CDC 3DX5X (Edit Code 02) Volume 2, Unit 1

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CDC 3DX5X (Edit Code 02) Volume 2, Unit 1 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (201) Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • A.

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-200

    • B.

      AFI 91-202

    • C.

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91-200

    • D.

      AFMAN 91-202

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 91-202
    Explanation
    AFI 91-202 implements the Mishap Prevention Program.

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  • 2. 

    (201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

    • A.

      Prevent the use of unsafe equipment

    • B.

      Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices

    • C.

      Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices

    • D.

      Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death

    Correct Answer
    D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and/or death. This program aims to identify and mitigate potential hazards, implement safety measures, and promote a culture of safety within an organization. By preventing accidents and incidents, the program helps to ensure the well-being of both the organization's assets and its personnel.

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  • 3. 

    (201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

    • A.

      Commerce

    • B.

      The Treasury

    • C.

      Defense

    • D.

      Labor

    Correct Answer
    D. Labor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Labor because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. It sets and enforces standards, provides training and education, and conducts inspections to ensure compliance with safety regulations. As a part of the United States Department of Labor, OSHA works to protect workers' rights and prevent workplace injuries, illnesses, and fatalities.

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  • 4. 

    (201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

    • A.

      Air Staff

    • B.

      Civil Engineering

    • C.

      Squadron commander

    • D.

      Installation safety office

    Correct Answer
    D. Installation safety office
    Explanation
    The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to ensure that safety protocols and regulations are followed, and provide guidance and support to all personnel regarding safety concerns. This office plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe environment for everyone on the installation.

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  • 5. 

    (201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

    • A.

      Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO)

    • B.

      Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA)

    • C.

      Review AF Form 55

    • D.

      Certify the employee

    Correct Answer
    B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA)
    Explanation
    Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards and assessing the risks associated with the task. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can develop appropriate safety measures and ensure that employees are aware of and trained in the necessary safety procedures. This helps to prevent accidents and injuries in the workplace.

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  • 6. 

    (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report group mishaps?

    • A.

      475

    • B.

      480

    • C.

      978

    • D.

      980

    Correct Answer
    C. 978
    Explanation
    AF Form 978, Supervisor's Mishap Report

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  • 7. 

    (201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

    • A.

      475

    • B.

      480

    • C.

      978

    • D.

      980

    Correct Answer
    A. 475
    Explanation
    the actual form is 457 but the URE in the book does not give that option...

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  • 8. 

    (202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?

    • A.

      Physiological, physical, stress

    • B.

      Physiological, Physical, social

    • C.

      Stress, organizational, physical

    • D.

      Physical, physiological, organizational

    Correct Answer
    D. pHysical, pHysiological, organizational
    Explanation
    The correct answer is physical, physiological, and organizational. These three sub-categories encompass the different aspects of human factors. Physical factors refer to the design and layout of the environment, including ergonomics and safety. Physiological factors involve the study of human capabilities and limitations, such as perception, cognition, and motor skills. Organizational factors focus on the social and cultural aspects of work, including communication, teamwork, and leadership. Together, these three sub-categories help understand and improve human performance and well-being in various settings.

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  • 9. 

    (202) Which action is a physiological factor?

    • A.

      Performing a task while fatigued

    • B.

      Performing a task while intoxicated

    • C.

      Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders

    • D.

      Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness

    Correct Answer
    C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders
  • 10. 

    (202) Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

    • A.

      Bioenvironmental Engineering

    • B.

      Installation safety office

    • C.

      Base civil engineering

    • D.

      Supervisors

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioenvironmental Engineering
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and analyze potential health hazards in the environment and develop strategies to minimize the risks. This includes conducting risk assessments, implementing safety protocols, and providing guidance to ensure the health and safety of individuals in the given environment.

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  • 11. 

    (202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.

    • A.

      Isolation operations

    • B.

      Providing administrative controls

    • C.

      Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)

    • D.

      Substitution a less hazardous material or process

    Correct Answer
    C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
    Explanation
    Personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it only provides protection to the individual wearing it and does not eliminate or reduce the hazard itself. PPE should be used in conjunction with other control measures, such as engineering controls or administrative controls, to provide a comprehensive approach to hazard control. Relying solely on PPE can be ineffective as it does not address the root cause of the hazard and may not provide adequate protection in all situations.

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  • 12. 

    (202) How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    B. Two
    Explanation
    TWO impact types w/ THREE classes of each type

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  • 13. 

    (202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      E

    • D.

      G

    Correct Answer
    B. C
    Explanation
    Class C (CONDUCTIVE)

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  • 14. 

    (203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

    • A.

      Falls

    • B.

      Poor lighting

    • C.

      Horseplay

    • D.

      Poor ergonomics

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls
    Explanation
    Falls are the greatest hazard in a typical office environment because they can result in serious injuries. Common causes of falls in offices include slippery floors, uneven surfaces, loose cords, and cluttered walkways. Employees can also fall from chairs or ladders while reaching for objects or performing tasks. It is important for employers to maintain a safe and clean workspace, provide proper training on fall prevention, and ensure that employees have access to appropriate safety equipment such as handrails and non-slip mats.

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  • 15. 

    (203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

    • A.

      1 to 2

    • B.

      2 to 2.5

    • C.

      2 to 4.5

    • D.

      2.5 to 3

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 to 2.5
    Explanation
    Office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). This suggests that office workers face a higher risk of injuries resulting from falls in the workplace compared to those in non-office occupations.

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  • 16. 

    (203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      9

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      11

    Correct Answer
    C. 10
    Explanation
    Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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  • 17. 

    (203) How are fires classified?

    • A.

      Fuel Type

    • B.

      Heat Sources

    • C.

      Temperature

    • D.

      Atmospheric conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel Type
    Explanation
    Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different fuels, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, can produce different types of fires with varying characteristics. By categorizing fires based on fuel type, firefighters and other emergency responders can better understand the behavior and potential hazards associated with a fire, allowing them to develop appropriate strategies and tactics for extinguishing or controlling it.

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  • 18. 

    (203) What classification do flammable liquids receive?

    • A.

      Class A

    • B.

      Class B

    • C.

      Class C

    • D.

      Class D

    Correct Answer
    B. Class B
    Explanation
    Flammable liquids are classified as Class B. This classification is used for substances that have a flash point below 100°F (37.8°C) and can ignite easily. Class B substances include gasoline, alcohol, and petroleum-based products. They pose a fire hazard and require specific precautions for storage and handling to prevent accidents and minimize the risk of fire.

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  • 19. 

    (203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

    • A.

      Class A

    • B.

      Class B

    • C.

      Class C

    • D.

      Class D

    Correct Answer
    C. Class C
    Explanation
    When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This change in classification is due to the increased risk of fire and explosion that comes with the introduction of electricity. Class C fuels are those that can conduct electricity and may ignite or explode when exposed to a spark or electrical source. Therefore, the correct answer is Class C.

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  • 20. 

    (203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • A.

      Evacuate personnel from the building

    • B.

      Extinguish the fire if possible

    • C.

      Call the fire department

    • D.

      Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    D. Sound the fire alarm
    Explanation
    The first action to take when encountering a fire is to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building to evacuate immediately. By sounding the alarm, you ensure that everyone is aware of the fire and can begin evacuating to safety. Once the alarm is sounded, other necessary actions such as calling the fire department and evacuating personnel can be taken. However, sounding the fire alarm should always be the first step to ensure the safety of everyone in the building.

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  • 21. 

    (203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

    • A.

      Evacuate personnel from the building

    • B.

      Extinguish the fire if possible

    • C.

      Call the fire department

    • D.

      Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    B. Extinguish the fire if possible
    Explanation
    The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to try and put out the fire before it spreads further or causes more damage. It is important to assess the situation and determine if it is safe to attempt extinguishing the fire, considering factors such as the size of the fire, available resources, and personal safety. If it is not possible to extinguish the fire safely, other steps such as evacuating personnel and calling the fire department should be taken.

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  • 22. 

    (203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      40

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person is exposed to a current of this magnitude, it could disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart and lead to a potentially life-threatening condition. It is important to note that this is a general guideline and individual susceptibility to electric shock can vary.

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  • 23. 

    (203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

    • A.

      Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits

    • B.

      Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder

    • C.

      Using a ladder as a scaffold

    • D.

      Using a homemade ladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits
    Explanation
    Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, meaning it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder in such situations does not pose a significant risk of electrical shock or injury. However, it is still important to exercise caution and follow safety guidelines when working near electrical circuits.

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  • 24. 

    (204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • C.

      Apply the process irregularly and continuously

    • D.

      Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously
    Explanation
    apply the process CYCLICALLY and continuously

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  • 25. 

    (204) The risk management process includes how many steps?

    • A.

      Four

    • B.

      Five

    • C.

      Six

    • D.

      Seven

    Correct Answer
    B. Five
    Explanation
    The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are typically identified as: 1) Risk identification, where potential risks are identified and documented; 2) Risk analysis, where the identified risks are assessed and analyzed for their potential impact; 3) Risk evaluation, where the risks are prioritized based on their likelihood and impact; 4) Risk treatment, where strategies are developed and implemented to mitigate or manage the identified risks; and 5) Risk monitoring and review, where the effectiveness of the risk management strategies is evaluated and adjustments are made if necessary.

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  • 26. 

    (205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    D. Four
    Explanation
    Volume I through IV; manager's, architect's, developer's, DODAF Journal

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  • 27. 

    (205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

    • A.

      Office of Administration

    • B.

      Office of Communications

    • C.

      Office of Public Engagement

    • D.

      Office of Management and Budget

    Correct Answer
    D. Office of Management and Budget
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and coordinating the federal budget, including evaluating the effectiveness of agency investments in IT. They ensure that agencies are making informed decisions regarding their IT investments and that these investments align with the government's overall strategic goals and objectives.

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  • 28. 

    (205) Which requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

    • A.

      State level

    • B.

      Federal level

    • C.

      Congressional level

    • D.

      Department of Defense level

    Correct Answer
    B. Federal level
    Explanation
    The federal level mandates the development of Air Force architectures. This means that the requirements for developing these architectures are set by the federal government. This could include regulations, policies, or guidelines that the Air Force must follow in order to create effective and efficient architectures. The federal level is responsible for overseeing and directing the development of these architectures to ensure they align with national objectives and priorities.

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  • 29. 

    (206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

    • A.

      Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record

    • B.

      Administrative record, drawing record, and purchasing record

    • C.

      Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record

    • D.

      Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record

    Correct Answer
    C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record
    Explanation
    The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is made up of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes information related to the management and administration of the installation, such as contracts, agreements, and correspondence. The drawing record consists of technical drawings and diagrams that depict the layout and configuration of the systems. The maintenance record contains documentation of maintenance activities, including repairs, upgrades, and troubleshooting. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation, covering both administrative and technical aspects.

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  • 30. 

    (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CISR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

    • A.

      Administrative record

    • B.

      Maintenance record

    • C.

      Drawing record

    • D.

      Outage record

    Correct Answer
    C. Drawing record
    Explanation
    The drawing record in the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CISR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This record includes detailed drawings and diagrams that show the placement and configuration of the systems, as well as any necessary technical information. It is an essential part of the CISR as it helps in understanding the physical setup and technical specifications of the communications and information systems.

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  • 31. 

    (206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CISR) is normally retained in the production work center?

    • A.

      Administrative record

    • B.

      Maintenance record

    • C.

      Drawing record

    • D.

      Outage record

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance record
    Explanation
    The maintenance record is normally retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CISR). This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the communication and information systems, including details about repairs, upgrades, and inspections. It helps in tracking the maintenance history of the systems and ensures that they are functioning properly. By retaining the maintenance record in the production work center, the personnel can easily access and refer to it whenever required for troubleshooting or future maintenance purposes.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 14, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 19, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    David
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