CDC 3S071 Volume 3. Personnel Career Field, Edit Code 02
CDC 3S071 Volume 3. Personnel Career Field, edit code 02
- 1.
(401) The military member’s physical address at the time of joining a particular Service is considered their
- A.
Retirement designation.
- B.
Place of residency.
- C.
Desired location.
- D.
Home of record.
Correct Answer
D. Home of record.Explanation
The correct answer is "home of record". This means that the military member's physical address at the time of joining a particular service is considered their official place of residence for administrative purposes, including for retirement benefits. It is the location where the military member is considered to have a permanent connection or attachment, regardless of where they may currently be stationed.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(401) You may only have one legal residence at a time, but each time you are transferred to a new location you may change your
- A.
Legal voting residence.
- B.
Home of record.
- C.
Citizenship.
- D.
Residency.
Correct Answer
D. Residency.Explanation
The correct answer is residency. Residency refers to the place where a person lives and has established their permanent home. While you may only have one legal residence at a time, you can change your residency each time you are transferred to a new location. This means that you can establish a new permanent home and legal address in the new location, which may have implications for various legal matters, including voting.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(401) For voting purposes, when residing outside the United States (US), the address where you last resided immediately prior to your departure is considered your
- A.
Legal federal residence.
- B.
Legal state of residence.
- C.
Desired state residence.
- D.
Desired federal residence.
Correct Answer
B. Legal state of residence.Explanation
When residing outside the United States, the address where you last resided immediately prior to your departure is considered your legal state of residence for voting purposes. This means that even if you are currently living outside the US, your voting eligibility and registration will be based on your previous state of residence before leaving the country.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(401) Voting in an election for what type of office may not be used as the sole basis to determine residency for the purposes of imposing state and local taxes?
- A.
State.
- B.
Local.
- C.
Federal.
- D.
Municipal.
Correct Answer
C. Federal.Explanation
Voting in an election for federal office may not be used as the sole basis to determine residency for the purposes of imposing state and local taxes. This is because residency requirements for state and local taxes are determined by factors such as physical presence, domicile, or the length of time an individual spends in a particular jurisdiction. Voting in a federal election does not necessarily establish residency in a specific state or locality.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(401) The Armed Forces may use military authority to
- A.
Prescribe or fix, or attempt to prescribe or fix, the qualifications of voters.
- B.
Influence or attempt to influence the vote of a member of the Armed Forces.
- C.
Require or attempt to require a member of the Armed Forces to march to a polling place.
- D.
Provide or attempt to provide information regarding absentee voting for their home states.
Correct Answer
D. Provide or attempt to provide information regarding absentee voting for their home states.Explanation
The Armed Forces may provide or attempt to provide information regarding absentee voting for their home states. This means that they can offer guidance and resources to help members of the Armed Forces understand the process of voting by absentee ballot in their home states. This ensures that military personnel who are stationed away from their home states have the necessary information to exercise their right to vote.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(401) Who is responsible for providing details on elections and recorded messages from candidates, governors, United Stated Senators and Representatives?
- A.
Air Force Inspector General employees.
- B.
Voting Information Center staff.
- C.
Installation commanders.
- D.
Major command staff.
Correct Answer
B. Voting Information Center staff.Explanation
The Voting Information Center staff is responsible for providing details on elections and recorded messages from candidates, governors, United States Senators and Representatives. They are the ones who ensure that voters have access to accurate and up-to-date information about the election process and the candidates running for office. They play a crucial role in promoting transparency and facilitating citizen engagement in the democratic process.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(401) Which organization has the responsibility to include the voting program as an annual item for review, to evaluate the effectiveness, and ensure compliance with Department of Defense (DOD) regulations and public law?
- A.
Air Force Inspector General office.
- B.
Voting Information Center.
- C.
Installation command.
- D.
Major command.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Inspector General office.Explanation
The Air Force Inspector General office is responsible for including the voting program as an annual item for review, evaluating its effectiveness, and ensuring compliance with Department of Defense (DOD) regulations and public law.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(401) Who has the responsibility to ensure each base Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) completes a Federal Voting Assistance Program (FVAP) designated training workshop or media training course?
- A.
Air Force Inspector General personnel.
- B.
Voting Information Center employees.
- C.
Installation commanders.
- D.
Major command staff.
Correct Answer
D. Major command staff.Explanation
The major command staff has the responsibility to ensure that each base Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) completes a Federal Voting Assistance Program (FVAP) designated training workshop or media training course. This means that it is the duty of the higher-level command staff to ensure that the IVAOs at each base receive the necessary training to fulfill their role in the voting assistance program.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(401) When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) he or she must make sure the civilian’s minimum grade is
- A.
GS–07.
- B.
GS–09.
- C.
GS–11.
- D.
GS–12.
Correct Answer
D. GS–12.Explanation
The correct answer is GS–12. The installation commander must ensure that the civilian appointed as the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) has a minimum grade of GS–12. This grade level ensures that the IVAO has the necessary knowledge, skills, and experience to effectively carry out their duties and responsibilities related to voting assistance on the installation. A higher grade level also indicates a higher level of authority and decision-making ability, which is important for overseeing and implementing voting assistance programs.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(401) When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) he or she must make sure the military member’s minimum grade is
- A.
O–2.
- B.
O–3.
- C.
O–4.
- D.
O–5.
Correct Answer
C. O–4.Explanation
The correct answer is O-4 because the installation commander must appoint an Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) who is at least an O-4 military member. This minimum grade requirement ensures that the IVAO has sufficient experience and knowledge to effectively carry out their responsibilities related to voting assistance on the installation.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(401) Per every 100 members, the unit commander will appoint in writing one Unit Voting Assistance Counselor (UVAC), at the minimum grade of
- A.
E–4.
- B.
E–5.
- C.
E–6.
- D.
E–7.
Correct Answer
D. E–7.Explanation
The correct answer is E-7 because the question states that for every 100 members, the unit commander will appoint one Unit Voting Assistance Counselor (UVAC) at the minimum grade of E-4. Since E-7 is a higher grade than E-4, it is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(402) Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per adoptive child, up to
- A.
$1,000.
- B.
$1,500.
- C.
$2,000.
- D.
$2,500.
Correct Answer
C. $2,000.Explanation
Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per adoptive child, up to $2,000. This means that if a service member adopts a child, they can submit receipts for adoption expenses such as legal fees, medical expenses, and travel costs up to a maximum of $2,000, and they will be reimbursed for these expenses.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(402) Married Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per calendar year, up to
- A.
$3,000.
- B.
$4,000.
- C.
$5,000.
- D.
$6,000.
Correct Answer
C. $5,000.Explanation
Married service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses. The maximum amount they can be reimbursed per calendar year is $5,000.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(402) Up to how many months after finalization of an adoption, can Service members submit a request for reimbursement of adoption expenses?
- A.
12.
- B.
15.
- C.
18.
- D.
24.
Correct Answer
A. 12.Explanation
Service members can submit a request for reimbursement of adoption expenses up to 12 months after the finalization of an adoption. This means that they have one year from the date of finalization to request reimbursement for any adoption expenses they incurred.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(403) In unusual circumstances, it may be appropriate to honor deceased military members other than Air Force personnel (Army, Navy, or Marine Corps). In such instances, the approval authority is the
- A.
Secretary of the Air Force.
- B.
Air Force Chief of Staff.
- C.
Secretary of Defense.
- D.
Joint Chief of Staff.
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Chief of Staff.Explanation
In unusual circumstances, when it is necessary to honor deceased military members from other branches of the military (Army, Navy, or Marine Corps), the approval authority is the Air Force Chief of Staff. This means that if the Air Force wants to honor a deceased member from another branch, they would need to seek approval from the Air Force Chief of Staff. The Secretary of the Air Force, Secretary of Defense, and Joint Chief of Staff do not have the authority to approve such honors in these circumstances.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(403) Which organization does not have the authority under the Air Force memorialization program to name streets, buildings, rooms and facilities?
- A.
Major command.
- B.
Wing command.
- C.
Numbered Air Force.
- D.
Air Force Chief of Staff’s office.
Correct Answer
C. Numbered Air Force.Explanation
Numbered Air Force does not have the authority under the Air Force memorialization program to name streets, buildings, rooms, and facilities. The other options, Major command, Wing command, and Air Force Chief of Staff's office, have the authority to name these elements under the program.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(403) All requests under the Air Force memorialization program to name medical facilities must be staffed for approval by the
- A.
Joint Chief of Staff.
- B.
Secretary of Defense.
- C.
Air Force Chief of Staff.
- D.
Secretary of the Air Force.
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Chief of Staff.Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Chief of Staff. In the Air Force memorialization program, all requests to name medical facilities must be approved by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This indicates that the highest authority within the Air Force is responsible for approving these requests, rather than the Joint Chief of Staff, Secretary of Defense, or Secretary of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(404) Which objective is not a Casualty Services Program objective?
- A.
Provide casualty representative reports of casualties to ensure timely notification.
- B.
Eliminate delays in providing benefits to the next of kin (NOK).
- C.
Closely track all casualty reports and notifications.
- D.
Assist the family with funeral arrangements.
Correct Answer
D. Assist the family with funeral arrangements.Explanation
The objective "Assist the family with funeral arrangements" is not a Casualty Services Program objective because it does not directly relate to providing casualty representative reports, eliminating delays in benefits, or closely tracking casualty reports and notifications. While assisting the family with funeral arrangements may be a valuable and supportive service, it is not specifically mentioned as an objective of the program.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(404) Casualty reporting is an important responsibility function of
- A.
Supervision.
- B.
Command.
- C.
Personnel.
- D.
Control.
Correct Answer
B. Command.Explanation
Casualty reporting is an important responsibility function that falls under the command's jurisdiction. As the commanding officer, they are responsible for overseeing and managing all aspects of their unit, including casualty reporting. This involves promptly and accurately reporting any injuries, deaths, or missing personnel within the command. By having command as the correct answer, it implies that casualty reporting is a crucial task that requires the authority and oversight of the commanding officer to ensure effective and efficient communication and coordination during critical situations.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(404) Who has overall responsibility for the program objectives and for the management and operation of the Air Force Casualty Program?
- A.
Chief, Casualty Matters Division.
- B.
Casualty assistance representative.
- C.
Force Support squadron commander.
- D.
Air Force Casualty Service Branch chief.
Correct Answer
A. Chief, Casualty Matters Division.Explanation
The Chief, Casualty Matters Division is responsible for the program objectives and the management and operation of the Air Force Casualty Program. This role oversees the overall functioning of the program and ensures that the objectives are met.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(404) Which organization ensures squadron commanders are provided casualty services information and training during the Commander’s Orientation Program?
- A.
Force Support Squadron.
- B.
Casualty assistance office.
- C.
Wing commander’s office.
- D.
Major command.
Correct Answer
D. Major command.Explanation
The major command ensures that squadron commanders are provided casualty services information and training during the Commander's Orientation Program. This is because the major command is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the activities of multiple squadrons within a specific area of responsibility. They have the authority and resources to ensure that squadron commanders have access to the necessary information and training to effectively handle casualty services.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(404) Ensuring all casualty services personnel at serviced geographically separated units (GSU), and casualty augmentation support team (CAST) members are trained to handle supplemental instructions, messages for reporting casualties, and notification is the responsibility of the
- A.
Wing commander.
- B.
Casualty assistance representative.
- C.
Force Support squadron commander.
- D.
Military Personnel Section commander.
Correct Answer
B. Casualty assistance representative.Explanation
The casualty assistance representative is responsible for ensuring that all casualty services personnel at serviced geographically separated units (GSU) and casualty augmentation support team (CAST) members are trained to handle supplemental instructions, messages for reporting casualties, and notification. They are specifically trained to provide support and assistance to families of deceased or injured service members, and their role includes coordinating and facilitating casualty reporting and notification processes.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(404) Once the casualty assistance representative (CAR) notifies the family members of casualties, he or she provides the mortuary services officers and the public affairs (PA) office the member’s
- A.
Religion, age, home address, date of birth, and gender.
- B.
Name, age, home of record, and marital status.
- C.
Name, age, home of record, race, and awards.
- D.
Age, home of record, race, and gender.
Correct Answer
C. Name, age, home of record, race, and awards.Explanation
The CAR notifies the mortuary services officers and the public affairs office about the member's name, age, home of record, race, and awards. This information is important for the proper handling of the deceased member's remains and for public communication regarding the casualty. The religion, date of birth, and gender of the member are not mentioned in the given correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(405) In the case of a mass casualty, and by the order of the Force Support Squadron commander, who will the casualty assistance representative (CAR) contact?
- A.
Mortuary affairs representatives.
- B.
Security forces commander.
- C.
Casualty team.
- D.
Honor guard.
Correct Answer
C. Casualty team.Explanation
In the case of a mass casualty, the casualty assistance representative (CAR) will contact the casualty team. The casualty team is responsible for coordinating and providing support to the affected individuals and their families during a mass casualty event. They are trained to handle the logistics and emotional support required in such situations. Mortuary affairs representatives, security forces commander, and honor guard may also be involved in the response, but the primary contact for the CAR would be the casualty team.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(405) When a commander determines that a person’s absence is involuntary and there is insufficient evidence to declare the person deceased, the casualty status is known as
- A.
Duty Status Whereabouts Unknown (DUSTWUN).
- B.
Missing (Non-hostile).
- C.
Missing (hostile).
- D.
Very Seriously Ill.
Correct Answer
B. Missing (Non-hostile).Explanation
When a commander determines that a person's absence is involuntary and there is insufficient evidence to declare the person deceased, the casualty status is known as Missing (Non-hostile). This means that the person is missing but it is not believed to be due to hostile action. They may have become lost, gone AWOL, or encountered some other non-hostile situation that resulted in their absence. The status of Missing (Non-hostile) allows for continued search and rescue efforts to locate and recover the individual.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(406) What module in the Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is the process in which we collect data for the initial and subsequent supplement death messages?
- A.
Casualty Report.
- B.
Casualty Repeat.
- C.
Casualty Release.
- D.
Casualty Identify.
Correct Answer
A. Casualty Report.Explanation
The module in the Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward that is responsible for collecting data for the initial and subsequent supplement death messages is the Casualty Report module. This module is specifically designed to gather information related to casualties and is used to generate reports and messages regarding casualties in the defense system.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward provides a userfriendly application designed to assist casualty personnel in preparing casualty reports without excessive
- A.
Manual guidance.
- B.
Manual typing.
- C.
Documents.
- D.
Usage.
Correct Answer
B. Manual typing.Explanation
The correct answer is "manual typing". This is because the Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is a user-friendly application that helps casualty personnel in preparing casualty reports without excessive manual typing. This means that the system automates or simplifies the process of entering information into the reports, reducing the need for manual typing.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward utilizes Microsoft Access for storing casualty information, and is designed to work on all computers as what type of application?
- A.
Independently sourced.
- B.
Minimally operated.
- C.
Well equipped.
- D.
Stand alone.
Correct Answer
D. Stand alone.Explanation
The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is designed to work on all computers as a stand-alone application. This means that it does not require any additional software or dependencies to function properly. It can be used independently without the need for internet connectivity or any other external resources. Microsoft Access is used for storing casualty information, but the application itself is self-contained and does not rely on any other systems or applications.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(406) After learning of a casualty, the casualty assistance representative (CAR) must ensure the casualty message is transmitted or delivered to the base telecommunications center as determined by AFPC/DPWCS, within how many hours?
- A.
2.
- B.
4.
- C.
6.
- D.
12.
Correct Answer
B. 4.Explanation
The casualty assistance representative (CAR) must ensure that the casualty message is transmitted or delivered to the base telecommunications center within 4 hours after learning of a casualty. This is important to ensure that the necessary notifications and actions can be taken in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(406) If there is reportable information available on the casualty report that would be of interest to family members or of value to the addresses of the report, do not label any item
- A.
TO BE SUPPLEMENTED.
- B.
UNDETERMINED.
- C.
UNCONFIRMED.
- D.
UNKNOWN.
Correct Answer
A. TO BE SUPPLEMENTED.Explanation
The correct answer is "TO BE SUPPLEMENTED" because if there is reportable information available on the casualty report that would be of interest to family members or of value to the addresses of the report, it means that some information is missing or incomplete and needs to be supplemented or added later. Using terms like "UNDETERMINED," "UNCONFIRMED," or "UNKNOWN" would imply that the information is not available at all, which is not the case here.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(406) Who must obtain conclusive evidence before reporting the death of an individual?
- A.
Force Support Squadron commander.
- B.
Air Force Casualty Service Branch chief.
- C.
Installation commander.
- D.
Major command staff.
Correct Answer
C. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander must obtain conclusive evidence before reporting the death of an individual. This is because the installation commander is responsible for overseeing all operations and activities on the military installation, including the reporting of deaths. They have the authority to ensure that the information is accurate and verified before it is reported. The Force Support Squadron commander, Air Force Casualty Service Branch chief, and Major command staff may play a role in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the installation commander.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(406) When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived?
- A.
Statements of witnesses to the incident.
- B.
Circumstances of the incident.
- C.
Location of the incident.
- D.
Search results.
Correct Answer
C. Location of the incident.Explanation
When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, the location of the incident is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived. The location of the incident alone does not provide evidence of whether or not someone could have survived. It is the statements of witnesses, circumstances of the incident, and search results that provide more concrete evidence in determining if an individual could have survived or not.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(407) Which publication does not apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties?
- A.
AFI 35–101, Public Affairs Policies and Procedures.
- B.
AFSUPDODR 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program.
- C.
AFI 33–332, Air Force Privacy Act Program.
- D.
AFI 36–3002, Casualty Services.
Correct Answer
D. AFI 36–3002, Casualty Services. -
- 34.
(407) For ill or injured casualties, what personal information may not be released without permission?
- A.
Name and gender.
- B.
Date and location of the incident.
- C.
Gross pay and basic allowance for housing.
- D.
Pay date, military base pay and allowances.
Correct Answer
C. Gross pay and basic allowance for housing.Explanation
Personal information such as gross pay and basic allowance for housing may not be released without permission for ill or injured casualties. This information is considered private and should not be disclosed without the individual's consent.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(407) For deceased casualties, what personal information may not be released?
- A.
Pay date, military base pay, and allowances.
- B.
Any information on the member’s family.
- C.
Age and date of birth.
- D.
Home of record.
Correct Answer
B. Any information on the member’s family.Explanation
The personal information that may not be released for deceased casualties is any information on the member's family. This includes details such as the names, addresses, and contact information of their family members. The other options listed, such as pay date, military base pay, allowances, age, date of birth, and home of record, are not restricted and can be released.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(407) For Duty Status Whereabouts Unknown (DUSTWUN) and Missing casualties in peacetime, do not share personal information that pertains to
- A.
Name and rank.
- B.
Casualty status.
- C.
Age and date of birth.
- D.
Date and location of incident.
Correct Answer
C. Age and date of birth.Explanation
For Duty Status Whereabouts Unknown (DUSTWUN) and Missing casualties in peacetime, it is important not to share personal information that pertains to age and date of birth. This is because sharing this information could potentially compromise the privacy and security of the individual involved. It is important to respect their confidentiality and only share information that is necessary for official purposes.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(408) Which system advertises requirements for special duty assignments, joint and departmental assignments, short-notice overseas (OS) assignments, and all CMSgt assignments?
- A.
EQUAL.
- B.
EQUAL-Plus.
- C.
Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
- D.
Base-level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM).
Correct Answer
B. EQUAL-Plus.Explanation
EQUAL-Plus is the system that advertises requirements for special duty assignments, joint and departmental assignments, short-notice overseas (OS) assignments, and all CMSgt assignments. This means that EQUAL-Plus is the platform where these assignments are posted and made available for interested individuals to apply for.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(408) When the Career Development element receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel (RIP) from HQ AFPC, how many calendar days does the outbound assignment technician have to verify the member’s eligibility?
- A.
7.
- B.
14.
- C.
15.
- D.
30.
Correct Answer
A. 7.Explanation
The outbound assignment technician has 7 calendar days to verify the member's eligibility after receiving an assignment notification report on individual personnel (RIP) from HQ AFPC.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(408) If there is a permanent change of station (PCS) ineligibility condition and there is no indication a waiver or exception has been granted, what action will the military personnel section (MPS) take regarding the assignment selection?
- A.
Request a replacement and forward rip.
- B.
Request an extension to resolve condition.
- C.
Reclama the assignment and not forward rip.
- D.
Reclama the assignment and forward rip to Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
Correct Answer
C. Reclama the assignment and not forward rip.Explanation
If there is a permanent change of station (PCS) ineligibility condition and there is no indication a waiver or exception has been granted, the military personnel section (MPS) will reclama the assignment and not forward rip. This means that they will reject or dispute the assignment and not send the request for personnel action to the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).Rate this question:
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- 40.
(408) Once the unit commander receives the assignment report on individual personnel (RIP) on a member, how many calendar days does he or she have before the RIP is required back to the Military Personnel Section (MPS)?
- A.
7.
- B.
14.
- C.
15.
- D.
30.
Correct Answer
B. 14.Explanation
Once the unit commander receives the assignment report on individual personnel (RIP) on a member, he or she has 14 calendar days before the RIP is required back to the Military Personnel Section (MPS).Rate this question:
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- 41.
(408) For short-notice assignments of 90 calendar days or less until the report no later than date (RNLTD), the Career Development element and unit notification periods are reduced to how many calendar days?
- A.
3.
- B.
4.
- C.
5.
- D.
7.
Correct Answer
A. 3.Explanation
For short-notice assignments of 90 calendar days or less until the report no later than date (RNLTD), both the Career Development element and unit notification periods are reduced to 3 calendar days.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(408) After the Assignment Notification report on individual personnel (RIP) is forwarded to the unit commander, the initial relocation briefing is conducted within how many calendar days?
- A.
7.
- B.
13.
- C.
15.
- D.
21.
Correct Answer
C. 15.Explanation
The initial relocation briefing is conducted within 15 calendar days after the Assignment Notification report on individual personnel (RIP) is forwarded to the unit commander.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(408) Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment?
- A.
63.
- B.
93.
- C.
899.
- D.
965.
Correct Answer
A. 63.Explanation
The correct answer is 63. This AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(408) If a member’s assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the current security clearance on file, what does the Career Development element staff forward to the member’s commander?
- A.
Statement of service.
- B.
Memorandum of agreement.
- C.
Security verification checklist.
- D.
Security requirement memorandum.
Correct Answer
D. Security requirement memorandum.Explanation
When a member's assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than what is currently on file, the Career Development element staff forwards a Security Requirement Memorandum to the member's commander. This memorandum outlines the specific security clearance requirements needed for the assignment and serves as a request for the member's clearance to be upgraded or updated to meet those requirements.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(408) The Career Development element personnelist will provide all members relocating overseas with the opportunity to elect tour options on the AF IMT
- A.
63.
- B.
899.
- C.
965.
- D.
1466.
Correct Answer
C. 965. -
- 46.
(408) Under normal circumstances, the Career Development element publishes permanent change of station (PCS) orders not later than how many days prior to departure?
- A.
30.
- B.
60.
- C.
90.
- D.
120.
Correct Answer
B. 60.Explanation
The Career Development element typically publishes permanent change of station (PCS) orders 60 days prior to departure. This allows individuals enough time to make necessary arrangements and preparations for their move.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(408) If a member has a permanent change of station (PCS) to a stateside assignment, he or she can out-process no earlier than how many duty days prior to departure date?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
4.
Correct Answer
A. 1.Explanation
A member with a permanent change of station (PCS) to a stateside assignment can out-process no earlier than one duty day prior to the departure date. This means that they must complete all necessary administrative tasks and paperwork related to their move within one working day before they leave. This ensures that they have enough time to complete any last-minute preparations and hand in any required documentation before their departure.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(409) Once the member receives an approval of separation e-mail, they will access Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) secure website and complete the online
- A.
Request for Terminal Leave.
- B.
Initial Separation Briefing.
- C.
Separation Incentive Briefing.
- D.
Release from Duty Counseling.
Correct Answer
B. Initial Separation Briefing.Explanation
Once the member receives an approval of separation e-mail, they will access Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) secure website and complete the online Initial Separation Briefing.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(409) Which is not a reason that warrants an administrative separation?
- A.
Parenthood.
- B.
Erroneous enlistment.
- C.
Entry-level performance and conduct.
- D.
Progressively downward trend in performance ratings.
Correct Answer
D. Progressively downward trend in performance ratings.Explanation
A progressively downward trend in performance ratings is not a reason that warrants an administrative separation. This means that even if an individual's performance ratings have been consistently declining over a period of time, it is not sufficient grounds for them to be separated administratively. However, parenthood, erroneous enlistment, and entry-level performance and conduct can all be valid reasons for administrative separation.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(409) Which discharge is considered an admirable reflection that the member has satisfactorily completed a commitment to military service?
- A.
Favorable.
- B.
Honorable.
- C.
Under Honorable (General) Conditions.
- D.
Under Other Than Honorable Conditions.
Correct Answer
B. Honorable.Explanation
The discharge that is considered an admirable reflection of satisfactorily completing a commitment to military service is an Honorable discharge. This type of discharge is given to members who have met or exceeded the standards of military conduct and performance. It signifies that the individual has served their country with honor and distinction, and is usually associated with a positive military record.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Apr 24, 2013Quiz Created by
Jcrown
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