CDC 2A652 Vol. 1
Aerospace Ground Equipment Journeyman - Edit Code 05
Maintenance Fundamentals
- 1.
Risk management principles should be applied to
- A.
Only duty-related activities to enhance the safety and well being of yourself and others.
- B.
On- and off-duty activities to enhance the safety and well being of yourself and others.
- C.
Only duty-related activities to protect yourself and other Airmen from imminent harm.
- D.
On-and off-duty activities to protect yourself and other Airmen from imminent harm.
Correct Answer
B. On- and off-duty activities to enhance the safety and well being of yourself and others.Explanation
The correct answer is "on- and off-duty activities to enhance the safety and well being of yourself and others." This answer is supported by the statement that risk management principles should be applied to both duty-related and off-duty activities. By applying risk management principles to both types of activities, individuals can ensure the safety and well-being of themselves and others in all aspects of their lives.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What situations does not warrant prompt reporting to your supervisor?
- A.
Using personal protective equipment.
- B.
Unsafe working conditions.
- C.
Known pregnancies.
- D.
Personal injury.
Correct Answer
A. Using personal protective equipment.Explanation
Using personal protective equipment does not warrant prompt reporting to your supervisor because it is a standard safety practice that is expected to be followed by all employees. Personal protective equipment is used to protect employees from potential hazards in the workplace, and its use is typically regulated by company policies and procedures. Therefore, there is no need for immediate reporting to the supervisor in this situation, as long as the employee is using the appropriate protective equipment as required.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Before removing a component from an air compressor, you must ensure
- A.
The air compressor is grounded.
- B.
The air strainer is in place.
- C.
The battery is disconnected.
- D.
All air pressure is drained.
Correct Answer
D. All air pressure is drained.Explanation
Before removing a component from an air compressor, it is important to ensure that all air pressure is drained. This is necessary to prevent any accidental release of pressurized air, which can be dangerous and cause injury. By draining the air pressure, the risk of any sudden release of compressed air is eliminated, making it safer to work on the compressor. Additionally, releasing the air pressure also helps in preventing any damage to the component being removed, as it reduces the stress and strain on the parts.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Why should the frame of an electrical motor be grounded?
- A.
To prevent the energized windings from touching the frame.
- B.
To prevent current from following the path of least resistance.
- C.
To prevent you from receiving an electrical shock if the energized windings touch the frame.
- D.
To prevent current from flowing directly to ground if the energized windings touch the frame.
Correct Answer
B. To prevent current from following the path of least resistance.Explanation
The frame of an electrical motor should be grounded to prevent current from following the path of least resistance. Grounding the frame provides a low-impedance path for fault currents to flow, ensuring that any fault current is safely directed away from the motor and the surrounding environment. This helps to protect the motor and prevent potential hazards such as electrical shocks or damage to equipment. By providing a designated path for fault currents, grounding helps to maintain the integrity and safety of the electrical system.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which type of hammer should you use to avoid damaging driving materials?
- A.
Claw.
- B.
Sledge.
- C.
Soft face.
- D.
Ball-peen
Correct Answer
C. Soft face.Explanation
To avoid damaging driving materials, it is best to use a soft face hammer. A soft face hammer typically has replaceable faces made of materials like rubber or plastic, which are less likely to cause any damage to the surface being struck. This type of hammer is commonly used in delicate or sensitive applications, where the force needs to be applied without causing any harm or leaving marks on the material.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which type of screwdriver has blades designed to lessen the possibility of the screwdriver slipping from the screw head?
- A.
Cross-point.
- B.
Flat-blade.
- C.
Cross-tip.
- D.
Offset.
Correct Answer
A. Cross-point.Explanation
Cross-point screwdrivers have blades designed to lessen the possibility of the screwdriver slipping from the screw head. The blades of cross-point screwdrivers have a shape that resembles a plus sign, with two intersecting slots. This design allows for better grip and engagement with the screw head, reducing the chances of the screwdriver slipping or camming out while applying torque. This makes cross-point screwdrivers more effective and safer to use when working with screws.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which pliers should be used to hold odd-shaped objects?
- A.
Snap ring.
- B.
Diagonal cutting.
- C.
Multiple slip-joint.
- D.
Combination slip-joint.
Correct Answer
C. Multiple slip-joint.Explanation
Multiple slip-joint pliers should be used to hold odd-shaped objects because they have adjustable jaws that can accommodate various sizes and shapes. This allows for a secure grip on objects that may not fit well in other types of pliers. The adjustable feature of multiple slip-joint pliers makes them versatile and suitable for holding odd-shaped objects effectively.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which pliers have a locking device to hold materials securely?
- A.
Snap ring.
- B.
Vice grips.
- C.
Water pump.
- D.
Diagonal cutters.
Correct Answer
B. Vice grips.Explanation
Vice grips have a locking device that allows them to securely hold materials in place. This feature is particularly useful when working with slippery or hard-to-grip materials, as it prevents them from slipping or moving during the task. The locking mechanism can be easily engaged by squeezing the handles together, and it will remain locked until released. This makes vice grips a versatile tool for various applications, such as holding pipes, clamping objects, or providing extra grip and stability during repairs or construction work.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Diagonal cutting pliers are designed to cut
- A.
Bolts.
- B.
Rivets.
- C.
Hard steel.
- D.
Small wire.
Correct Answer
D. Small wire.Explanation
Diagonal cutting pliers are specifically designed to cut small wire. These pliers have a sharp cutting edge that is angled diagonally, allowing for precise and clean cuts on thin wires. They are commonly used in electrical work and other applications where the cutting of small wires is required. Diagonal cutting pliers are not intended for cutting bolts, rivets, or hard steel, as these materials are much thicker and require specialized tools for cutting. Therefore, the correct answer is small wire.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Before operating the pneumatic impact wrench, you must
- A.
Inspect it.
- B.
Lubricate it.
- C.
Blow out the airhose.
- D.
Ensure that its use is necessary.
Correct Answer
C. Blow out the airhose.Explanation
Before operating the pneumatic impact wrench, it is necessary to blow out the air hose. This is important because the air hose may contain moisture, debris, or other contaminants that can affect the performance and lifespan of the tool. By blowing out the air hose, any accumulated moisture or debris can be removed, ensuring that the pneumatic impact wrench operates efficiently and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Replacement hardware decisions on support equipment must be governed by
- A.
Supervisor's preference.
- B.
Serviceability criteria.
- C.
Cosmetic appearance.
- D.
Availability.
Correct Answer
B. Serviceability criteria.Explanation
When making replacement hardware decisions on support equipment, it is important to consider serviceability criteria. This means that the decision should be based on factors such as the ease of maintenance, repair, and availability of spare parts. It is crucial to ensure that the replacement hardware is easily serviceable to minimize downtime and ensure the efficient functioning of the equipment. Factors like supervisor's preference, cosmetic appearance, or availability should not be the main driving force behind such decisions.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What type of bolt is typically used to connect accessories to an engine?
- A.
Stud.
- B.
Fine thread bolt.
- C.
Coarse thread bolt.
- D.
General purpose bolt.
Correct Answer
A. Stud.Explanation
A stud is typically used to connect accessories to an engine. Unlike bolts, studs do not have a head and are threaded on both ends. One end is screwed into the engine block while the other end allows for accessories to be attached using nuts. This design provides a more secure and stable connection, especially for accessories that need to be frequently removed and reattached.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What type of nut should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees Fahrenheit?
- A.
Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.
- B.
Metallic self-locking nuts.
- C.
Castellated nuts.
- D.
Plain nuts.
Correct Answer
A. Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.Explanation
Nonmetallic self-locking nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees Fahrenheit because they are not designed to withstand high temperatures. Nonmetallic materials, such as plastic or nylon, have lower melting points and can degrade or deform under high heat. This can compromise the integrity and effectiveness of the self-locking mechanism, leading to potential failures or loosening of the nut. Therefore, it is important to use metallic self-locking nuts or other suitable alternatives in high-temperature environments.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What color code is used to pre-insulated terminal lugs for wire sizes 18 through 22?
- A.
Red.
- B.
Blue.
- C.
Green.
- D.
Yellow.
Correct Answer
A. Red.Explanation
Blue 14 through 16, Yellow 10 through 12Rate this question:
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- 15.
What are the three different types of terminal lugs?
- A.
Red, blue, and yellow.
- B.
Straight, right angle, and flat.
- C.
Copper, aluminum, and plastic.
- D.
Pre-insulated, uninsulated, and reinsulated.
Correct Answer
B. Straight, right angle, and flat.Explanation
The correct answer is "Straight, right angle, and flat." Terminal lugs are used to connect electrical wires to terminals or studs. Straight lugs have a straight barrel and are commonly used for straight connections. Right angle lugs have a 90-degree bend and are used when space is limited or when a wire needs to be connected at a right angle. Flat lugs have a flat surface and are used when a wire needs to be connected to a flat surface, such as a busbar. These three types of terminal lugs provide flexibility in connecting wires in different orientations and configurations.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What does the "-4" identify in fitting part number MS20822-4D?
- A.
Military specification.
- B.
Type of fitting.
- C.
Air Force/Navy.
- D.
Fitting size.
Correct Answer
D. Fitting size.Explanation
The "-4" in fitting part number MS20822-4D identifies the fitting size. The number indicates the specific size of the fitting, which helps in identifying the correct fitting for a particular application.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What type of damage greatly reduces the ability of tubing to withstand internal pressure and vibration?
- A.
Scratches.
- B.
Chafing.
- C.
Dents.
- D.
Nicks.
Correct Answer
B. Chafing.Explanation
Chafing greatly reduces the ability of tubing to withstand internal pressure and vibration. Chafing refers to the rubbing or friction between the tubing and another surface, which can lead to the wearing away of the tubing material. This can weaken the tubing and make it more susceptible to damage from pressure and vibration. Scratches, dents, and nicks may also cause damage, but chafing specifically targets the tubing's ability to withstand internal pressure and vibration.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A flexible hose in a 3,000 psi system must be pressure tested to
- A.
3,000 psi without bursting.
- B.
9,000 psi without bursting.
- C.
12,000 psi without bursting.
- D.
15,000 psi without bursting.
Correct Answer
C. 12,000 psi without bursting.Explanation
In a 3,000 psi system, a flexible hose must be pressure tested to a higher pressure without bursting. The answer of 12,000 psi without bursting indicates that the hose needs to be able to withstand four times the normal operating pressure. This ensures that the hose is durable and can handle any potential fluctuations or spikes in pressure that may occur during operation.Rate this question:
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- 19.
When installing a flexible house, you must provide slack or bend in the hose to
- A.
Prevent twisting of the hose.
- B.
Compensate for change in length.
- C.
Place a mechanical load on the hose.
- D.
Protect it from a hot pipe or manifold.
Correct Answer
B. Compensate for change in length.Explanation
When installing a flexible hose, it is important to provide slack or bend in the hose to compensate for any change in length. This is because flexible hoses can expand or contract due to temperature changes or pressure variations. By allowing for slack or bend, the hose can adjust its length accordingly without becoming stretched or strained. This helps to prevent any twisting or damage to the hose, ensuring its proper function and longevity.Rate this question:
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- 20.
How can people best prevent FOD?
- A.
Look for loose objects (stone, paper, or trash), pick them up when discovered and encourage others to do the same.
- B.
Learn the basic classes of FOD, recognize its causes, and account for tools and hardware used during maintenance.
- C.
Look for loose objects discarded on the flightline during maintenance activities.
- D.
Periodically participate in "FOD walks" on taxiways and runways.
Correct Answer
B. Learn the basic classes of FOD, recognize its causes, and account for tools and hardware used during maintenance.Explanation
To best prevent FOD (Foreign Object Debris), it is important to learn about the different classes of FOD, understand the causes of FOD, and ensure that tools and hardware used during maintenance are properly accounted for. This knowledge and awareness will help individuals take necessary precautions to prevent FOD incidents.Rate this question:
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- 21.
You need to find all of the TOs for a specific weapon system or piece of equipment. What type of index should you use?
- A.
TO catalog.
- B.
Alphabetical index.
- C.
Cross-reference table.
- D.
LOAPs.
Correct Answer
D. LOAPs.Explanation
LOAPs, or Line of Accounting and Positioning System, should be used to find all of the TOs (Technical Orders) for a specific weapon system or piece of equipment. LOAPs provide a comprehensive listing of all the TOs associated with a particular item, making it the most suitable index for this purpose. The TO catalog may not provide a complete list, while an alphabetical index and cross-reference table may not specifically cater to the TOs related to the weapon system or equipment in question.Rate this question:
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- 22.
You need to find the part number for an item prior to ordering it from supply. You've obtained the appropriate IPB manual for the end-item. What section of the IPB should you use to find the major assembly to which the desired item belongs?
- A.
Table of contents.
- B.
Reference designator index.
- C.
Appropriate figure/illustration.
- D.
National stock number and reference number index.
Correct Answer
A. Table of contents.Explanation
To find the major assembly to which the desired item belongs, you should refer to the Table of Contents in the IPB manual. The Table of Contents provides a comprehensive list of all the sections and chapters in the manual, allowing you to quickly navigate to the relevant section that contains information about the major assembly. By using the Table of Contents, you can easily locate the specific part number and its corresponding major assembly before ordering it from the supply.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that, in not corrected, could result in serious or fatal injury to personnel?
- A.
Safety.
- B.
Urgent action.
- C.
Routine action.
- D.
Immediate action.
Correct Answer
D. Immediate action.Explanation
The TCTO issued for immediate action is intended to correct unsafe conditions that, if left uncorrected, could lead to serious or fatal injury to personnel. This implies that the issue at hand requires urgent attention and prompt corrective measures to prevent any potential harm. The other options, such as safety, urgent action, and routine action, do not specifically emphasize the need for immediate action in addressing the unsafe conditions.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What type of TCTO is often accomplished by contractors, modification centers, or specific Air Force activities higher than organizational\intermediate-level maintenance due to the complexity involved?
- A.
Abbreviated TCTO.
- B.
Inspection TCTO.
- C.
Record TCTO.
- D.
Interim TCTO.
Correct Answer
C. Record TCTO.Explanation
Record TCTOs are often accomplished by contractors, modification centers, or specific Air Force activities higher than organizational/intermediate-level maintenance due to the complexity involved. These TCTOs involve changes or modifications to the aircraft's records, such as updating maintenance logs or documentation. This type of TCTO does not involve physical changes or modifications to the aircraft itself, but rather focuses on updating and maintaining accurate records for future reference.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The main advantage of using abbreviated TOs is they
- A.
Cover safety in more detail.
- B.
Serve as supplemental material.
- C.
Paraphrase and eliminate the need for basic TOs.
- D.
Organize and simplify instructions in a condensed version.
Correct Answer
D. Organize and simplify instructions in a condensed version.Explanation
Abbreviated TOs, or abbreviated technical orders, provide a main advantage by organizing and simplifying instructions in a condensed version. This means that complex information can be presented in a concise and easily understandable format. By condensing the instructions, it becomes easier for users to find the information they need quickly and efficiently. This can save time and effort, making the use of abbreviated TOs more practical and user-friendly.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Periodic inspection workcards are divided into three sections that cover the requirements for
- A.
Periodic inspections, lubrication, and special inspections.
- B.
Periodic inspections, special inspections, and safety.
- C.
Periodic inspections, lubrication, and safety.
- D.
Special inspections, lubrication, and safety.
Correct Answer
A. Periodic inspections, lubrication, and special inspections.Explanation
The correct answer is periodic inspections, lubrication, and special inspections. This is because periodic inspections are necessary to ensure the overall condition and functionality of the equipment. Lubrication is essential for proper operation and maintenance of moving parts. Special inspections are required to address specific areas or components that may require additional attention or specialized checks. Safety is not explicitly mentioned as a separate requirement in this context.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which abbreviated TO provides guidance for checking the general serviceability of a piece of equipment including applicable safety warnings, cautions, and notes?
- A.
Lubrication charts.
- B.
Illustrated parts breakdown.
- C.
Service inspection workcards.
- D.
Periodic inspection workcards.
Correct Answer
C. Service inspection workcards.Explanation
Service inspection workcards provide guidance for checking the general serviceability of a piece of equipment, including applicable safety warnings, cautions, and notes. These workcards outline the specific steps and procedures that need to be followed during the inspection process to ensure that the equipment is functioning properly and meets all safety requirements. They help technicians and maintenance personnel to systematically inspect and assess the condition of the equipment, identify any potential issues or defects, and take appropriate actions to address them.Rate this question:
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- 28.
An example of TO deficiency is
- A.
Improper sequencing of pages.
- B.
Insufficient information.
- C.
Typographical errors.
- D.
Misspelled words.
Correct Answer
B. Insufficient information.Explanation
TO deficiency refers to a lack of necessary information or details. In this context, insufficient information can be considered an example of TO deficiency because it implies that there is not enough relevant data provided to understand or complete a task. This could lead to confusion, errors, or inefficiencies in various processes. The other options, such as improper sequencing of pages, typographical errors, or misspelled words, do not directly relate to the concept of insufficient information and therefore do not exemplify TO deficiency.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which form should you submit to correct a TO deficiency?
- A.
AFTO Form 1000, Deficiency Report.
- B.
AFTO Form 601A, Change Recommendation.
- C.
AFTO Form 95, Support Equipment Record.
- D.
AFTO Form 22, Technical Manuel (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.
Correct Answer
D. AFTO Form 22, Technical Manuel (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply. -
- 30.
What are the two general classes of Air Force publications?
- A.
Pamphlets and manuals.
- B.
Departmental and field.
- C.
Instructions and manuals.
- D.
Supplements and instructions.
Correct Answer
B. Departmental and field.Explanation
Departmental and field are the two general classes of Air Force publications. Departmental publications are issued by the Department of the Air Force and provide guidance, policies, and procedures that apply to the entire Air Force. Field publications, on the other hand, are issued by specific Air Force organizations or units and provide guidance, policies, and procedures that are specific to their respective areas of responsibility or operations. These two classes of publications ensure that the Air Force has standardized and consistent guidance across the entire organization while also allowing for flexibility and specificity in different operational contexts.Rate this question:
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- 31.
OIs are simliar to Air Force instructions, but they apply only to
- A.
Air Force wings.
- B.
Support personnel.
- C.
Maintenance personnel.
- D.
Personnel within the issuing organization.
Correct Answer
D. Personnel within the issuing organization.Explanation
OIs, or Operating Instructions, are similar to Air Force instructions but they have a more limited scope. They apply only to personnel within the issuing organization. This means that the instructions are specific to the organization that created them and are not meant to be followed by everyone in the Air Force. They are designed to provide guidance and procedures for the personnel within that particular organization.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What type of standard publication is used by lower headquarters to implement, amplify, interpret, or clarify a higher level publication?
- A.
Supplements.
- B.
Visual aids.
- C.
Bulletins.
- D.
Manuals.
Correct Answer
A. Supplements.Explanation
Supplements are a type of standard publication used by lower headquarters to implement, amplify, interpret, or clarify a higher level publication. Supplements are additional documents that provide specific guidance or instructions that are not covered in the higher level publication. They are designed to enhance and expand upon the information provided in the main publication, ensuring that lower level units have the necessary guidance to carry out their tasks effectively. Visual aids, bulletins, and manuals may also be used in various contexts, but supplements specifically serve the purpose of providing additional guidance to lower headquarters.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The first number of a standard Air Force publication number is referred to as the "series" and represents the
- A.
Broad area covered.
- B.
Specific area covered.
- C.
Specific title of the publication.
- D.
Specific military personnel affected.
Correct Answer
A. Broad area covered.Explanation
The first number of a standard Air Force publication number is referred to as the "series" and represents the broad area covered. This means that the first number in the publication number provides a general indication of the subject or topic that the publication pertains to. It is not specific to a particular area, title, or military personnel affected, but rather gives an overall categorization of the publication's content.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Where do you access standard Air Force publications?
- A.
Air Force e-Publishing website.
- B.
LOAPs
- C.
Base-level functional publication library
- D.
AFI 33-360
Correct Answer
A. Air Force e-Publishing website.Explanation
The correct answer is the Air Force e-Publishing website. This is where you can access standard Air Force publications. These publications contain important information and guidelines for Air Force personnel to follow. By accessing the e-Publishing website, individuals can stay updated on the latest policies and procedures that are relevant to their roles and responsibilities within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What impact is made on the maintenance organization by ensuring availability of adequate parts, equipment, and training?
- A.
Increasing bottlenecks and maximizing repair cycle time.
- B.
Increasing bottlenecks and minimizing repair cycle time.
- C.
Eliminating bottlenecks and minimizing repair cycle time.
- D.
Eliminating bottlenecks and maximizing repair cycle time.
Correct Answer
C. Eliminating bottlenecks and minimizing repair cycle time.Explanation
By ensuring availability of adequate parts, equipment, and training, the maintenance organization can eliminate bottlenecks in the repair process. This means that there will be no delays or obstructions in getting the necessary resources for maintenance tasks. Additionally, having these resources readily available allows for minimizing the repair cycle time, as technicians can quickly access the required parts and equipment, and are well-trained to efficiently perform the repairs. As a result, the maintenance organization can operate smoothly and effectively, reducing downtime and improving overall productivity.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which maintenance levels are considered together as "field maintenance"?
- A.
Centralized and depot.
- B.
Depot and provisional.
- C.
Provisional and centralized.
- D.
Organizational and intermediate.
Correct Answer
D. Organizational and intermediate.Explanation
The maintenance levels that are considered together as "field maintenance" are organizational and intermediate. These two levels involve maintenance activities that are conducted closer to the field or operational area. Organizational maintenance refers to the maintenance performed by the unit or organization responsible for operating the equipment, while intermediate maintenance refers to the maintenance performed by a higher-level maintenance unit that supports multiple organizations or units. Together, these two levels cover the maintenance activities that are carried out in the field or operational environment.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Organizational maintenance consists of
- A.
On-equipment tasks normally performed using the resources of an operating command at an operating location.
- B.
On-equipment tasks normally performed using the resources of a supporting command or intermediate repair facility.
- C.
Off-equipment tasks normally performed using the resources of an operating command at an operating location or intermediate repair facility.
- D.
On- and off-equipment tasks that require highly specialized skills, sophisticated shop equipment, and/or special facilities of a supporting command.
Correct Answer
A. On-equipment tasks normally performed using the resources of an operating command at an operating location.Explanation
The correct answer is on-equipment tasks normally performed using the resources of an operating command at an operating location. This means that organizational maintenance refers to tasks that are performed on equipment using the resources available at the command where the equipment is located. It does not involve tasks performed by a supporting command or intermediate repair facility, or off-equipment tasks.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The main purpose of the inspection system is to
- A.
Get ahead of unscheduled maintenance.
- B.
Keep equipment operating and looking good.
- C.
Keep the mechanic working on minor problems.
- D.
Locate problems and repair equipment before total failure.
Correct Answer
D. Locate problems and repair equipment before total failure.Explanation
The main purpose of the inspection system is to locate problems and repair equipment before total failure. This means that the inspection system is designed to identify any issues or potential faults in the equipment, allowing for timely repairs or maintenance to prevent the equipment from completely breaking down. By addressing these problems early on, the inspection system helps to avoid costly and unexpected breakdowns, ensuring that the equipment remains in good working condition and minimizing the need for unscheduled maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The maintenance symbol that represents the most serious operational condition for equipment is a
- A.
Red X.
- B.
Red dash.
- C.
Red diagonal.
- D.
Circle red X.
Correct Answer
A. Red X.Explanation
The red X symbol is commonly used to indicate a critical or serious operational condition for equipment. It typically represents a complete failure or malfunction that requires immediate attention and maintenance. The red X is easily recognizable and understood as a warning sign, making it an effective symbol for indicating the most serious operational condition.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which symbol indicates an operational check is overdue?
- A.
Red X.
- B.
Red dash.
- C.
Red diagonal.
- D.
Circled red X.
Correct Answer
B. Red dash.Explanation
The red dash symbol indicates that an operational check is overdue. This symbol is commonly used to represent a task or check that has not been completed within the required timeframe. The red dash serves as a visual reminder to address the overdue check promptly.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which section of the AFTO Form 244 is used to record a forms review?
- A.
Part II, Non-scheduled Inspection.
- B.
Part III, Scheduled Inspection.
- C.
Part IV, Supervisory review.
- D.
Part V, Maintenance/Delayed Discrepancy.
Correct Answer
C. Part IV, Supervisory review.Explanation
Part IV of the AFTO Form 244 is used to record a supervisory review, not a forms review. The supervisory review is conducted by a supervisor to ensure that all required inspections and maintenance actions have been properly completed and documented. This section is important for maintaining accountability and quality control within the maintenance process.Rate this question:
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- 42.
When closing out an AFTO Form 244, what is entered on the form to close out uncompleted inspections?
- A.
A red X and your initials in Part IV, Supervisory Review.
- B.
A red X and your initials in Part III, Scheduled Inspections.
- C.
The letters "CF" (for carried forward) and your initials in Part IV, Supervisory Review.
- D.
The letters "CF" (for carried forward) and your initials in Part III, Scheduled Inspections.
Correct Answer
D. The letters "CF" (for carried forward) and your initials in Part III, Scheduled Inspections.Explanation
When closing out an AFTO Form 244, uncompleted inspections are indicated by entering the letters "CF" (for carried forward) and your initials in Part III, Scheduled Inspections. This signifies that the inspections have not been completed and will be carried forward to the next inspection cycle.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What is the condition of a component bearing a green equipment condition label?
- A.
Unserviceable (Condemned).
- B.
Unserviceable (Reparable).
- C.
Serviceable.
- D.
Suspended.
Correct Answer
B. Unserviceable (Reparable).Explanation
A component bearing a green equipment condition label is considered unserviceable but reparable. This means that the component is currently not in working condition, but it can be repaired and made functional again. The green label indicates that the component can be fixed and put back into service, rather than being condemned or permanently suspended.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What color is the equipment condition tag attached to an item being held as an exhibit?
- A.
Brown.
- B.
Green.
- C.
White.
- D.
Yellow.
Correct Answer
A. Brown.Explanation
The equipment condition tag attached to an item being held as an exhibit is brown. This color is commonly used to indicate that the item is being displayed or showcased. It helps to distinguish the item from others and signifies its special status as an exhibit.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What maintenance supply form is used to order commonly stocked supplies or turn in excess or unserviceable property?
- A.
AF Form 2005.
- B.
AFTO Form 350.
- C.
DD Form 1348-6.
- D.
DD Form 1348-1A.
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 2005.Explanation
The AF Form 2005 is used to order commonly stocked supplies or turn in excess or unserviceable property. It is a maintenance supply form that helps in managing and tracking inventory. AFTO Form 350 is used for aircraft maintenance documentation, while DD Form 1348-6 is used for requisitioning and issue of material. DD Form 1348-1A is used for requisitioning and issue of material for non-military agencies.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What MDD code identifies the system that was worked on?
- A.
Type maintenance.
- B.
Work unit code.
- C.
Category of labor.
- D.
Units.
Correct Answer
B. Work unit code.Explanation
The work unit code is the MDD code that identifies the system that was worked on. This code is used to track and categorize the specific tasks or projects that are being worked on within a maintenance system. It helps to provide a clear and organized record of the work that has been done on different systems. The other options listed, such as type maintenance, category of labor, and units, do not specifically identify the system that was worked on.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Distinguished between "excess" and "surplus" as they apply to Air Force supply discipline.
- A.
Excess and surplus are the same.
- B.
Excess and surplus are the turn-in of property no long needed.
- C.
Surplus is property no longer needed at your base, and excess is property no longer needed by another military service or Federal agency.
- D.
Excess is property no longer needed at your base, and surplus is property no longer needed by another military service or Federal agency
Correct Answer
D. Excess is property no longer needed at your base, and surplus is property no longer needed by another military service or Federal agencyExplanation
Excess refers to property that is no longer needed at a specific Air Force base, while surplus refers to property that is no longer needed by another military service or Federal agency. This means that excess and surplus are not the same, as they involve different sources of property that are no longer needed.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What is a major concept regarding "economic use" of supplies and equipment?
- A.
Use them only for their intended purposes.
- B.
Always order the least expensive item to do the job.
- C.
Protect items from hazards such as fire or corrosion.
- D.
Order only the minimum supplies necessary to do a job.
Correct Answer
A. Use them only for their intended purposes.Explanation
The major concept regarding "economic use" of supplies and equipment is to use them only for their intended purposes. This means that resources should be utilized in a way that maximizes their value and efficiency, avoiding any unnecessary or wasteful use. By using supplies and equipment for their intended purposes, organizations can reduce costs, prevent damage or misuse, and ensure that resources are allocated effectively. This concept promotes responsible and efficient use of resources, ultimately contributing to economic sustainability.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Who is responsible for ensuring that property records of supply transactions are kept accurately?
- A.
Commander.
- B.
Supervisor.
- C.
Person who signed for an account.
- D.
Person who has possession of the property.
Correct Answer
A. Commander.Explanation
The commander is responsible for ensuring that property records of supply transactions are kept accurately. As the person in charge, the commander has the authority and accountability to oversee and maintain accurate records of all property transactions within their command. They are responsible for ensuring that proper procedures are followed, records are updated, and any discrepancies or issues are addressed promptly. This ensures transparency, accountability, and efficient management of the property records.Rate this question:
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- 50.
To be held responsible for property, you must
- A.
Possess it.
- B.
Sign for it.
- C.
Be a 5 level.
- D.
Be a supervisor.
Correct Answer
A. Possess it.Explanation
To be held responsible for property, it is necessary to possess it. Possession implies having physical control or ownership of the property, which establishes a direct connection between the individual and the property. Without possession, one cannot be held accountable for the property's condition or any damage caused to it. Signing for the property or being a certain level or supervisor may indicate a higher level of responsibility or authority, but possession is the fundamental requirement for being held responsible.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 24, 2013Quiz Created by
Emmanuel Tijing
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