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Just some questions I made up for my CMA Final Exam. I hope everyone finds it useful! If it was, please feel free to leave some comments on what you liked or disliked about the quiz! Thanks!
Questions and Answers
1.
True or False: As you teach patients how to maintain their health, the medical assistant will also learn how to be healthy, active, and productive?
Explanation As a medical assistant teaches patients how to maintain their health, they will also learn how to be healthy, active, and productive. This is because teaching others about health and wellness requires knowledge and understanding of these concepts, which can then be applied to one's own life. Additionally, being involved in promoting and supporting the health of others can serve as a motivation and reminder to prioritize one's own well-being.
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2.
Making healthy food choices gives you the best chance of maintaining _______________?
A.
Hemostasis
B.
Homeostasis
C.
Hemeostasis
D.
Hemolysis
Correct Answer
B. Homeostasis
Explanation Making healthy food choices gives you the best chance of maintaining homeostasis. Homeostasis refers to the body's ability to maintain a stable internal environment despite external changes. By consuming nutritious foods, the body receives the necessary vitamins, minerals, and energy to support its physiological functions and maintain balance. A healthy diet helps regulate body temperature, blood sugar levels, hormone production, and other essential processes, ensuring optimal health and well-being.
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3.
List three nutrients that are found in the food we eat?
A.
Starch, water, enriched flour
B.
Fiber, proteins, carbohydrates
C.
Vitamins, minerals, fats
D.
Both B and C
Correct Answer
D. Both B and C
Explanation The correct answer is "Both B and C." This is because both options B and C list three nutrients that are found in the food we eat. Option B includes fiber, proteins, and carbohydrates, while option C includes vitamins, minerals, and fats. These nutrients are essential for maintaining a healthy diet and supporting various bodily functions.
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4.
Which of the following is a proper description of carbohydrates?
A.
Lipids in the form of omega-3 fatty acids. Use freely on everything.
B.
Refined sugars. The least caloric value of all carbs
C.
Whole grain brown rice. White rice has 35% more nutrients.
D.
None are correct
Correct Answer
D. None are correct
Explanation None of the given options provide a proper description of carbohydrates. The first option is incorrect as it describes lipids in the form of omega-3 fatty acids, not carbohydrates. The second option is incorrect as it describes refined sugars, which are a type of carbohydrate but not a proper description of all carbohydrates. The third option is incorrect as it compares whole grain brown rice to white rice, stating that white rice has more nutrients, which is not true. Therefore, none of the options are correct descriptions of carbohydrates.
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5.
True or False: If the body has inadequate supplies of glucose to break down for energy, it will catabolize, or break down, fat?
Correct Answer True T
Explanation When the body does not have enough glucose to use as energy, it will turn to fat as an alternative source. This process is known as catabolism, where fat molecules are broken down to release energy. Therefore, the statement is true.
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6.
Which is true about vitamins?
A.
If the right mix of vitamin pills are taken, no other medications should be required
B.
They are organic substances that enhance the breakdown of the food we eat
C.
They are always injested in sufficient quantities without the need for supplements
D.
None of the above are correct
Correct Answer
B. They are organic substances that enhance the breakdown of the food we eat
Explanation Vitamins are organic substances that enhance the breakdown of the food we eat. This means that they play a crucial role in the process of converting food into energy and ensuring that our body functions properly. However, it is important to note that vitamins alone cannot provide all the necessary nutrients for our body, and a balanced diet is still essential. Therefore, taking a mix of vitamin pills does not eliminate the need for other medications or supplements.
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7.
What could be the result of taking too much of any given fat-soluble vitamin?
A.
It could result in serious illness
B.
It could catabolize in the incorrect place
C.
As long is it is from a natural source, there are no concerns
D.
Could cause body fat to shift to different locations of the body
Correct Answer
A. It could result in serious illness
Explanation Taking too much of any fat-soluble vitamin can lead to serious illness. Fat-soluble vitamins, such as vitamins A, D, E, and K, are stored in the body's fat tissues and can accumulate to toxic levels if consumed in excess. This can cause a range of health problems, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, hair loss, bone pain, liver damage, and even death in extreme cases. Therefore, it is important to consume fat-soluble vitamins in moderation and follow the recommended daily intake guidelines to avoid any adverse effects.
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8.
Proteins contain amino acids. What is the function of proteins?
A.
Provide energy
B.
Antibody production
C.
Build and repair tissue
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation Proteins have multiple functions in the body. They provide energy by being broken down into amino acids, which can be used as a source of fuel. Proteins are also involved in antibody production, which helps the immune system fight off infections and diseases. Additionally, proteins play a vital role in building and repairing tissues, such as muscles, organs, and skin. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as proteins perform all these functions.
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9.
True or False: Carbohydrates are chemical substances the provide the body with energy?
Correct Answer True T
Explanation Carbohydrates are indeed chemical substances that provide the body with energy. They are one of the three major macronutrients, along with proteins and fats, and are the body's main source of fuel. When consumed, carbohydrates are broken down into glucose, which is then used by the body to produce energy. Therefore, it is correct to say that carbohydrates provide the body with energy.
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10.
What is fiber's primary function in the body?
A.
To help with the flora in the intestinal tract
B.
To help the digestive system eliminate waste
C.
To help absorb excess stomach acid
D.
To help with the production of stomach acid
Correct Answer
B. To help the digestive system eliminate waste
Explanation Fiber's primary function in the body is to help the digestive system eliminate waste. Fiber adds bulk to the stool, making it easier to pass through the intestines. It also helps to regulate bowel movements and prevent constipation. Additionally, fiber absorbs water, which softens the stool and promotes regularity. By aiding in the elimination of waste, fiber contributes to overall digestive health and prevents gastrointestinal issues.
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11.
_________________________ transport cholesterol from the liver to the walls of large- and medium- sized arteries. This causes plaques to form in the artery.
A.
HDL - High-distribution lipids
B.
LDL - Low-distribution lipoproteins
C.
LDL - Low-density lipoproteins
D.
HDL - High-density lipids
Correct Answer
C. LDL - Low-density lipoproteins
Explanation LDL (Low-density lipoproteins) transport cholesterol from the liver to the walls of large- and medium-sized arteries. This causes plaques to form in the artery. HDL (High-density lipoproteins) on the other hand, help remove cholesterol from the arteries and transport it back to the liver for excretion. Therefore, LDL is the correct answer as it is the lipoprotein responsible for transporting cholesterol to the artery walls, leading to plaque formation.
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12.
_________________________ carry cholesterol from arterial walls back to the liver. Called the "good" cholesterol.
A.
HDL - High-distribution lipids
B.
HDL - High density lipoproteins
C.
HDL - High-density lipids
D.
HDL - High-distribution lipoproteins
Correct Answer
B. HDL - High density lipoproteins
Explanation HDL, or high density lipoproteins, carry cholesterol from arterial walls back to the liver. HDL is often referred to as the "good" cholesterol because it helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream, preventing it from building up in the arteries and reducing the risk of heart disease.
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13.
True or False: Folate is one of the D vitamins that has been found to reduce the risk of neural tube defects in developing fetuses?
Correct Answer False F
Explanation Folate is not one of the D vitamins, but rather a B vitamin. However, it has been found to reduce the risk of neural tube defects in developing fetuses.
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14.
Where are lipoproteins found?
A.
From fish only
B.
From dairy products only
C.
From the body only
D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. From the body only
Explanation Lipoproteins are found in the body only. Lipoproteins are molecules that transport lipids (such as cholesterol and triglycerides) in the bloodstream. They are synthesized in the liver and intestines and are responsible for carrying these fats to various tissues and organs in the body. Lipoproteins play a crucial role in lipid metabolism and are involved in the development of cardiovascular diseases. Therefore, lipoproteins are not exclusively found in fish or dairy products but are present within the human body.
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15.
What consists of both the physical and chemical breakdown of complex food into simpler substances?
A.
Mitosis
B.
Endometriosis
C.
Digestion
D.
Elimination
Correct Answer
C. Digestion
Explanation Digestion consists of both the physical and chemical breakdown of complex food into simpler substances. Physical breakdown occurs through processes like chewing and churning of food in the stomach, while chemical breakdown involves the action of enzymes that break down proteins, carbohydrates, and fats into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body.
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16.
What are the two phases of the process of metabolism?
A.
Anabolism and catabolism
B.
Atabolism and canabolism
C.
Candiosis and Asepsis
D.
Anibation and catibation
Correct Answer
A. Anabolism and catabolism
Explanation Anabolism and catabolism are the two phases of the process of metabolism. Anabolism refers to the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones, usually requiring energy. It involves processes such as protein synthesis and the formation of glycogen. Catabolism, on the other hand, involves the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones, releasing energy in the process. This includes processes like the breakdown of glucose and the oxidation of fatty acids. Both anabolism and catabolism are essential for maintaining the body's energy balance and carrying out various physiological functions.
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17.
True or False: The body manufactures sufficient amounts of cholesterol without taking additional amounts from diet?
Correct Answer true t
Explanation The statement is true. The human body is capable of producing enough cholesterol on its own without the need for additional amounts from the diet. Cholesterol is synthesized primarily in the liver and is essential for various bodily functions, including the production of hormones, vitamin D, and bile acids. However, consuming excessive amounts of cholesterol-rich foods can lead to an imbalance and increase the risk of heart disease. It is important to maintain a balanced diet and limit the intake of saturated and trans fats to promote overall health.
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18.
Which statement is true regarding a healthy diet?
A.
By following dietary guidelines such as MyPyramid will ensure that people will have the best chance of staying healthy
B.
By following a strict low fat diet, any amounts of non-fat foods will ensure a person will stay healthy
C.
By following a strict low carbohydrate diet
D.
By having about five cups from each food group, the diet will make a person healthy
Correct Answer
A. By following dietary guidelines such as MyPyramid will ensure that people will have the best chance of staying healthy
Explanation By following dietary guidelines such as MyPyramid, individuals are more likely to maintain good health. MyPyramid provides recommendations on the amounts of different food groups that should be consumed for a balanced diet. It emphasizes the importance of including a variety of foods from all food groups, ensuring that individuals receive essential nutrients. Following these guidelines can help prevent nutrient deficiencies and promote overall health and well-being.
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19.
What is the purpose of a therapeutic diet?
A.
To ensure that the patient doesn't eat while she should be fasting
B.
To ensure the maximum weight gain for the food consumed
C.
To help the healing process
D.
To promote healthy weight
E.
Both C and D
Correct Answer
E. Both C and D
Explanation A therapeutic diet is designed to serve a specific purpose in promoting the health and well-being of a patient. This can include aiding in the healing process and promoting a healthy weight. By providing the necessary nutrients and avoiding foods that may hinder recovery or contribute to weight gain, a therapeutic diet can support the patient's overall health goals.
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20.
True or False: Excercise has no effect on the immune system?
Correct Answer false f
Explanation Exercise has a significant effect on the immune system. Regular physical activity has been shown to boost the immune system by increasing the circulation of immune cells in the body, reducing inflammation, and enhancing the body's ability to fight off infections. Exercise also helps to improve overall health and well-being, which indirectly supports a strong immune system. Therefore, the statement that exercise has no effect on the immune system is false.
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21.
True or False: Losing a small amount of weight has virtually no effect to a person's health and does not help prevent future weight gain?
Correct Answer false f
Explanation Losing a small amount of weight can have a positive impact on a person's health. Even a modest weight loss can lead to improvements in blood pressure, cholesterol levels, and blood sugar control. It can also reduce the risk of developing chronic conditions such as heart disease, diabetes, and certain types of cancer. Additionally, losing weight can help prevent future weight gain by promoting healthier habits and increasing motivation to maintain a healthy lifestyle. Therefore, the statement that losing a small amount of weight has virtually no effect on a person's health and does not help prevent future weight gain is false.
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22.
The amount of energy used by the body is measured in ______________?
A.
Cavities
B.
Cardiac output
C.
Calories
D.
Heat
Correct Answer
C. Calories
Explanation The amount of energy used by the body is measured in calories. Calories are a unit of measurement for energy, specifically the energy obtained from food and used by the body for various functions such as metabolism, physical activity, and maintaining body temperature. By measuring the number of calories consumed and burned, individuals can manage their energy balance and make informed decisions about their diet and exercise to maintain a healthy weight.
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23.
How should those prone to addiction to alcohol be treated?
A.
They should be looked down upon by moderate drinkers and non-drinkers to help them become moderate drinkers
B.
They should be counseled to switch from liquor to beer or wine
C.
They should be looked upon as a person with an illness and should be treated as such
D.
They should be able to use their own will power to quit drinking if they cannot drink like gentlemen
Correct Answer
C. They should be looked upon as a person with an illness and should be treated as such
Explanation The correct answer suggests that individuals prone to addiction to alcohol should be looked upon as individuals with an illness and should be treated accordingly. This indicates that addiction to alcohol is a medical condition that requires understanding, empathy, and appropriate treatment rather than judgment or stigma. By recognizing addiction as an illness, it promotes a compassionate approach towards helping these individuals overcome their addiction and seek the necessary support and treatment.
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24.
Disease-producing microorganisms are referred to as pathogens. How are they classified?
A.
Bacteria and protozoa
B.
Fungi and viruses
C.
Dust and feces
D.
Both A and B
Correct Answer
D. Both A and B
Explanation Disease-producing microorganisms, also known as pathogens, can be classified into two main categories: bacteria and protozoa, as well as fungi and viruses. Bacteria are single-celled organisms that can cause various diseases, while protozoa are single-celled organisms that can also cause infections. Fungi are multicellular organisms that include molds and yeasts, and they can cause infections in humans. Viruses are microscopic infectious agents that can only replicate inside the cells of other organisms and cause a wide range of diseases. Therefore, both options A (bacteria and protozoa) and B (fungi and viruses) are correct classifications for disease-producing microorganisms.
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25.
Describe the life requirements of microorganisms and pathogens?
A.
Moisture
B.
Nutrients
C.
Temperature
D.
Darkness
E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the above
Explanation Microorganisms and pathogens have certain life requirements in order to survive and thrive. Moisture is essential for their survival as it provides the necessary environment for their metabolic activities. Nutrients are required for their growth and reproduction, as they need a source of energy and building blocks. Temperature plays a crucial role as it affects their metabolic rates and overall survival. Darkness is also important for some microorganisms as they are sensitive to light. Therefore, all of the mentioned factors are necessary for the life requirements of microorganisms and pathogens.
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26.
True or False: Microorganisms can survive freezing or boiling temperatures?
Correct Answer True T
Explanation Microorganisms can indeed survive freezing or boiling temperatures. Some microorganisms, such as certain types of bacteria and fungi, have adapted mechanisms to withstand extreme temperatures. They can enter a dormant state during freezing temperatures and resume activity when conditions become favorable again. Similarly, some microorganisms can survive boiling temperatures by forming heat-resistant spores or protective structures. These adaptations allow them to survive and potentially thrive in environments with extreme temperatures.
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27.
What are the links of the chain of infection?
A.
Portal of entry, point of exit, transmission host vehicle, transmission rescepticle, final stop
B.
Reservoir host, exit from reservoir, vehicle of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host
C.
Exit from reservoir, enter into vehicle, susceptible host, rescepticle exit, portal of disease
D.
Vehicle of portal, susceptible reservoir, risk of transmission, exit point, exit host
Correct Answer
B. Reservoir host, exit from reservoir, vehicle of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host
Explanation The chain of infection consists of several links that are necessary for the transmission of an infectious disease. These links include a reservoir host, which is the organism that carries and spreads the pathogen. The pathogen then exits the reservoir through a specific exit point. It is then transmitted through a vehicle, such as contaminated objects or air droplets. The pathogen enters a new host through a portal of entry, such as the respiratory tract or a wound. Finally, the new host becomes susceptible to the infection. Therefore, the correct answer is "Reservoir host, exit from reservoir, vehicle of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host."
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28.
Which of the following is an example of direct transmission of a microorganism?
A.
Sneezing that creates infected air droplets
B.
Shaking hands with someone who has not washed their hands
C.
Sexual intercourse with someone who is contaminated
D.
All are examples of direct transmission
Correct Answer
D. All are examples of direct transmission
Explanation All of the given options are examples of direct transmission of microorganisms. Sneezing that creates infected air droplets can directly transmit the microorganism to another person if they inhale the infected air. Shaking hands with someone who has not washed their hands can transfer the microorganisms from one person to another through direct contact. Sexual intercourse with someone who is contaminated can also directly transmit the microorganism. Therefore, all of these scenarios involve direct transmission of microorganisms.
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29.
True or False: Vector transmission of microorganisms occurs only if the vehicle is a liquid?
Correct Answer False f
Explanation Vector transmission of microorganisms can occur through various means, not just liquids. Vectors such as mosquitoes, ticks, and fleas can transmit diseases caused by microorganisms through their bites. Additionally, contaminated surfaces, objects, or even air can serve as vectors for the transmission of microorganisms. Therefore, it is not true that vector transmission only occurs if the vehicle is a liquid.
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30.
True or False: People who carry infectious disease can only pass on the infection of they show symptoms of illness?
Correct Answer False f
Explanation People who carry infectious diseases can pass on the infection even if they do not show symptoms of illness. Some infectious diseases can be transmitted through asymptomatic carriers, who may not display any signs of being sick but can still spread the disease to others. This is particularly true for certain viral infections, such as COVID-19, where individuals can be contagious even before showing any symptoms. It is important to take necessary precautions and follow guidelines to prevent the spread of infectious diseases, regardless of whether someone is symptomatic or not.
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31.
Guidelines to prevent transmission of infectious disease in the medical office are issued by _________________ and ____________________?
A.
OSHA and FDA
B.
CDC and OSHA
C.
FDA and CSC
D.
CCC and DEA
Correct Answer
B. CDC and OSHA
Explanation The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) are the two organizations responsible for issuing guidelines to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases in medical offices. The CDC provides guidance on infection control practices and recommendations for healthcare settings, while OSHA sets and enforces standards to ensure safe and healthy working conditions. Together, these organizations work to protect both healthcare workers and patients from the spread of infectious diseases in medical settings.
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32.
True or False: Medical asepsis means that an object or area is free from all microorganisms?
Correct Answer False f
Explanation Medical asepsis does not mean that an object or area is completely free from all microorganisms. Medical asepsis refers to the practices and techniques used to reduce the number and spread of microorganisms to prevent infection. While medical asepsis aims to minimize the presence of microorganisms, it does not guarantee complete elimination.
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33.
What is the most important important medical aseptic technique?
A.
Wearing two pairs of gloves when a known pathogen is present
B.
Ensuring that the proper PPE is available for all personnel
C.
Ensure that a proper sterile field is established as per OSHA requirements
D.
Ensuring that proper handwashing techniques are followed
Correct Answer
D. Ensuring that proper handwashing techniques are followed
Explanation Proper handwashing techniques are the most important medical aseptic technique because they help to prevent the spread of infections and diseases. By washing hands thoroughly and effectively, healthcare personnel can remove pathogens from their hands and reduce the risk of transmitting them to patients or other individuals. Handwashing is a simple yet crucial practice that should be followed consistently in healthcare settings to maintain a safe and sterile environment.
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34.
Which is true about sterilization?
A.
It is required for every medical tool that has any contact with the body
B.
It is just as good as sanitation if proper aseptic technique is maintained
C.
It is the highest level of sanitation control
D.
It destroys all forms of microorganisms except for spores which must be sanitized
E.
It destroys all forms of microorganisms including spores
Correct Answer
E. It destroys all forms of microorganisms including spores
Explanation Sterilization is the process of killing or eliminating all forms of microorganisms, including spores. This ensures that the medical tool or equipment is completely free from any living organisms that could potentially cause infection or harm to the body. Sterilization is considered the highest level of sanitation control because it provides the highest level of protection against the spread of infectious diseases. Proper aseptic technique must be maintained to ensure effective sterilization.
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35.
True or False: Sanitation is the highest form of sterilization if disinfectants are used?
Correct Answer False f
Explanation Sanitation and sterilization are two different processes. While sanitation refers to the cleaning and removal of dirt, germs, and debris, sterilization involves the complete elimination of all microorganisms. Disinfectants can help in sanitizing surfaces by reducing the number of microorganisms present, but they do not guarantee sterilization. Sterilization methods, such as heat, pressure, or chemical agents, are required to achieve the highest level of microbial elimination. Therefore, the statement that sanitation is the highest form of sterilization if disinfectants are used is false.
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36.
All below are true of disinfection except?
A.
High-level disinfection destroys all microbial forms
B.
Disinfection must be preceeded by sanitization
C.
Length of exposure to germicide affect disinfection
D.
The amount of organic material on the object affects disinfection
Correct Answer
A. High-level disinfection destroys all microbial forms
Explanation High-level disinfection does not destroy all microbial forms. It is a process that eliminates most pathogenic microorganisms but may not eliminate all microbial forms, such as bacterial spores. Other methods, such as sterilization, are required to destroy all microbial forms.
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37.
True or False: High-level disinfection destroys bacteria spores?
Correct Answer False f
Explanation High-level disinfection does not destroy bacteria spores. While high-level disinfection is effective in killing most bacteria, viruses, and fungi, it is not sufficient to eliminate bacterial spores. Bacterial spores are highly resistant structures that can survive harsh conditions and can only be destroyed by sterilization methods such as autoclaving or using chemical agents specifically designed to eliminate spores. Therefore, the statement that high-level disinfection destroys bacteria spores is false.
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38.
Items cleaned using intermediate disinfection methods include ____________________?
A.
Items that come into contact with broken skin surfaces
B.
Stethoscopes and blood pressure cuffs
C.
Dressings and bandages after contacting body fluids
D.
Both A and B
Correct Answer
D. Both A and B
Explanation Items cleaned using intermediate disinfection methods include both items that come into contact with broken skin surfaces and stethoscopes and blood pressure cuffs. Intermediate disinfection is a level of cleaning that is higher than low-level disinfection but lower than high-level disinfection or sterilization. It is used for items that are not invasive but still require a higher level of cleaning due to potential contact with bodily fluids or broken skin surfaces. Therefore, both options A and B are correct.
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39.
True or False: Low-level disinfection ensures that all microorganism levels are at the lowest level?
Correct Answer False f
Explanation Low-level disinfection does not ensure that all microorganism levels are at the lowest level. Low-level disinfection is a process that eliminates most vegetative bacteria, some fungi, and some viruses, but it may not be effective against bacterial spores or certain types of viruses. Therefore, it does not guarantee the complete eradication of all microorganisms.
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40.
_____________________ is the federal agency responsible for ensuring the safety of all workers, including health care workers?
Correct Answer OSHA Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Explanation The correct answer is OSHA, which stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration. OSHA is the federal agency that is responsible for ensuring the safety and health of all workers, including health care workers. They set and enforce standards to protect workers from hazards in the workplace, conduct inspections, and provide training and education to employers and employees.
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41.
Procedures recognized by the CDC to reduce the chance of transmitting infectious microorganisms in any health care setting are called __________________?
A.
Standard precautions
B.
Explicit precautions
C.
Hazardous precautions
D.
Blood and pathogen precautions
Correct Answer
A. Standard precautions
Explanation Standard precautions are procedures recognized by the CDC to reduce the chance of transmitting infectious microorganisms in any healthcare setting. These precautions include hand hygiene, the use of personal protective equipment, safe injection practices, safe handling and disposal of sharps, and respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette. Standard precautions are designed to protect both healthcare providers and patients from the transmission of infectious diseases.
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42.
Washing or cleaning equipment or surfaces by removing all visible soil is called ____________?
A.
Disinfection
B.
Sterilization
C.
Sanitation
D.
Sanitization
Correct Answer
D. Sanitization
Explanation Sanitization is the correct answer because it refers to the process of cleaning equipment or surfaces by removing all visible soil. It involves using cleaning agents or chemicals to reduce the number of microorganisms to a safe level. Disinfection and sterilization, on the other hand, go beyond sanitization and aim to eliminate or kill all microorganisms, including pathogens. Sanitation is a broader term that includes practices and measures to maintain cleanliness and prevent the spread of disease.
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43.
True or False: HBV is more viable than HIV and may survive in a dried state on clinical on clinical equipment and counter surfaces at room temperature for more than one week?
Correct Answer true t
Explanation HBV, or Hepatitis B virus, is indeed more viable than HIV and can survive in a dried state on clinical equipment and counter surfaces at room temperature for more than one week. This means that if any contaminated surfaces are not properly disinfected, the virus can still be infectious and pose a risk of transmission. It is important to take necessary precautions and maintain proper hygiene to prevent the spread of HBV.
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44.
Medical history records include ________________________?
A.
Patient's past and present health status and social habits
B.
Patient's chief complaint and present illness
C.
Patient's family members' health status
D.
All of the above
E.
A and C only
Correct Answer
E. A and C only
Explanation The correct answer is A and C only. Medical history records include the patient's past and present health status and social habits, as well as the health status of their family members. This information is crucial for healthcare providers to assess the patient's overall health, identify any genetic or hereditary conditions, and make informed decisions regarding their care and treatment. By considering both the patient's personal medical history and their family's medical history, healthcare providers can better understand potential risk factors and tailor their approach accordingly.
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45.
Who has the responsibility to collect a patient's medical history is ______________?
A.
The patient only
B.
The CMA only
C.
The patient and the CMA
D.
The patient, the CMA, and the provider
Correct Answer
D. The patient, the CMA, and the provider
Explanation The responsibility to collect a patient's medical history lies with the patient, the CMA, and the provider. It is important for the patient to provide accurate information about their medical history, symptoms, and any previous treatments. The CMA assists in gathering this information by asking questions and documenting the responses. The provider, such as a doctor or nurse, also plays a role in collecting the medical history by reviewing the information provided, asking additional questions, and clarifying any uncertainties. Collectively, the patient, the CMA, and the provider work together to ensure a comprehensive and accurate medical history is obtained.
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46.
When observing a patient's physical status, what should be noted?
A.
Look to see whether or not the patient is able to afford the care
B.
Look for pale or flushed skin
C.
Look to see if the patient's demeanor is sincere
D.
Look for bruising or injury
E.
Both B and D
Correct Answer
E. Both B and D
Explanation When observing a patient's physical status, it is important to note any signs of physical changes or abnormalities. This includes looking for pale or flushed skin, which could indicate underlying health issues or changes in blood flow. It is also important to look for bruising or injury, as this could indicate potential trauma or medical conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is "Both B and D" because both options B (looking for pale or flushed skin) and D (looking for bruising or injury) are important observations to make when assessing a patient's physical status.
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47.
You suspect that your female patient has been abused, you should ________________?
A.
Mind your own business unless this is the second visit that you have noticed the bruising in unusual places
B.
Immediately call 911 to explain who the abused your patient so they can be arrested
C.
Document the observable information and then get a signed statement from the patient
D.
Document the observable information and alert the physician concerning your suspicions
Correct Answer
D. Document the observable information and alert the pHysician concerning your suspicions
Explanation In cases where there is a suspicion of abuse, it is important to document the observable information as evidence and alert the physician about your suspicions. This is crucial because the physician needs to be aware of the situation in order to provide appropriate care and support to the patient. It is not advisable to mind your own business or jump to conclusions without proper investigation or involve law enforcement without proper evidence.
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48.
What portion of the following should not be documented in the patient's record?Pt. C/O frequent reddened eyes from crying and sleepless nights. Pt. currently taking several antidepressents. Pt. needs to be on lithium to keep her more on an even keel. Pt. Has tried several over the counter sleep aids.
A.
Pt. needs to be on lithium to keep her more on an even keel
B.
Pt. C/O frequent reddened eyes from crying and sleepless nights
C.
Pt. currently taking several antidepressents
D.
This would be a correct patient medical record entry
Correct Answer
A. Pt. needs to be on lithium to keep her more on an even keel
Explanation The statement "Pt. needs to be on lithium to keep her more on an even keel" should not be documented in the patient's record. This is because it is a subjective statement and does not provide objective medical information about the patient's condition or treatment. The other statements, such as the patient complaining of frequent reddened eyes and sleepless nights, currently taking several antidepressants, and trying over the counter sleep aids, provide relevant and objective information that should be documented in the patient's record.
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49.
____________ questions should be asked to obtain ________________ and ________________ questions should be asked to obtain __________________?
A.
Closed-ended, chief complaint
B.
Open-ended, chief complaint
C.
Closed-ended, present illness
D.
Open-ended, present illness
E.
Both B and C
Correct Answer
E. Both B and C
Explanation Both open-ended and closed-ended questions should be asked to obtain information about the chief complaint and present illness. Open-ended questions allow the patient to provide detailed and subjective information about their symptoms, while closed-ended questions provide specific and objective information. By using both types of questions, healthcare professionals can gather a comprehensive understanding of the patient's condition.
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50.
True or False: Signs are subjective information that can be observed by someone other than the patient?
Correct Answer false f
Explanation Signs are objective information that can be observed by someone other than the patient. Unlike symptoms, which are subjective and can only be described by the patient, signs are physical or observable findings that can be detected by healthcare professionals or other individuals. Therefore, the statement that signs are subjective information is incorrect.
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