California Nursing Academy Nursing Assistant State Practice Exam 4
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Swelling caused by excess fluid in body tissues is called:
A.
Fluid intake
B.
Diarrhea
C.
Perspiration
D.
Edema
Correct Answer
D. Edema
Explanation Fluid held in body tissues that may make them swell is edema.
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2.
When assisting a patient to use the bedside commode, it is important to:
A.
Leave the signal cord within reach
B.
Place toilet tissue close by
C.
Return to check on the patient periodically
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation When assisting a patient to use the bedside commode, it is important to leave the signal cord within reach so that the patient can call for assistance if needed. Placing toilet tissue close by ensures that the patient can maintain hygiene during and after using the commode. Returning to check on the patient periodically is crucial to ensure their safety and well-being while using the commode. Therefore, all of the above options are important when assisting a patient to use the bedside commode.
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3.
The best food choices for a geriatric patient with no teeth would include:
A.
Hamburger, French fries, corn, and ice cream
B.
Baked chicken, dressing, green beans, and coconut macaroons
C.
Spare ribs, macaroni and cheese, coleslaw, and fruit cocktail
D.
Baked fish, whipped potatoes, spinach souffle and tapioca
Correct Answer
D. Baked fish, whipped potatoes, spinach souffle and tapioca
Explanation D is a soft diet.
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4.
Which of the following is true regarding visually challenged residents?
A.
Blind patients use a "clock" system to located food.
B.
Residents usually prefer to treat alone.
C.
Patients prefer to be fed to prevent spills.
D.
All of the above are true.
Correct Answer
A. Blind patients use a "clock" system to located food.
Explanation Most blind patients can feed themselves in a dining room setting if they can visualize their food on a plate. A clock system allows them to this.
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5.
Sputum is material that is coughed up from the:
A.
Nose
B.
Lungs
C.
Throat
D.
Stomach
Correct Answer
B. Lungs
Explanation Sputum is material that is coughed up from the lungs. It consists of mucus, cellular debris, and sometimes pus or blood. When a person coughs, the sputum is expelled from the respiratory tract, specifically from the lungs. This can occur due to various respiratory conditions such as bronchitis, pneumonia, or tuberculosis. Analyzing the characteristics of sputum, such as color, consistency, and odor, can provide valuable information for diagnosing and monitoring respiratory diseases.
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6.
The purpose of cold applications is usually to:
A.
Speed the flow of blood to the area
B.
Prevent heat exhaustion
C.
Prevent or reduce swelling
D.
Prevent the formation of scar tissue
Correct Answer
C. Prevent or reduce swelling
Explanation to prevent and reduce swelling.
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7.
A procedure manual is a:
A.
Written set of instructions on how to perform procedures
B.
Set of directions needed to complete your job description
C.
Book of directions for administering medications
D.
Book listing the procedures you have been assigned to do
Correct Answer
A. Written set of instructions on how to perform procedures
Explanation A procedure manual is a written set of instructions on how to perform procedures. It serves as a guide or reference for individuals to follow step-by-step instructions in order to carry out specific tasks or processes. This manual provides detailed information and guidelines on the correct methods, techniques, and protocols to be followed while performing the procedures. It helps ensure consistency, accuracy, and efficiency in carrying out tasks, and also serves as a valuable resource for training new employees or refreshing existing employees on established procedures.
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8.
Safe use of oxygen therapy includes:
A.
Always setting the flow meter at 2-3 liters per minute
B.
Using wool blankets only
C.
Cleansing the nasal prongs each shift with alcohol
D.
Posting a "no smoking' sign on the door
Correct Answer
D. Posting a "no smoking' sign on the door
Explanation A wrong because flow is set by the physician
B wrong because wool can cause sparks
C wrong because alcohol causes drying.
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9.
If a resident asks a question you cannot answer, you should:
A.
Tell the resident you will look it up
B.
Ask the charge nurse to talk to the resident about it
C.
Call the doctor to talk to the resident
D.
Tell the resident that you cannot answer the question
Correct Answer
B. Ask the charge nurse to talk to the resident about it
Explanation If a resident asks a question that the caregiver cannot answer, it is appropriate to ask the charge nurse to talk to the resident about it. This is because the charge nurse is likely to have more knowledge and experience to address the resident's concerns or questions. It ensures that the resident receives accurate and reliable information from a qualified professional.
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10.
You would shampoo a resident's hair to improve:
A.
Circulation to the scalp
B.
The resident's general appearance
C.
The resident's feeling of well-being
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation All are expected outcomes of a shampoo.
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11.
If a resident is receiving forced-fluid treatment, you should:
A.
Provide at least 2,000 cc of fluid per shift
B.
Provide high-protein fluids
C.
Offer liquids every two hours
D.
Do all of the above
Correct Answer
C. Offer liquids every two hours
Explanation A is incorrect because the doctor should specify the amount of liquid. Choice b is incorrect because a force-fluid diet is different from high-protein fluids.
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12.
A fracture-type bedpan is used for residents who:
A.
Are in traction
B.
Have had hip surgery
C.
Have a back injury
D.
Have any of the above conditions
Correct Answer
D. Have any of the above conditions
Explanation A fracture type bedpan can be used by any patient who should not be lifted or turned.
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13.
Which of the following vital signs should be reported immediately?
A.
T-98.6, P-70, R-14, BP-120/60
B.
T-95.4, P-40, R-10, BP-80/40
C.
T-98.8 "R", P-60, BP-132/70
D.
T-97.6 "A", P-78, R-16, BP-110/60
Correct Answer
B. T-95.4, P-40, R-10, BP-80/40
Explanation B vs are very low.
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14.
The order "vital signs QID " means to record vital signs:
A.
Four times per day
B.
Twice per day
C.
Morning and evening
D.
Once per shift
Correct Answer
A. Four times per day
Explanation The order "vital signs QID" means that the vital signs need to be recorded four times per day. This indicates that the healthcare provider should measure and document the patient's vital signs, such as blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature, four times in a 24-hour period. This frequency allows for regular monitoring of the patient's health status and helps healthcare professionals to identify any changes or abnormalities in the vital signs.
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15.
Which statement about horseplay and practical jokes is correct?
A.
They are permitted if no one is insulted
B.
They are acceptable during breaks
C.
They can cause accidents and are unacceptable
D.
They are allowed because they cheer up the residents and usually do not cause accidents
Correct Answer
C. They can cause accidents and are unacceptable
Explanation The role of the caregiver is to act professional and focus on patient care.
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16.
Mrs. Wilson complains of numbness on one side of her body. You notice that her grip is weak and her speech is slurred. You should:
A.
Realized that this may be a sign of a CVA and notify the charge nurse
B.
Call the doctor and tell him Mrs. Wilson had a CVA
C.
Check too see if Mrs. Wilson's condition is the same the next day
D.
Accept the condition as normal and reassure Mrs. Wilson
Correct Answer
A. Realized that this may be a sign of a CVA and notify the charge nurse
Explanation Mrs. Wilson's symptoms of numbness on one side of her body, weak grip, and slurred speech are indicative of a CVA (cerebrovascular accident), also known as a stroke. It is important to recognize these signs and take immediate action. Notifying the charge nurse allows for prompt medical attention to be provided to Mrs. Wilson, increasing the chances of a favorable outcome. Calling the doctor and informing them about the possibility of a CVA would also be a suitable course of action. However, checking Mrs. Wilson's condition the next day or accepting the condition as normal would not be appropriate responses in this situation.
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17.
Another name for urination is:
A.
Defecation
B.
Voiding
C.
Wetting the bed
D.
Flatus
Correct Answer
B. Voiding
Explanation The term "voiding" is another name for urination. It refers to the process of emptying the bladder by releasing urine. This term is commonly used in medical and healthcare settings to describe the act of urinating. It is a more formal and technical term compared to other options listed such as "defecation" (which refers to bowel movements), "wetting the bed" (which refers to involuntary urination during sleep), and "flatus" (which refers to passing gas).
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18.
Nonverbal communication includes:
A.
Talking to the resident
B.
Observing the resident's body language
C.
Asking the resident if he/she is in pain
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. Observing the resident's body language
Explanation Nonverbal communication includes observing the resident's body language. This is because nonverbal cues such as facial expressions, gestures, and posture can convey important information about a person's emotions, thoughts, and physical well-being. By paying attention to these nonverbal cues, healthcare professionals can gain insights into a resident's comfort level, pain, or discomfort, even if they are unable to verbally communicate. This allows for better understanding and more effective care.
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19.
If a resident complains of a burning, tingling skin area, you should first:
A.
Rub the area well with lotion
B.
Report the complaint to the licensed nurse
C.
Keep an eye on the area for a few days
D.
Use cornstarch on the area
Correct Answer
B. Report the complaint to the licensed nurse
Explanation This may be an indication of a serious condition and should be reported immediately.
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20.
Special protective devices used to decrease the risk of decubitus ulcers include the:
A.
Egg carton mattress
B.
Hoyer lift
C.
Walker
D.
Orthotic device
Correct Answer
A. Egg carton mattress
Explanation The egg carton stimulates the skin and allows for ventilation around the skin.
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21.
Keeping a resident's bed linens dry and tight helps to prevent:
A.
Bacteria from growing
B.
Decubitus ulcers
C.
Wrinkles
D.
Skin diseases
Correct Answer
B. Decubitus ulcers
Explanation Wrinkles in the linen cause skin irritations, which lead to breakdown of the tissue and possible decubitus.
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22.
If you are asked to clean or put a soak on a resident's eye, you should:
A.
Clean it from the inner corner to the outer edge
B.
Use a clean surface of the cloth each time you touch the eye
C.
Report any exudate
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation Cleaning from the inside outward prevents contamination from the other eye. Using a clean cloth and reporting any drainage promotes healing.
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23.
Mrs. Nelson has a right-sided weakness. For her mouth care, you should:
A.
Do it for her
B.
Pay particular attention to the left side of the mouth
C.
Tell her to get out the equipment an do it herself
D.
Let her do as much as she can and assist as needed
Correct Answer
D. Let her do as much as she can and assist as needed
Explanation Encourage independence as much as possible.
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24.
Beth is a 58-year-old permanently handicapped resident. She tends to be very quiet and to act as if nothing matters. You can best show respect for her by:
A.
Telling her she is very lucky to retire so early
B.
Including her in care planning conferences
C.
Serving her dinner first
D.
Calling her "Mom"
Correct Answer
B. Including her in care planning conferences
Explanation Allow Beth to make decisions about her health care. This will prevent depression and allow her to make choices.
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25.
The enzyme secreted by the liver to help digest fat is:
A.
Bile
B.
Insulin
C.
Estrogen
D.
Lactose
Correct Answer
A. Bile
Explanation Bile is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that is secreted by the liver to aid in the digestion and absorption of fats. Bile helps to emulsify fats, breaking them down into smaller droplets that can be more easily digested by enzymes in the small intestine. It also helps in the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.
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26.
Which abbreviation means no food and no water should be given?
A.
NFL
B.
PON
C.
NPO
D.
NBA
Correct Answer
C. NPO
Explanation The abbreviation NPO stands for "nothing by mouth" or "nil per os" in Latin. It is used in medical settings to indicate that a patient should not be given any food or water orally. This may be necessary before certain medical procedures, surgeries, or when a patient is unable to safely swallow. It is important to follow NPO orders to prevent complications and ensure the patient's safety during medical interventions.
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27.
The material in the digestive tract that helps provide lubrication for passage of food is:
A.
Stomach acid
B.
Sputum
C.
Mucus
D.
Phlegm
Correct Answer
C. Mucus
Explanation The material in the digestive tract that helps provide lubrication for food passage is mucus.
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28.
The abbreviation TPN stands for:
A.
Total protein nutrients
B.
Total parenteral nutrition
C.
Total parietal nutrients
D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Total parenteral nutrition
Explanation While rare in the past, this kind of nutrition is much more common in long-term care today. It is also called hyperalimentation.
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29.
Ventricle is a term that refers to:
A.
Vessels and chambers in the heart
B.
Chambers of the heart and lungs
C.
Chambers of the heart and kidneys
D.
Chambers of the heart and brain
Correct Answer
D. Chambers of the heart and brain
Explanation Ventricles is a term that refers to the chambers of the heart and brain
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30.
OSHA rules require all health care workers to be offered immunization against:
A.
Hepatitis B
B.
Hepatitis A
C.
Hepatitis C
D.
AIDS
Correct Answer
A. Hepatitis B
Explanation OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) rules mandate that all healthcare workers be offered immunization against hepatitis B. This is because healthcare workers are at a higher risk of exposure to blood and bodily fluids, which can transmit the hepatitis B virus. By offering immunization, employers can protect their healthcare workers from contracting and spreading the virus in the workplace. Immunization against hepatitis A, hepatitis C, and AIDS may also be recommended, but it is not specifically required by OSHA rules.
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31.
Which of the following activities should be included in personal daily hygiene?
A.
Shaving male resident
B.
Hair care
C.
Oral hygiene
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation All of the above activities should be included in personal daily hygiene. Shaving for male residents helps maintain a clean and groomed appearance. Hair care, such as brushing and washing, is important for cleanliness and preventing scalp issues. Oral hygiene, including brushing teeth and using mouthwash, is crucial for maintaining dental health and preventing bad breath. Including all of these activities in daily hygiene routine ensures overall cleanliness and well-being.
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32.
You are removing a soiled gown from a resident who has an IV. You should:
A.
Remove the opposite arm from the gown first
B.
Have the nurse remove the IV needle
C.
Disconnect the bag and tubing
D.
Slip the gown over the IV solution bag
Correct Answer
A. Remove the opposite arm from the gown first
Explanation Remove the sleeve from the arm without tubing first.
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33.
Using the Bass method, a patient's teeth are to be brushed:
A.
Up and down
B.
For at least ten minutes
C.
With circular motion
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. With circular motion
Explanation A circular motion cleans tooth surfaces best.
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34.
Which of the following statements about ROM is False?
A.
Active ROM means the resident does the exercise
B.
Passive ROM means the nursing assistant does the exercises
C.
Active ROM means the nursing assistant does the exercises
D.
Active ROM is best, if possible
Correct Answer
C. Active ROM means the nursing assistant does the exercises
Explanation Active ROM means the resident moves his or her won limbs.
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35.
When a resident with a cast complains of itching the nursing assistant should:
A.
Wash the exposed skin and pat dry
B.
Discourage the resident from scratching
C.
Report it to the charge nurse
D.
Do all of the above
Correct Answer
D. Do all of the above
Explanation Due to build up of old, dry skin cells, a resident with a cast may complain of itching.
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36.
Correct ROM for the neck includes:
A.
Pronation, supination, flexion
B.
Rotation, abduction, adduction
C.
Abductioon, adduction, flexion, extension
D.
Flexion, extension, rotation
Correct Answer
D. Flexion, extension, rotation
Explanation the neck is only capable of moving forward, backward, and side to side. Therefore, choice D is correct.
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37.
Which statement about the handwashing procedure is correct?
A.
The faucet is clean and may be touched during handwashing
B.
Wash at least two inches above the wrist
C.
As long as soap is used, the temperature of the water doesn't matter
D.
All of the above are correct
Correct Answer
B. Wash at least two inches above the wrist
Explanation Washing at least two inches above the wrist is the correct statement about the handwashing procedure. This is because washing above the wrist ensures that all areas of the hands and wrists are thoroughly cleaned, including the areas that are most likely to come into contact with contaminants. By washing above the wrist, it helps to prevent the spread of germs and maintain good hand hygiene.
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38.
The call light in the shower comes on. As you enter the shower, you find Mrs. Shepard lying on the floor. You should immediately.
A.
Run back to the nurse's station to get help
B.
Help her to a chair, and then resume her shower
C.
Shake her and shout "Are you okay?"
D.
Scold her for not asking for assistance with her shower
Correct Answer
C. Shake her and shout "Are you okay?"
Explanation Shake and shout to determine if the patient is oriented.
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39.
Giving good oral care to a resident includes all of the following except:
A.
Wearing gloves
B.
Handling and storing dentures carefully
C.
Using dental floss
D.
Removing oxygen before brushing
Correct Answer
D. Removing oxygen before brushing
Explanation Oxygen does not interfere with oral hygiene.
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40.
Which statement about dressing residents is correct?
A.
Dressing is a waste of time for a handicapped person
B.
Residents are used to dressing in front of others
C.
Residents care about what they wear
D.
Resident like the nurse aide to dress them
Correct Answer
C. Residents care about what they wear
Explanation Self-esteem promotes wellness. We all want to look nice and care about our personal appearance.
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41.
After Mr. Hall's stroke, his right arm is weak and stiff. He should be taught to:
A.
Put his right arm into his shirt first
B.
Put his left arm into his shirt first
C.
Put both arms in the shirt at the same time
D.
Wear a gown to make dressing easier
Correct Answer
A. Put his right arm into his shirt first
Explanation Always put the affected limb into the clothing first to prevent any injury to the limb.
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42.
When washing a resident's hair, you should:
A.
Use no shampoo to protect his eyes
B.
Use plastic to protect his eyes
C.
Wash and rinse the hair well while protecting his eyes
D.
Use baby shampoo only, protecting his eyes
Correct Answer
A. Use no shampoo to protect his eyes
Explanation Soap is irritating to the eyes. Use a washcloth or towel over the eyes.
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43.
If a patient is in traction, you should not:
A.
Monitor affected skin temperature
B.
Give a complete bedbath
C.
Change the position of the weights
D.
Monitor distal pulses
Correct Answer
C. Change the position of the weights
Explanation Changing the position of weights requires a doctor's order.
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44.
When assisting a blind resident to eat, you should set the plate up as a:
A.
Clock face
B.
Human face
C.
Pyramid
D.
Calculator
Correct Answer
A. Clock face
Explanation When assisting a blind resident to eat, setting the plate up as a clock face would be the most appropriate option. This means arranging the food items on the plate in a circular pattern, similar to the numbers on a clock. By doing so, the blind individual can easily locate different food items by using their sense of touch and spatial awareness. This arrangement allows them to navigate the plate and find specific foods without assistance, promoting independence and a sense of control during mealtime.
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45.
The major moves in range of motion exercises include:
A.
Abduction and adduction
B.
Flexion and extension
C.
Rotation, supination, and pronation
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation The major moves in range of motion exercises include abduction and adduction, flexion and extension, and rotation, supination, and pronation. These movements involve different joints and muscles in the body and help improve flexibility, strength, and overall joint health. By performing exercises that involve all of these movements, individuals can target various muscle groups and improve their overall range of motion.
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46.
Using your longest and strongest muscles to lift means you should use your:
A.
Arm muscles first
B.
Back muscle first
C.
Leg muscles first
D.
Neck muscles first
Correct Answer
C. Leg muscles first
Explanation The leg muscles are the strongest muscles of the body.
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47.
Correct range of motion for the neck includes:
A.
Flexion, extension, hyperextension, rotation
B.
Abduction, adduction, flexion, extension
C.
Rotation, abduction, adduction, extension
D.
Pronation, supination, flexion
Correct Answer
A. Flexion, extension, hyperextension, rotation
Explanation The correct answer is flexion, extension, hyperextension, rotation. These are the movements that are considered within the normal range of motion for the neck. Flexion refers to bringing the chin towards the chest, extension is the movement of tilting the head backward, hyperextension is an exaggerated extension movement, and rotation is the movement of turning the head from side to side. These movements allow for the normal functioning and flexibility of the neck.
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48.
To help a resident sit up on bed, you should remember to:
A.
Keep your feet close together
B.
Lock hands with the resident
C.
Have the resident put his arms around your neck
D.
Lock arms with the resident
Correct Answer
D. Lock arms with the resident
Explanation Locking arms will allow the patient to help in lifting to a sitting position.
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49.
The phase when the heart is at rest in called:
A.
Systole
B.
Diastole
C.
Asystole
D.
Cardiac arrest
Correct Answer
B. Diastole
Explanation Diastole is the correct answer because it refers to the phase when the heart is at rest. During diastole, the heart's chambers relax and fill with blood before the next contraction. This phase allows the heart to refill with oxygenated blood and prepare for the next cycle of pumping. Systole, on the other hand, is the phase when the heart contracts and pumps blood out of the chambers. Asystole and cardiac arrest both refer to the absence of any heart activity, which is not the correct phase for this question.
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50.
The nursing assistant must use a stethoscope to determine the:
A.
Apical pulse rate
B.
Carotid pulse rate
C.
Popliteal pulse rate
D.
Brachial pulse rate
Correct Answer
A. Apical pulse rate
Explanation The nursing assistant must use a stethoscope to determine the apical pulse rate because the apical pulse is located at the apex of the heart, which is best heard through auscultation. The stethoscope helps amplify the sound of the heartbeat, allowing the nursing assistant to accurately count the number of heartbeats per minute. The carotid pulse rate can be measured by palpating the carotid artery in the neck, the popliteal pulse rate can be measured by palpating the popliteal artery behind the knee, and the brachial pulse rate can be measured by palpating the brachial artery in the upper arm. However, the apical pulse rate is the most accurate reflection of the heart's activity.
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