlight Input FRS and from the Actions menu, select Clone Server
- D.
  
  In the Central Management Console (CMC), in the Clone Servers area, right-click Input FRS, select Clone Server.
Correct Answer
C. In the Central Management Console (CMC), in the Servers area, highlight Input FRS and from the Actions menu, select Clone Server

Explanation
To clone the Input File Repository Server (FRS) Service, you need to go to the Central Management Console (CMC), navigate to the Servers area, and select Input FRS. From the Actions menu, choose the option to Clone Server. This will create a copy of the Input FRS Service.

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Boe - Sabe501 Certification

Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?

Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)? (Choose three.)

Which web language was used to develop InfoView?

How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?

Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?

Which replication object would you schedule?

Which three application Servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose three.)

Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?

Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?

What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two successful instances?

A user belongs to both Group 1 and Group 2 and you want that user to see a specific folder. What folder security settings would you use to enable the user to view the folder?

What action would the Deployment Diagnostic Tool take when an InfoObject exists in the Central Management Server (CMS) System database, but the corresponding file cannot be found in the File Repository Server (FRS)?

What is the difference between one-way replication and two-way replication?

Which Statement is true of a Single Replication Job?

You are migrating content into a new System. Which task must you perform to maintain the System integrity (CUID)?

Which three parameters can you specify in the command line for wdeploy? (Choose three.)

In which two locations could you configure the port numbers for the local Central Management Server (CMS)? (Choose two.)

Which Servers should you examine if you are unable to schedule a Web Intelligence document? (Choose three.)

How do you change the System database properties for the Central Management Server (CMS)?

Where do you configure the Login action for Desktop Intelligence users in a 3-tier mode?

Which three objects can be migrated from a Development XI 3.0 Repository to a Production XI 3.0 Repository using the Import Wizard? (Choose three.)

Which server distributes publications?

Which three pre-defined Wizard? (Choose three.)

Which service needs to be selected in the Adaptive Job Server to allow Web Intelligence documents to be scheduled?

How do you use a configuration template for the Input File Repository Server (FRS)?

Single Sign-On for Java InfoView has improved since BusinessObjects Enterprise XI R2 with Active Directory (AD). Which authentication method does BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0 use with AD?

Which parameter does InfoView use to log you in?

Which three Publishing steps would you use for Single pass report bursting? (Choose three.)

Which two options are available for resolving publication profile conflicts? (Choose two.)

Which two types of access levels can be combined in BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0? (Choose two.)

Which component Starts the Central Management Server (CMS)?

You have an existing Business Intelligence deployment that includes Web Intelligence. Your business group has asked you to deploy Crystal On Demand. Which configuration would you define for the new quad machines?

When using two-way replication, which server initiates the Replication Job?

How do you modify the properties of the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) from the Central Configuration Manager (CCM)?

Which component can be added using the Central Configuration Manager (CCM)?

What is a dynamic recipient?

Which three are report bursting methods? (Choose three.)

How do you create a silent installation response file named setup_file.ini?

Which version of Apache Tomcat is shipped with BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0?

How do you add additional Services to an Adaptive Processing Server?

Which two features are new to the BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0 security model? (Choose two.)

You would like to audit Desktop Intelligence. You can login successfully to Desktop Intelligence in 2-tier mode, but the Auditing folder on the Server is empty. Which Server should be both turned on and enabled to enable Desktop Intelligence auditing?

Which three are profile values? (Choose three.)

Which server is impacted by the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) startup account?

How do you specify the auto-start option for the Event Server?

Which three objects can you import from BCA Publisher 6.5 to BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0? (Choose three.)

Which three Web Application Servers (WAS) does wdeploy support in standalone mode for BusinessObjects Enterprise XI 3.0? (Choose three.)

Which Server must be running in order for you to be able to delete the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)?

Where do you configure the auditing of the Document Edited action for Desktop Intelligence users?

How do you clone the Input File Repository Server (FRS) Service?