CDC 2a651s Master Test By CDCmaster
(57).webp "CDC 2a651s Master Test By CDCmaster - Quiz")
- 1.
Which functions form a maintenance group?
- A.
Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying
- B.
Maintenance, operations, quality assurance
- C.
Quality assurance (QA), support, aircraft maintenance
- D.
Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenanceExplanation
The functions that form a maintenance group are maintenance operations, maintenance, and aircraft maintenance. These functions are directly related to the maintenance and upkeep of aircraft, ensuring that they are in optimal working condition. Maintenance operations involve the planning and coordination of maintenance activities, while maintenance itself involves the actual repair and servicing of aircraft. Aircraft maintenance focuses specifically on the maintenance and inspection of aircraft systems and components. Together, these functions form a comprehensive maintenance group responsible for the proper functioning and safety of aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 2.
To which flight is the engine management section assigned?
- A.
Programs and resources
- B.
Maintenance Operations
- C.
Maintenance Training
- D.
Quality Assurance
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance OperationsExplanation
The engine management section is assigned to the Maintenance Operations department. This department is responsible for overseeing and coordinating all maintenance activities, including the management of engines. They ensure that the engines are properly maintained, repaired, and serviced to ensure safe and efficient operation of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?
- A.
Operations Support Center
- B.
Logistics Support Squadron
- C.
Operations Support Squadron
- D.
Maintenance Operations Center
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Operations CenterExplanation
The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules and maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They oversee the operational and maintenance activities of the fleet, ensuring that all aircraft are properly maintained and available for missions. This includes coordinating with various units and personnel involved in the maintenance process to ensure efficient operations and timely repairs. By closely monitoring schedules and fleet health indicators, the Maintenance Operations Center plays a crucial role in ensuring the readiness and effectiveness of the fleet.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What does the fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represent?
- A.
Career field subdivision
- B.
Specific AFSC
- C.
Career field
- D.
Skill level
Correct Answer
A. Career field subdivisionExplanation
The fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represents the career field subdivision. This means that within the broader career field, there are further subdivisions, and the fifth position of the AFSC code identifies which specific subdivision the individual belongs to.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?
- A.
Craftsman
- B.
Apprentice
- C.
Journeyman
- D.
Superintendent
Correct Answer
A. CraftsmanExplanation
The title "Craftsman" is appropriate for someone who has obtained the 7-skill level. This title suggests a high level of expertise and mastery in a particular craft or trade. It implies that the individual has gained significant experience and skill through years of practice and training. The term "Craftsman" also conveys a sense of professionalism and dedication to their craft. Overall, this title accurately reflects the achievement and proficiency of someone at the 7-skill level.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
- A.
On-the-job training
- B.
Task qualification training
- C.
Career development course
- D.
Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA)
Correct Answer
C. Career development courseExplanation
A career development course is a type of training that helps individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training is specifically designed to enhance the skills and knowledge required for career advancement and growth. It is usually offered to employees who want to develop their careers further and gain a deeper understanding of their job responsibilities. This training may cover various topics such as leadership, technical skills, communication, and problem-solving, among others. Participating in a career development course can provide individuals with the necessary tools and knowledge to excel in their current job and prepare them for future career opportunities.Rate this question:
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- 7.
How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airman Leadership Scholl (ALS)?
- A.
24
- B.
36
- C.
48
- D.
60
Correct Answer
C. 48Explanation
In order to attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS), one must have completed 48 months in the Air Force. This indicates that a certain level of experience and time in service is required before being eligible for this leadership training program.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publications series
- A.
91
- B.
66
- C.
127
- D.
161
Correct Answer
A. 91Explanation
The correct answer is 91 because Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within the Air Force publications series 91. This series specifically covers occupational safety and health standards for the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which piece of personal protective equipment is required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects?
- A.
Goggles
- B.
Back brace
- C.
Leather gloves
- D.
Safety-toed boots
Correct Answer
D. Safety-toed bootsExplanation
Safety-toed boots are required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects because they provide protection to the feet from falling objects, sharp objects, and heavy objects that may accidentally be dropped. They have a reinforced toe cap that prevents injuries such as crushed or broken toes. These boots also provide stability and support to the feet, reducing the risk of slips, trips, and falls while lifting heavy objects. Therefore, wearing safety-toed boots is essential to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals when handling heavy loads.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-20-1
- C.
21-101
- D.
36-2108
Correct Answer
C. 21-101Explanation
Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and mandates that maintenance personnel demonstrate integrity and adhere to all written guidance.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?
- A.
Lock and pin the work stands
- B.
Check the intake for foreign object damage (FOD)
- C.
Review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781K
- D.
Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft
Correct Answer
D. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraftExplanation
To ensure the safety of proceeding with maintenance on the aircraft, it is important to check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft. This is because they may have valuable information or observations regarding the condition of the aircraft or any potential hazards that need to be addressed before starting maintenance. Collaborating with other personnel helps to ensure that all necessary precautions are taken and that the maintenance can be carried out safely.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?
- A.
20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear
- B.
15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear
- C.
10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear
- D.
5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear
Correct Answer
C. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rearExplanation
A propeller's axis of rotation extends 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear. This means that the propeller rotates within a space that is 10 feet in front of it and 5 feet behind it.Rate this question:
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- 13.
In order to avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft?
- A.
100 feet
- B.
200 feet
- C.
300 feet
- D.
400 feet
Correct Answer
B. 200 feetExplanation
The minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft to avoid the engine exhaust blast is 200 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment from the high temperatures and strong force of the exhaust gases. Being closer than 200 feet can pose a risk of injury or damage due to the intense heat and pressure generated by the aircraft's engines.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by
- A.
People
- B.
Animals
- C.
Weather
- D.
Mechanical failure
Correct Answer
A. PeopleExplanation
Foreign object damage (FOD) is typically caused by people. This refers to any damage or impairment to an object, such as an aircraft or engine, caused by foreign objects. These objects can be anything from tools and equipment left behind by maintenance personnel to debris and litter on runways or taxiways. Human error, negligence, or lack of proper maintenance procedures can lead to the presence of foreign objects, which can in turn cause damage to equipment. Therefore, people are the most common cause of FOD incidents.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Who has overall responsibility for the foreign object damage (FOD) program?
- A.
Quality Assurance
- B.
Production supervisor
- C.
Squadron commander
- D.
Vice Wing commander
Correct Answer
D. Vice Wing commanderExplanation
The Vice Wing commander has overall responsibility for the foreign object damage (FOD) program. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that proper procedures are in place to prevent foreign objects from causing damage to equipment, aircraft, or personnel. They are responsible for implementing and enforcing FOD prevention measures, conducting inspections, and addressing any issues or incidents related to FOD. As the second-in-command of the Wing, the Vice Wing commander has the authority and accountability to oversee the FOD program and ensure its effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
- A.
Aerosols
- B.
Liquids
- C.
Solids
- D.
Gases
Correct Answer
D. GasesExplanation
Gases are the easiest form of toxic materials to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions because they can be easily inhaled. Unlike solids, liquids, or aerosols, gases can quickly enter the respiratory system and be absorbed into the bloodstream, allowing them to reach various organs and tissues rapidly. This fast absorption and distribution increase the likelihood of toxic reactions occurring quickly.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
- A.
Safety
- B.
Hospital
- C.
Supervisor
- D.
Environmental
Correct Answer
C. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in a position of authority and have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that employees are properly trained in the correct procedures. The supervisor is also responsible for enforcing safety protocols and ensuring that employees are following them correctly. Therefore, it is the supervisor's responsibility to provide training on personal protective equipment.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?
- A.
Alcohol
- B.
Pine oil
- C.
Mild soap
- D.
Fleur-de-lis
Correct Answer
C. Mild soapExplanation
Mild soap is commonly used to clean and sanitize respirators. It is a gentle and effective cleaning agent that can remove dirt, oils, and other contaminants from the respirator's surface. Mild soap is also safe to use on most types of respirators without causing damage or compromising their functionality. It is important to clean and sanitize respirators regularly to maintain their effectiveness and prevent the buildup of bacteria or viruses. Alcohol and pine oil may be too harsh for certain respirator materials, while fleur-de-lis is not a cleaning agent and therefore not suitable for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
- A.
Explosions
- B.
Unauthorized entry
- C.
Overflow of materials
- D.
Mixing of unlike materials
Correct Answer
B. Unauthorized entryExplanation
Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety of individuals and the environment. Unauthorized entry can lead to accidents, theft, or intentional harm, which can result in the release of hazardous materials and pose a risk to human health and the surrounding ecosystem. Therefore, implementing measures to restrict access to these areas is crucial in maintaining a secure and controlled environment for the storage and handling of hazardous waste.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and
- A.
Flash point
- B.
Classification
- C.
Shipping name
- D.
Date the waste began to accumulate
Correct Answer
D. Date the waste began to accumulateExplanation
Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and the date the waste began to accumulate. This is important for proper management and disposal of the waste. The date of accumulation helps in determining the age of the waste, which is crucial for compliance with regulations regarding storage and disposal time limits. It also helps in tracking the waste and ensuring that it is properly managed and disposed of in a timely manner to prevent any potential hazards or environmental contamination.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A specialized function of the supply mission is
- A.
Repair
- B.
Service
- C.
Disposal
- D.
Retrieval
Correct Answer
C. DisposalExplanation
The specialized function of the supply mission that is being described here is disposal. This means that one of the main tasks of the supply mission is to properly get rid of or dispose of certain items or materials. This could involve safely discarding waste, disposing of hazardous materials, or managing the proper disposal of unwanted or expired supplies.Rate this question:
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- 22.
From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?
- A.
Base system
- B.
Weapons system
- C.
Inventory system
- D.
Geographical system
Correct Answer
B. Weapons systemExplanation
The Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manages supply from the perspective of the weapons system. This means that the GLSC focuses on the logistics and support needed for the weapons systems, ensuring that they are properly supplied, maintained, and operational. This perspective allows for efficient management and coordination of the supply chain specifically tailored to the unique requirements of weapons systems.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
- A.
Overhaul
- B.
Retest OK
- C.
Time change
- D.
Repair cycle support
Correct Answer
A. OverhaulExplanation
Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require overhaul. This means that these specific equipment items are designed in a way that they will inevitably need to undergo a thorough inspection, repair, and maintenance process in order to restore them to their optimal working condition. Overhaul is necessary to ensure that the equipment is functioning properly and to extend its lifespan.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?
- A.
Priority Monitor Report (D18)
- B.
Daily Document Register (D04)
- C.
Due-out Validation Listing (M30)
- D.
Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)
Correct Answer
B. Daily Document Register (D04)Explanation
The Daily Document Register (D04) provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). This register allows organizations to keep track of all the documents processed, ensuring that no document numbers are missed or overlooked. It serves as a comprehensive record of all the documents processed and can be used for auditing and accountability purposes. The other options mentioned, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), do not specifically provide a means to review all document numbers processed during the day.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a priority basis because of the differences in each organization's
- A.
Type of aircraft
- B.
Contract
- C.
Mission
- D.
Location
Correct Answer
C. MissionExplanation
Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a priority basis because of the differences in each organization's mission. The mission of an organization determines the specific requirements and needs of that organization, including the types of parts and supplies needed. Therefore, delivering parts based on the mission ensures that each organization receives the necessary resources to carry out their specific tasks and objectives effectively.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What does a completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 serve to identify?
- A.
Origin of an item
- B.
Why the item broke
- C.
How long the item will take to repair
- D.
The responsibility reparable processing center
Correct Answer
A. Origin of an itemExplanation
A completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used to document and track the history of an item, including its source or manufacturer. It helps in maintaining a record of the item's origin, which can be useful for various purposes such as quality control, warranty claims, or identifying potential issues related to specific suppliers or manufacturers.Rate this question:
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- 27.
If you need detailed information concerning codes and entries on the Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request, refer to Air Force Manual (AFMAN)
- A.
23-254
- B.
23-110
- C.
91-254
- D.
91-110
Correct Answer
B. 23-110Explanation
The correct answer is 23-110. This is because the question asks for the reference for detailed information concerning codes and entries on the Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request. Therefore, the appropriate reference would be AFMAN 23-110, which is the Air Force Manual that provides guidance on the proper use and completion of IMT forms.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required to have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form
- A.
1574
- B.
1575
- C.
1577-2
- D.
1577-3
Correct Answer
B. 1575Explanation
The correct answer is 1575 because it is the only option that is a valid Department of Defense (DD) Form. The other options (1574, 1577-2, and 1577-3) are not valid forms.Rate this question:
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- 29.
When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life it means the item
- A.
Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended
- B.
Should be returned to supply after expiration date
- C.
Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life
- D.
Should be inspected or tested
Correct Answer
C. Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-lifeExplanation
A bench stock item with a type I shelf-life has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item has a specific period of time in which it can be used or stored before it expires. This expiration date cannot be extended, and once the item reaches its shelf-life limit, it should no longer be used or stored.Rate this question:
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- 30.
A Category I deficiency report (DR) is used to report a deficiency
- A.
That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager
- B.
Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only)
- C.
That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system
- D.
That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle)
Correct Answer
C. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a systemExplanation
A Category I deficiency report is used to report a deficiency that, if left uncorrected, has the potential to cause significant loss or damage to equipment or a system. This report is specifically for critical or major defects identified during an initial acceptance inspection. It is important to track and address these deficiencies to prevent any major consequences or harm to the equipment or system.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Within how many hours must Category I deficiency reports (DR) be forwarded to the originating point?
- A.
8
- B.
12
- C.
24
- D.
72
Correct Answer
C. 24Explanation
Category I deficiency reports (DR) must be forwarded to the originating point within 24 hours. This means that any major issues or deficiencies that are classified as Category I must be reported and addressed within a 24-hour timeframe. This allows for prompt action to be taken in order to rectify the deficiency and ensure the safety and efficiency of operations.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)?
- A.
Shelf-life
- B.
Bench stock
- C.
Hazardous materials
- D.
Equipment authorization inventory data
Correct Answer
D. Equipment authorization inventory dataExplanation
The Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL) must reflect the equipment authorization inventory data. This means that any items that have been authorized for custody and are part of the inventory must be included in the listing. This ensures that there is a record of all authorized equipment and helps in tracking and managing the inventory effectively.Rate this question:
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- 33.
To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
- A.
Shop chief
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
Commander
- D.
Supply chief
Correct Answer
C. CommanderExplanation
To become an equipment custodian, one must be appointed by the commander. The commander holds the highest authority in the organization and is responsible for making important decisions regarding personnel appointments. As an equipment custodian, one would be entrusted with the responsibility of managing and maintaining equipment, ensuring its proper use and storage. Therefore, it is crucial for the commander to appoint someone who is reliable, trustworthy, and capable of fulfilling this role effectively.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When should new equipment account custodians receive training?
- A.
Before signing for the account
- B.
Within 10 days of signing for the account
- C.
Within 15 days of signing for the account
- D.
Within 30 days of signing for the account
Correct Answer
A. Before signing for the accountExplanation
New equipment account custodians should receive training before signing for the account to ensure that they are familiar with the equipment and its proper use. This training will help them understand their responsibilities as custodians and ensure that they can effectively manage and maintain the equipment. It is important for custodians to have this training before taking on the responsibility of caring for the equipment to minimize the risk of damage or misuse.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The second section of a technical order (TO) number gives the
- A.
Classification
- B.
Type of equipment
- C.
Mission type of equipment
- D.
Model and series for equipment type
Correct Answer
D. Model and series for equipment typeExplanation
The second section of a technical order (TO) number gives the model and series for equipment type. This means that the TO number provides specific information about the model and series of the equipment being referenced. This is important for identifying and distinguishing different versions or variations of the same type of equipment.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-5-2
- C.
00-20-1
- D.
00-20-2
Correct Answer
A. 00-5-1Explanation
The technical order (TO) that describes the Air Force TO system is 00-5-1.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
- A.
General Equipment
- B.
General System
- C.
Fault Isolation
- D.
Job Guide
Correct Answer
D. Job GuideExplanation
A Job Guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance on how to perform specific maintenance tasks on a piece of equipment or system. This manual is designed to assist technicians in carrying out their maintenance duties effectively and efficiently. It helps them understand the sequence of tasks required to complete a specific maintenance action and ensures that they follow the correct procedures.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What section of the illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB?
- A.
Introduction
- B.
Numerical index
- C.
Group assembly parts list
- D.
Reference designation index
Correct Answer
A. IntroductionExplanation
The introduction section of the illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB. This section provides an overview and explanation of the various codes and symbols used throughout the IPB, helping users understand and interpret the information presented in the breakdown. It serves as a guide to navigate the IPB effectively and accurately identify the parts and components listed.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
- A.
Record
- B.
Urgent action
- C.
Routine action
- D.
Immediate action
Correct Answer
D. Immediate actionExplanation
Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to ensure the safety of personnel.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Who originates technical orders?
- A.
Section supervisor
- B.
Contracting squadron
- C.
Equipment manufacturer
- D.
Maintenance group commander
Correct Answer
C. Equipment manufacturerExplanation
The equipment manufacturer is responsible for originating technical orders. They have the knowledge and expertise to create detailed instructions and procedures for the proper use and maintenance of their equipment. These technical orders provide essential guidance to users and maintenance personnel, ensuring that the equipment is operated safely and efficiently. The manufacturer's involvement in creating technical orders also allows them to address any updates or modifications to the equipment, ensuring that users have the most up-to-date information.Rate this question:
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- 41.
An Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply, is not submitted for
- A.
Preliminary technical orders (TO)
- B.
Methods and procedure TOs
- C.
Work cards
- D.
Job guides
Correct Answer
A. Preliminary technical orders (TO)Explanation
The AFTO IMT Form 22 is not submitted for Preliminary technical orders (TO). This means that when changes need to be made to Preliminary TOs, the AFTO IMT Form 22 is not used as a tool for submitting change recommendations and replies.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Who makes sure the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission?
- A.
Initiator
- B.
Commander
- C.
Supervisor of initiator
- D.
Product improvement office
Correct Answer
C. Supervisor of initiatorExplanation
The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission. This means that the supervisor must review the form and ensure that all information provided is accurate and complete before it is submitted. They are responsible for overseeing the work of the initiator and ensuring that all necessary documentation is properly completed and submitted.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach?
- A.
Evident and hidden
- B.
Potential and evident
- C.
Hidden and functional
- D.
Potential and functional
Correct Answer
D. Potential and functionalExplanation
In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, failures can be classified into two categories: potential and functional. Potential failures refer to those that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the performance or function of the system. This classification helps in identifying and addressing both existing and potential issues to ensure the reliability and efficiency of the maintenance process.Rate this question:
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- 44.
In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
- A.
Hard time
- B.
Lubrication
- C.
On condition
- D.
Failure finding
Correct Answer
C. On conditionExplanation
In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, the preventative maintenance task that involves a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition is known as "On condition." This means that the inspection is conducted based on the condition of the equipment or system, rather than a fixed schedule. By regularly assessing the condition of the equipment, potential failure conditions can be detected early, allowing for timely repairs or replacements to prevent major breakdowns or disruptions.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which program integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health?
- A.
Centralized repair facility (CRF)
- B.
Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D)
- C.
Engine life-cycle management planning (ELMP)
- D.
Comprehensive engine management system (CEMS)
Correct Answer
B. Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D)Explanation
Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) is the correct answer because it refers to a program that integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health. This program helps in analyzing engine data, identifying potential issues, and making informed decisions regarding engine maintenance and performance. It plays a crucial role in ensuring the optimal functioning and longevity of the engine.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Within the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program, to whom do flight-line personnel transfer collected data for analysis?
- A.
Depot-level engine maintenance shops
- B.
Base engine maintenance shop
- C.
Product center engineers
- D.
Flight-line expediter
Correct Answer
B. Base engine maintenance shopExplanation
Flight-line personnel transfer collected data for analysis to the Base engine maintenance shop.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program?
- A.
Propulsion and depot
- B.
Depot and nondestructive inspection
- C.
Propulsion and nondestructive inspection
- D.
Environmental health and nondestructive inspection
Correct Answer
C. Propulsion and nondestructive inspectionExplanation
Propulsion technicians are responsible for maintaining and servicing the engine, while nondestructive inspection technicians are responsible for inspecting and identifying any potential issues or defects in the engine. Both of these technicians play a crucial role in providing maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics program. They provide valuable information about the engine's condition, performance, and any necessary repairs or adjustments needed. This data helps in monitoring the engine's health, identifying trends, and diagnosing any potential problems, allowing for timely maintenance and ensuring optimal engine performance.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for whom?
- A.
War fighters
- B.
Test cell personnel
- C.
Flight-line mechanics
- D.
Back shop mechanics
Correct Answer
A. War fightersExplanation
Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for war fighters. These facilities are designed to offer repair and maintenance services to military personnel who are actively engaged in combat or war-related operations. By providing centralized support, CRFs ensure that war fighters have access to the necessary equipment and resources to carry out their missions effectively. This support can include repairing and maintaining weapons, vehicles, and other essential equipment, as well as providing technical assistance and logistical support.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Who maintains accountability of centralized repair facility (CRF) assets and reports their status?
- A.
Production supervisor
- B.
Depot item manager
- C.
Engine technician
- D.
Supply officer
Correct Answer
A. Production supervisorExplanation
The production supervisor is responsible for maintaining accountability of centralized repair facility (CRF) assets and reporting their status. They oversee the repair and maintenance operations, ensuring that all assets are properly accounted for and their status is accurately reported. This includes tracking inventory, monitoring equipment usage, and coordinating with other departments to ensure efficient asset management. The production supervisor plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of the CRF and optimizing asset utilization.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Depot maintenance provides support to base-level technicians by
- A.
Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming time compliance technical orders (TCTO)
- B.
Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability
- C.
Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner
- D.
Providing the most current TO updates to the field
Correct Answer
B. Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capabilityExplanation
Depot maintenance provides support to base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability. This means that when base-level technicians encounter complex or challenging maintenance tasks that they are unable to handle, depot maintenance personnel step in to provide the necessary expertise and perform the repairs. They also offer technical assistance to base-level technicians, guiding them through difficult maintenance procedures and providing them with the knowledge and resources they need to successfully complete their tasks.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Jul 12, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 19, 2015Quiz Created by
CDCmaster