1.
(410) Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity?
Correct Answer
A. Equipment management element
Explanation
The Equipment management element serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity. They are responsible for reviewing and authorizing the use of equipment within an organization. They ensure that equipment is properly managed, maintained, and accounted for. This includes conducting regular inspections, tracking equipment usage, and ensuring that all necessary authorizations are in place. The Equipment management element plays a crucial role in ensuring that equipment is used efficiently and effectively within an organization.
2.
(401) Who must mutually agree on the selection of property custodians?
Correct Answer
A. EME and organizational commanders
Explanation
The EME (Equipment Management Element) and organizational commanders must mutually agree on the selection of property custodians. This ensures that both parties have input and are in agreement on who is responsible for the custody and management of the property. The EME is responsible for managing and maintaining equipment, while the organizational commanders have a vested interest in ensuring that the property is properly cared for and accounted for within their organization. By requiring mutual agreement, it helps to establish accountability and shared responsibility for the property custodianship.
3.
(401) Which program serves as the primary basis for organizational equipment budget and buy programs?
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Equipment Management System
Explanation
The Air Force Equipment Management System serves as the primary basis for organizational equipment budget and buy programs. This system is designed to manage and track the Air Force's equipment inventory, including procurement, maintenance, and disposal. It provides a centralized platform for organizations to plan and allocate resources for equipment purchases and ensure efficient management of equipment throughout its lifecycle.
4.
(402) How do we determine what equipment items organizations are authorized to purchase and maintain?
Correct Answer
B. Allowance standard
Explanation
The correct answer is "Allowance standard." An allowance standard is a set of guidelines or criteria that determine the authorized equipment items that organizations are allowed to purchase and maintain. It specifies the quantity and type of equipment that is necessary for the organization to carry out its mission effectively. By following the allowance standard, organizations can ensure that they are only acquiring and maintaining the necessary equipment items.
5.
(402) Within an allowance standard what establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization?
Correct Answer
B. Basis of issue
Explanation
The basis of issue refers to the criteria or factors that determine the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization within an allowance standard. It takes into account various factors such as the purpose, need, and requirements of the individual, activity, or organization. The basis of issue helps in ensuring that the right amount of items are provided to meet the specific needs and objectives, while also managing inventory and resources effectively.
6.
(403) Which code replaces the cost designator in the expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator for an equipment item?
Correct Answer
D. Equipment management
Explanation
The correct answer is Equipment management. Equipment management is responsible for determining the cost designator for an equipment item in terms of its expendability, recoverability, and reparability. This involves evaluating the cost of maintaining and repairing the equipment, as well as the availability of spare parts and resources. Therefore, equipment management is the code that replaces the cost designator in this context.
7.
(403) Non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items are identified by which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator?
Correct Answer
A. NF1
Explanation
The correct answer is NF1. In non-equipment authorization inventory data, equipment items are identified by their expendability, recoverability, reparability, and cost designator. The code NF1 represents a specific combination of these factors for the equipment item.
8.
(403) Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code?
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 601
Explanation
AF Form 601 is the correct answer because it is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code. The other options, AF Form 600, AF Form 2001, and AF Form 2005, are not specifically designed for this purpose.
9.
(403) Which request should be input into Air Force Equipment Management System using the automated allowance change request screen?
Correct Answer
C. A change to an allowance standard
Explanation
The correct answer is "A change to an allowance standard." This request should be input into the Air Force Equipment Management System using the automated allowance change request screen. This indicates that the system has a specific feature or functionality to handle requests related to changes in allowance standards. It is important to use the correct request type to ensure that the system processes the request accurately and efficiently.
10.
(404) Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the property?
Correct Answer
D. Prepost
Explanation
The correct answer is "Prepost". Prepost is the turn-in method used to process the TIN before picking up the property. This means that the TIN is processed or handled prior to the actual pickup of the property.
11.
(404) Non-Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are processed using what activity code?
Correct Answer
B. P
Explanation
Non-Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are processed using activity code "P". This means that when non-equipment items are returned or turned in, the inventory data related to these items is processed using activity code "P".
12.
(404) Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are processed using what activity code?
Correct Answer
A. E
Explanation
Equipment turn-ins are processed using activity code E.
13.
(404) Which input does the equipment management section process to reduce or delete an authorization when it has been determined that a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized?
Correct Answer
C. FCI
Explanation
The equipment management section processes the input FCI to reduce or delete an authorization when it has been determined that a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized.
14.
(405) Which listing is used to help ensure that equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances?
Correct Answer
C. Allowance source code listing
Explanation
The Allowance source code listing is used to help ensure that equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances. This listing provides information about the specific source codes that are authorized for each type of equipment. By referring to this listing, organizations can ensure that they are only procuring and maintaining equipment that falls within their authorized allowances. This helps to prevent overstocking or understocking of equipment and ensures that resources are allocated appropriately.
15.
(405) Which listing is used to provide visibility of high dollar value non equipment authorization inventory data items?
Correct Answer
B. R15, Organizational visibility list
Explanation
The correct answer is R15, Organizational visibility list. This listing is used to provide visibility of high dollar value non equipment authorization inventory data items. It allows organizations to track and monitor these valuable items, ensuring they are accounted for and properly managed. The listing helps to prevent loss, theft, or unauthorized use of these high value items.
16.
(405) Which listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions?
Correct Answer
A. Q10
Explanation
The listing Q10 is used to identify out-of-balance conditions.
17.
(405) How often are custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) jacket files verified to ensure that a current one is on file and signed by the appointed custodian?
Correct Answer
C. Quarterly
Explanation
Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) jacket files are verified quarterly to ensure that a current one is on file and signed by the appointed custodian. This frequency allows for regular checks to ensure that the necessary documentation is up to date and properly maintained. It also helps in maintaining accountability and transparency in custodial processes.
18.
(406) Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance asset is used to detect or isolate a fault or problem in online equipment?
Correct Answer
D. Fault isolation spares
Explanation
Fault isolation spares are special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance assets that are used to detect or isolate a fault or problem in online equipment. These spares are specifically designed and allocated for troubleshooting purposes, allowing maintenance personnel to identify and address issues in equipment without causing disruption to the overall system. By having dedicated fault isolation spares, organizations can minimize downtime and efficiently resolve problems in online equipment.
19.
(406) Which transaction identification code is used to load, change, or delete a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance detail?
Correct Answer
B. 1XA
Explanation
The transaction identification code 1XA is used to load, change, or delete a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance detail.
20.
(406) Which report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for those organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance assets?
Correct Answer
C. R25
21.
(407) What report do you send to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base when your base weapon assets are increased or decreased?
Correct Answer
A. DSM
Explanation
The correct answer is DSM. DSM stands for the Defense Small Arms Management System. This is the report that is sent to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base when there is an increase or decrease in base weapon assets. The DSM helps in managing and keeping track of small arms inventory and ensuring proper accountability and security measures are in place.
22.
(407) At least how often do you reconcile base weapons detail records with the central file at Warner-Robins Air Logsitics Center?
Correct Answer
D. Annually
Explanation
The correct answer is Annually. This means that base weapons detail records are reconciled with the central file at Warner-Robins Air Logistics Center once a year. This could be due to the fact that reconciling these records is a time-consuming process and therefore it is not necessary to do it more frequently. Additionally, annual reconciliation allows for a comprehensive review of all weapons detail records to ensure accuracy and completeness.
23.
(407) What Materiel Management computer listing do you use to reconcile communications security and weapons assets?
Correct Answer
C. Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)
Explanation
The correct answer is "Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)". This is the computer listing used to reconcile communications security and weapons assets. It helps in ensuring that the inventory of weapons and communications security equipment is accurately accounted for and reconciled. The other options mentioned, such as Conversion Audit List (R22), Daily Weapon/COMSEC Report (D21), and Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10), are not specifically designed for this purpose.
24.
(408) Which stock leveling term identifies the repair rate of the current and past four quarters?
Correct Answer
D. Average percent base repair
Explanation
The correct answer, "Average percent base repair," refers to a stock leveling term that measures the repair rate of the current and past four quarters. It is used to determine the average percentage of items that need repair within a specific time frame. This term helps in assessing the maintenance and repair needs of a stock, allowing for effective planning and allocation of resources.
25.
(408) Which quantity represents the number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair cycle?
Correct Answer
B. Repair cycle quantity
Explanation
The repair cycle quantity represents the number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair cycle. This means that it is the quantity of items needed to ensure that there are enough units available to meet the demands during the time it takes to repair any items that may be returned or need maintenance. It is specifically related to the repair cycle and not other factors such as safety levels or economic order quantities.
26.
(408) What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations?
Correct Answer
C. Requisition objective
Explanation
The correct answer is "Requisition objective". Requisition objective is a stock leveling term that represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations. It helps ensure that there is enough inventory available to meet the demand and prevent stockouts or disruptions in operations. By setting a requisition objective, organizations can optimize their inventory levels and maintain a balance between supply and demand.
27.
(408) Which stock leveling term identifies required quantities to be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment or of unpredictable increases in demands?
Correct Answer
A. Safety level quantity
Explanation
The safety level quantity refers to the required quantities of stock that need to be on hand to ensure continuous operation during minor interruptions or unpredictable increases in demand. It acts as a buffer to prevent stockouts and disruptions in the supply chain. By maintaining a safety level quantity, businesses can mitigate the risks associated with unexpected fluctuations in demand or delays in replenishment. This term is commonly used in inventory management to optimize stock levels and ensure smooth operations.
28.
(409) Which type of adjusted minimum level should be used when one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed?
Correct Answer
C. B
Explanation
When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, the type of adjusted minimum level that should be used is B. The adjusted minimum level is a reorder point that takes into account factors such as lead time, demand variability, and desired service level. By using an adjusted minimum level, inventory managers can ensure that there is enough stock on hand to meet demand without overstocking. This helps to optimize inventory levels and minimize the risk of stockouts.
29.
(409) Which type of adjusted stock level is assigned to an item to ensure that the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns?
Correct Answer
A. Fixed
Explanation
Fixed stock level is assigned to an item to ensure that the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns. This means that regardless of the demand patterns, the stock level for the item will always remain the same. This helps in maintaining a consistent supply of the item and ensures that there are no shortages or excesses in the stock level.
30.
(409) What Air Force form is used to request an adjusted stock level?
Correct Answer
C. 1996
Explanation
Air Force form 1996 is used to request an adjusted stock level.
31.
(409) Which standard base supply system program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels?
Correct Answer
B. R35
Explanation
R35 is the correct answer because it is the standard base supply system program used to review and validate adjusted stock levels. This program allows for the assessment and verification of stock levels, ensuring accuracy and reliability in the supply chain.
32.
(410) What Air Force Materiel Command system computes readiness based level levels for selected XD items?
Correct Answer
B. D035E
Explanation
The Air Force Materiel Command system that computes readiness based level levels for selected XD items is the Recoverable Assembly Management System (RAMPS).
33.
(410) Readiness based level details are identified by what type detail and activity code?
Correct Answer
A. Type detail L, activity code A
Explanation
Readiness based level details are identified by type detail L and activity code A.
34.
(410) What document identifier code does the Standard Base Supply System use to respond to a readiness based level allocation?
Correct Answer
D. XCC
Explanation
The Standard Base Supply System uses the document identifier code XCC to respond to a readiness based level allocation.
35.
(410) Which Standard Base Supply System listing is used to identify situations where an RBL may be misallocated?
Correct Answer
D. R47
Explanation
The R47 listing in the Standard Base Supply System is used to identify situations where an RBL (Recoverable Balance List) may be misallocated. This means that R47 helps in identifying cases where the allocation of recoverable items may not be done correctly or accurately.
36.
(411) Which type of redistribution describes when item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order (DIC A2* or A4*) formats?
Correct Answer
C. Directed
Explanation
Directed redistribution refers to the type of redistribution where item managers send directives through various communication channels such as telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order formats (DIC A2* or A4*). This means that the redistribution of items is specifically directed or instructed by the item managers through these means of communication.
37.
(411) What document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers?
Correct Answer
A. B7*
Explanation
The document identification code "B7*" indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers.
38.
(411) What transaction exception code is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment?
Correct Answer
A. P
Explanation
The transaction exception code "P" is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment. This code indicates that the item being returned is damaged and requires special handling or processing.
39.
(411) Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen-do not ship?
Correct Answer
B. 1
Explanation
The correct answer is 1. This shipment exception code is used for assets that are frozen and should not be shipped.
40.
(411) As a minimum, how often are item records with a shipping exception code reviewed and validated?
Correct Answer
B. Semiannually
Explanation
Item records with a shipping exception code are reviewed and validated at least twice a year, specifically every six months. This allows for regular monitoring and assessment of any issues or discrepancies related to shipping exceptions. By conducting these reviews semiannually, organizations can ensure that their item records comply with shipping regulations and identify any necessary corrective actions in a timely manner.
41.
(412) What system does program control use to assign a requisition priority for each requisition?
Correct Answer
D. D. Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System.
Explanation
The program control uses the Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System to assign a requisition priority for each requisition. This system helps in determining the order in which requisitions are processed and fulfilled based on factors such as urgency, criticality, and availability of resources. It ensures that the most important and critical requisitions are given higher priority, allowing for efficient and effective allocation of resources.
42.
(412) Which codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply?
Correct Answer
C. FAD, Urgency-of-need designator
Explanation
The FAD (Force Activity Designator) and Urgency-of-need designator are the codes used to determine the requisitioning priority designator at the source of supply. These codes help in prioritizing the urgency and need for certain items or supplies, ensuring that they are delivered promptly to the requesting entity.
43.
(413) Which serial numbers are used for off-line requisitions?
Correct Answer
A. 9000-9899
Explanation
The serial numbers used for off-line requisitions are 9000-9899.
44.
(413) Which TEX code keeps the materiel management computer from automatically producing another requisition when the issue is input?
Correct Answer
C. Seven
Explanation
The TEX code "Seven" keeps the materiel management computer from automatically producing another requisition when the issue is input. This code likely serves as a flag or command that tells the system to halt the automatic requisition process. Without this code, the computer would continue to generate requisitions even after the issue is input, leading to unnecessary duplication and potential waste of resources.
45.
(414) Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures status has the worsteffect on an account?
Correct Answer
B. Cancellation
Explanation
Cancellation of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures status has the worst effect on an account because it means that the requested item or service has been cancelled, resulting in the account not receiving the necessary resources. This can disrupt operations, delay missions, and potentially compromise the effectiveness of the military unit.
46.
(414) What code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply has canceled arequisition?
Correct Answer
D. REX 1
Explanation
The code "REX 1" is assigned to the item record to indicate that the source of supply has canceled a requisition.
47.
(414) Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures status results from outof-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from filling the requisition exactly as it was requested?
Correct Answer
C. Exception/other
Explanation
The correct answer is "Exception/other". This status results from various conditions that prevent the supply source from fulfilling the requisition as requested, such as out-of-stock situations or new requirements. It indicates that there are special circumstances or exceptions that have affected the normal supply process.
48.
(415) What cancellation status code indicates that a due-in cancellation request was generated by offline action?
Correct Answer
C. ZC
Explanation
The cancellation status code "ZC" indicates that a due-in cancellation request was generated by offline action. This means that the cancellation request was not initiated through an online or automated system, but rather through manual or offline means.
49.
(415) What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that the transactionidentification code AFC action was taken to request improved status on a requisition?
Correct Answer
B. C
Explanation
The correct answer is C. The reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that the transaction identification code AFC action was taken to request improved status on a requisition. This means that when the reconciliation flag is set to C, it signifies that the AFC action was taken to request improved status on a requisition. This flag helps in tracking and monitoring the progress of the requisition and ensures that any necessary actions are taken to improve its status.
50.
(415) Which Air Force Form is used to report a supply difficulty concerning Air Force-manageditems?
Correct Answer
D. 1667
Explanation
The correct answer is 1667 because Air Force Form 1667 is used to report a supply difficulty concerning Air Force-managed items. This form is used to document and report any issues or difficulties encountered in the supply chain, ensuring that the necessary actions are taken to resolve the problem and maintain the efficient management of Air Force supplies.