CDC 4N051 Set B Vol 3
- 1.
A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a
- A.
Pharmacist
- B.
Clinical provider
- C.
Clinical pharmacist
- D.
Pharmaceutical technician
Correct Answer
C. Clinical pHarmacistExplanation
A clinical pharmacist is the best definition for a specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs. Clinical pharmacists have advanced knowledge and training in pharmacology and are able to provide expertise and guidance to healthcare providers in selecting the most appropriate medications for their patients. They work closely with healthcare teams to optimize medication therapy and ensure patient safety and efficacy.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer?
- A.
Trade name
- B.
Official name
- C.
Generic name
- D.
Chemical name
Correct Answer
A. Trade nameExplanation
The trade name of a drug is given by the manufacturer. This is the name under which the drug is marketed and sold. It is often a brand name that is unique to the manufacturer and helps to distinguish their product from others in the market. The trade name is typically chosen to be catchy and memorable, making it easier for consumers to recognize and request the specific drug they want.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration?
- A.
Technicians are not trained to prepare medications for administration
- B.
A nurse or physician must directly observe technicians when they are administering medication
- C.
Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician
- D.
Nurses can always allow technicians to decide on their own to administer a medication if the decision is in the patient's best interest
Correct Answer
C. Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or pHysicianExplanation
Medical service technicians are allowed to administer medications, but they must do so under the supervision of a nurse or physician. This means that technicians cannot independently decide to administer medication without the oversight of a healthcare professional.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which statement is not considered one of the patient's legal and ethical rights?
- A.
Be informed of a drug's name
- B.
Be informed of a drug's purpose
- C.
Choose the method of administration
- D.
Receive clearly labeled medication containers
Correct Answer
C. Choose the method of administrationExplanation
The statement "Choose the method of administration" is not considered one of the patient's legal and ethical rights because the method of administration is typically determined by the healthcare provider based on the patient's condition and the prescribed medication. The patient has the right to be informed of a drug's name, purpose, and to receive clearly labeled medication containers to ensure they have the necessary information and can safely take the medication.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What form should be filled out when reporting a medication error?
- A.
AF Form 765
- B.
AF Form 786
- C.
AF Form 3066
- D.
AF Form 3069
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 765Explanation
The correct form that should be filled out when reporting a medication error is AF Form 765.Rate this question:
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- 6.
How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Four
- D.
Five
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
There are two ways a provider can initiate a drug order.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when copying a drug order?
- A.
Kardex
- B.
Medication card
- C.
Telephone consults
- D.
Computer-generated product
Correct Answer
D. Computer-generated productExplanation
Many medical treatment facilities use computer-generated products to avoid errors when copying a drug order. This is because computer-generated products provide a more accurate and efficient way of documenting and transmitting medication orders. They eliminate the risk of human error that can occur when copying information manually. Computer-generated products also allow for easy retrieval and tracking of medication orders, ensuring that the correct medication is administered to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Drug administration is controlled primarily by
- A.
State amendments
- B.
Facility mandate
- C.
Federal law
- D.
State law
Correct Answer
C. Federal lawExplanation
Drug administration is primarily controlled by federal law because the federal government has the authority to regulate and enforce laws related to drugs on a national level. Federal laws, such as the Controlled Substances Act, provide guidelines for the manufacturing, distribution, and dispensing of drugs, as well as the regulation of prescription medications. State laws may also play a role in drug administration, but they must comply with federal laws and regulations. Facility mandates and state amendments may have some influence, but they are secondary to federal law in governing drug administration.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have a high potential for abuse, but have acceptable medial uses are classified as
- A.
Schedule I
- B.
Schedule II
- C.
Schedule III
- D.
Schedule IV
Correct Answer
B. Schedule IIExplanation
Narcotics such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines have a high potential for abuse but still have acceptable medical uses. These substances are classified as Schedule II drugs. This classification indicates that they have a high potential for abuse, but there are also recognized medical benefits associated with their use. Schedule II drugs are tightly regulated and can only be obtained through a prescription from a licensed healthcare professional.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?
- A.
Drug Regulatory Act
- B.
Drug Control Regulation
- C.
Controlled Substances Act
- D.
Attorney General Mandate of 1974
Correct Answer
C. Controlled Substances ActExplanation
The Controlled Substances Act is a law that requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances. This act was enacted to regulate the manufacturing, distribution, and dispensing of drugs that have the potential for abuse or addiction. It aims to prevent the illegal use and diversion of these substances by ensuring that they are properly accounted for through regular inventory checks. The other options mentioned, such as the Drug Regulatory Act, Drug Control Regulation, and Attorney General Mandate of 1974, are not specific laws that require a periodic inventory of controlled substances.Rate this question:
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- 11.
As a minimum, how often should controlled temperature drug storage areas be monitored?
- A.
Beginning of each shift
- B.
Once per day
- C.
Once per week
- D.
Once a month
Correct Answer
B. Once per dayExplanation
Controlled temperature drug storage areas should be monitored once per day to ensure that the temperature remains within the required range. This frequency allows for timely identification of any deviations or fluctuations in temperature that could potentially affect the efficacy and stability of the stored drugs. Regular monitoring helps to maintain the integrity of the drugs and ensures that they are stored under appropriate conditions to maintain their quality and effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?
- A.
Chemotherapeutic
- B.
Substitutive
- C.
Supportive
- D.
Curative
Correct Answer
D. CurativeExplanation
Penicillin is administered to treat an infection, which means it is aimed at eliminating the infection and restoring the patient's health. Therefore, it falls under the category of curative drugs, as it directly addresses the cause of the illness and works to cure it rather than just managing symptoms or providing support.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system is known as
- A.
Osmosis
- B.
Solubility
- C.
Absorption
- D.
Stimulation
Correct Answer
C. AbsorptionExplanation
Absorption is the process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry (such as the gastrointestinal tract or the skin) into the circulatory system. This process allows the drug to be distributed throughout the body, where it can exert its therapeutic effects. Osmosis refers to the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane, not the transportation of drugs. Solubility refers to the ability of a substance to dissolve in a solvent, but it does not specifically refer to the transportation of drugs. Stimulation refers to the activation or enhancement of a physiological or psychological process, which is unrelated to drug transportation.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to
- A.
Acid content
- B.
Water content
- C.
Enzyme production
- D.
Body fat absorption
Correct Answer
D. Body fat absorptionExplanation
A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to body fat absorption. This is because certain drugs are lipophilic, meaning they dissolve in fat. Therefore, patients with higher body fat percentages will have a higher volume of distribution for lipophilic drugs, leading to a longer duration of action and potentially increased drug toxicity. On the other hand, patients with lower body fat percentages may experience decreased drug effectiveness as there is less fat available for drug absorption and distribution.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting?
- A.
Slower circulation level
- B.
Higher body metabolism
- C.
Lower body metabolism
- D.
Lower digestive system content
Correct Answer
D. Lower digestive system contentExplanation
Oral medications that are taken before meals are generally faster acting because the lower digestive system content allows for quicker absorption of the medication into the bloodstream. When the stomach is empty, there is less food and other substances present that could potentially interfere with the absorption process. This means that the medication can be absorbed more rapidly and efficiently, leading to faster onset of action.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?
- A.
Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action
- B.
Warmer temperatures decrease circulation and cause slow drug action
- C.
Colder temperatures cause blood vessels to dilate cause slow drug action
- D.
Colder temperatures cause blood vessels to constrict cause rapid drug action
Correct Answer
A. Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug actionExplanation
Warmer temperatures increase circulation by dilating blood vessels, which leads to a faster delivery of drugs to the target tissues. This increased circulation can enhance the absorption, distribution, and metabolism of drugs, resulting in a more rapid drug action.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?
- A.
Internet search
- B.
Physician Desk Reference
- C.
Nurse's Pharmacy Handbook
- D.
Technicians Pharmacy Handbook
Correct Answer
B. pHysician Desk ReferenceExplanation
The Physician Desk Reference is a commonly used reference source for drugs. It contains comprehensive information about prescription drugs, including their indications, dosages, side effects, and contraindications. Healthcare professionals, including physicians, rely on the Physician Desk Reference to make informed decisions about prescribing medications to their patients. It is considered a reliable and authoritative source of drug information, making it an essential tool in the medical field.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A finely ground drug that can be used internally or used externally describes a type of medication preparation called a
- A.
Pill
- B.
Paste
- C.
Powder
- D.
Tincture
Correct Answer
C. PowderExplanation
A finely ground drug that can be used internally or externally is known as a powder. Powders are a type of medication preparation that can be ingested orally or applied topically. They are created by grinding the drug into a fine, dry form, which allows for easy administration and absorption by the body. Powders are versatile and can be used in various ways depending on the specific needs of the patient.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content?
- A.
Antiarrhythmics
- B.
Antiemetics
- C.
Cathartics
- D.
Antacids
Correct Answer
C. CatharticsExplanation
Cathartics are a type of medication that have a cleansing action on the intestines, leading to watery evacuation of intestinal content. They are used to treat constipation and promote bowel movements. Antiarrhythmics are medications used to treat irregular heart rhythms, while antiemetics are used to prevent or treat nausea and vomiting. Antacids are medications used to neutralize stomach acid and relieve heartburn or indigestion.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which element is not required on a medication order?
- A.
Patient's age
- B.
Patient's name
- C.
Specified time
- D.
Provider's signature
Correct Answer
A. Patient's ageExplanation
The patient's age is not required on a medication order because the dosage and administration instructions for a medication are typically determined based on the patient's weight, medical condition, and other factors, rather than their age. The patient's name is necessary for identification, the specified time is needed to indicate when the medication should be taken, and the provider's signature is required for authentication.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except
- A.
For ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day
- B.
Performing all steps in the six medication rights
- C.
Being knowledgeable of the side effects of the medication
- D.
Verifying any possible interactions against current medications
Correct Answer
A. For ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next dayExplanation
The question is asking for the option that is not a responsibility before administering any medication. The answer is "for ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day." This means that it is not the responsibility of the person administering the medication to ensure that A1C Jones is available for work the next day. The other options, such as performing all steps in the six medication rights, being knowledgeable of the side effects of the medication, and verifying any possible interactions against current medications, are all responsibilities that need to be fulfilled before administering medication.Rate this question:
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- 22.
How many pounds are equal to 65kg?
- A.
130
- B.
143
- C.
152
- D.
170
Correct Answer
B. 143Explanation
65kg is equal to approximately 143 pounds.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials 50mg/mL. How many mLs of the Ancef will be given for each dose?
- A.
5.0
- B.
0.6
- C.
6.5
- D.
65
Correct Answer
C. 6.5Explanation
To calculate the amount of Ancef to be given for each dose, we need to find the total amount of Ancef required for Mrs. Green's weight. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg and the dosage is 5mg/kg. Therefore, the total amount of Ancef required for each dose is 65kg multiplied by 5mg/kg, which equals 325mg. The medication is supplied in vials of 50mg/mL. To find the volume of Ancef needed, we divide the total amount (325mg) by the concentration (50mg/mL), which gives us 6.5mL. Therefore, 6.5mL of Ancef will be given for each dose.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Lt Col McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5mg, to be administered intramuscularly to A1C Jones for nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mLs would you administer?
- A.
0.25
- B.
0.50
- C.
2.5
- D.
5.0
Correct Answer
B. 0.50Explanation
The Phenergan is supplied in 50mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. To administer a single dose of 12.5mg, we need to calculate the corresponding volume of the medication. Using a proportion, we can set up the equation (50mg / 2mL) = (12.5mg / x mL), where x represents the volume we need to find. Cross-multiplying, we get 50mg * x mL = 12.5mg * 2mL. Simplifying, we find that x = (12.5mg * 2mL) / 50mg = 0.50mL. Therefore, we would administer 0.50mL of Phenergan to A1C Jones.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is
- A.
Intravenous (IV) push
- B.
Intramuscular (IM)
- C.
Subcutaneous (sc)
- D.
IV drip
Correct Answer
B. Intramuscular (IM)Explanation
The correct answer is intramuscular (IM) because this method involves injecting a drug directly into the muscle tissue. This allows for the drug to be absorbed quickly and effectively into the bloodstream. Intravenous (IV) push involves injecting a drug directly into a vein, subcutaneous (sc) involves injecting a drug into the fatty tissue just beneath the skin, and IV drip involves administering a drug slowly over a period of time through a vein. However, in this case, the drug is being injected into a muscle, making intramuscular (IM) the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Name the parts of a needle
- A.
Hub, shaft, and bevel
- B.
Cylinder, shank, and tip
- C.
Barrel, bevel, and gauges
- D.
Hub, tip, and calibrations
Correct Answer
A. Hub, shaft, and bevelExplanation
The correct answer is hub, shaft, and bevel. The hub refers to the part of the needle that attaches to the syringe or other device. The shaft is the long, slender portion of the needle that is inserted into the body. The bevel is the slanted tip of the needle that allows for easier insertion into the skin or tissue.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system?
- A.
Oral
- B.
Buccal
- C.
Inhalation
- D.
Sublingual (SL)
Correct Answer
A. OralExplanation
The correct answer is Oral. This administration method involves delivering medication directly into a patient's digestive system through the mouth. It can be in the form of tablets, capsules, or liquids that are swallowed and absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract. This route is commonly used as it is convenient and allows for easy self-administration by the patient.Rate this question:
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- 28.
To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location?
- A.
In the pharmacy
- B.
At a work station
- C.
At the nurses' station
- D.
At the patient's bedside
Correct Answer
D. At the patient's bedsideExplanation
Liquid medications are usually poured at the patient's bedside to prevent contamination and accidental spills. This ensures that the medication is administered directly to the patient without any risk of contamination during transportation. Pouring the medication at the patient's bedside also allows for better accuracy in dosage and reduces the chances of errors that can occur when medications are prepared in advance. Additionally, pouring the medication at the patient's bedside allows for immediate administration, ensuring that the patient receives the medication in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which statement is a disadvantage of inhalation medication?
- A.
Unconscious patients cannot be treated
- B.
Positive-pressure devices are sometimes used
- C.
Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult
- D.
Respiratory distress is not relieved through the use of an inhalation
Correct Answer
C. Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficultExplanation
Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult with inhalation medication because it is challenging to accurately measure the exact dose of medication that is being inhaled. Unlike oral or injectable medications, where the dosage can be easily measured and controlled, inhalation medications rely on the patient's ability to inhale the medication properly. Factors such as the patient's breathing pattern, technique, and coordination can affect the amount of medication actually delivered to the lungs. This lack of precise measurement can make it difficult to ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dosage of medication.Rate this question:
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- 30.
When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to
- A.
Maintain patient comfort
- B.
Keep the medication off the patient's face
- C.
Prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye
- D.
Allow the solution to pool in the affected eye, filling the conjunctival sac
Correct Answer
C. Prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eyeExplanation
Administering eye medications requires the patient's treated eye to be positioned lower than the other eye in order to prevent the solution from running into the unaffected eye. This positioning helps ensure that the medication remains localized to the intended eye and does not cause any unintended effects or discomfort to the unaffected eye. By keeping the treated eye lower, gravity helps to direct the flow of the medication towards the affected eye and prevents any accidental spillage or contact with the unaffected eye.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Into what body cavity are otic medications administered?
- A.
External auditory canal
- B.
Internal auditory canal
- C.
Lower conjunctival sac
- D.
Upper conjunctival sac
Correct Answer
A. External auditory canalExplanation
Otic medications are administered into the external auditory canal. The external auditory canal is the passageway that leads from the outside of the ear to the eardrum. This is where medications for ear conditions, such as infections or inflammation, are directly applied. Administering medications in this way allows for targeted treatment and absorption of the medication into the affected area.Rate this question:
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- 32.
To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, you gently pull the earlobe
- A.
Down to straighten the canal
- B.
Outward to expose the canal
- C.
Inward to confine the canal
- D.
Up to shorten to the canal
Correct Answer
A. Down to straighten the canalExplanation
To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, gently pulling the earlobe down helps to straighten the canal. This allows for easier and more accurate placement of the ear drops into the ear canal. By straightening the canal, the drops can reach their intended target and be more effective in treating any ear-related issues.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Vaginal suppositories are
- A.
Cooled before administration
- B.
Useful for cleansing purposes
- C.
Administered to combat infection
- D.
Administered along the anterior wall of the vagina
Correct Answer
C. Administered to combat infectionExplanation
Vaginal suppositories are administered to combat infection. This means that they are used to treat or fight against infections in the vaginal area. They are inserted into the vagina to deliver medication directly to the infection site, allowing for targeted treatment. The cooling of the suppositories before administration or their use for cleansing purposes are not mentioned in the explanation. The administration along the anterior wall of the vagina is also not specified in the given information.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag?
- A.
4 to 8 inches
- B.
6 to 10 inches
- C.
12 to 18 inches
- D.
24 to 36 inches
Correct Answer
C. 12 to 18 inchesExplanation
When administering a vaginal douche, the bag should be hung 12 to 18 inches above the patient's vagina. This height allows for the solution to flow gently into the vagina without causing discomfort or excessive pressure. Hanging the bag too low may result in inadequate flow, while hanging it too high may cause discomfort or even injury to the patient. Therefore, the recommended height range ensures safe and effective administration of the douche.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which medication's primary action is pain relief?
- A.
Endorphins, hypnotics and sedatives
- B.
Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics
- C.
Placebo, tricyclics, and analgesics
- D.
Stimulant, sedatives, and placebo
Correct Answer
B. Analgesics, sedatives and hypnoticsExplanation
The medications that primarily act to relieve pain are analgesics. Sedatives and hypnotics, on the other hand, are medications that induce sleep or relaxation. Therefore, the correct answer is "Analgesics, sedatives, and hypnotics" as these medications have pain-relieving properties.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Opioids are contraindicated with
- A.
A treatment of extremity injuries
- B.
A Phenergan combination
- C.
Head injury treatment
- D.
Caffeine use
Correct Answer
C. Head injury treatmentExplanation
Opioids are contraindicated with head injury treatment because they can mask the symptoms of a head injury, making it difficult to assess the severity of the injury. Opioids can also cause respiratory depression, which can be dangerous for individuals with head injuries. Therefore, it is important to avoid using opioids in the treatment of head injuries to ensure proper evaluation and management of the condition.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Opioid antagonists are used in the treatment of
- A.
Acetaminophen overdose
- B.
Ibuprofen overdose
- C.
Vitamin C overdose
- D.
Opioid overdose
Correct Answer
D. Opioid overdoseExplanation
Opioid antagonists are medications that are specifically designed to block the effects of opioids in the body. They are used in the treatment of opioid overdose to reverse the potentially life-threatening effects of opioids, such as respiratory depression and sedation. By binding to the opioid receptors in the brain, opioid antagonists can quickly reverse the effects of opioids and restore normal breathing and consciousness. This makes them a crucial intervention in cases of opioid overdose, where prompt action is necessary to prevent further harm or death.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Nonopioid analgesics are available
- A.
Through product sampling
- B.
During clinical trials
- C.
By prescription only
- D.
Over the counter
Correct Answer
D. Over the counterExplanation
Nonopioid analgesics are available over the counter, meaning they can be purchased without a prescription. This suggests that these medications are considered safe and effective for self-medication and can be easily accessed by consumers. Unlike products that require a prescription, over-the-counter medications can be obtained directly from a pharmacy or retail store without the need for a doctor's order. This accessibility allows individuals to manage their pain and discomfort without the added step of visiting a healthcare professional.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with
- A.
Preventing the formation of prostaglandins
- B.
The recovery of alcohol abuse
- C.
Increased kidney functions
- D.
Curing joint dysfunctions
Correct Answer
A. Preventing the formation of prostaglandinsExplanation
Prostaglandins are lipid compounds that play a role in inflammation and pain. By preventing the formation of prostaglandins, anti-inflammatory actions can help reduce inflammation, swelling, and pain in the body. This can be beneficial in treating various conditions such as arthritis, muscle sprains, and certain autoimmune diseases.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is
- A.
A depressed state of rapid eye movement (REM) phase of sleep
- B.
An increased risk for developing cardiovascular disease
- C.
The constant stimulation to the central nervous system
- D.
The high level of red blood cell production
Correct Answer
A. A depressed state of rapid eye movement (REM) pHase of sleepExplanation
A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is a depressed state of rapid eye movement (REM) phase of sleep. Sedatives and hypnotic medications are known to suppress the activity of the central nervous system, which includes the brain. This suppression can lead to a decrease in the amount of REM sleep, which is the stage of sleep associated with dreaming and cognitive processing. Therefore, it is likely that sedatives and hypnotic medications can cause a depressed state of REM sleep. This side effect can disrupt the normal sleep cycle and may have negative effects on overall sleep quality and cognitive functioning.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which over the counter central nervous system stimulant is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence?
- A.
Dexadrine
- B.
Concerta
- C.
Caffeine
- D.
Ritalin
Correct Answer
C. CaffeineExplanation
Caffeine is a commonly used over the counter central nervous system stimulant that is often consumed in high doses for prolonged periods. It can lead to habituation and psychological dependence, as individuals may develop a tolerance to its effects and feel the need to consume more in order to achieve the same level of stimulation. This can result in a psychological dependence on caffeine, where individuals may experience withdrawal symptoms if they try to cut back or quit consuming it.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is NOT a side effect of tricyclics?
- A.
Urinary retention
- B.
Pupil constriction
- C.
Cardiac arrhythmias
- D.
Postural hypotension
Correct Answer
B. Pupil constrictionExplanation
Tricyclics are a class of medications commonly used to treat depression. One of the side effects associated with tricyclics is pupil dilation, not pupil constriction. Pupil constriction is not a side effect of tricyclics, meaning it does not occur as a result of taking these medications.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Antianxiety medications are prescribed for
- A.
Suicidal tendencies treatment
- B.
The treatment of withdrawals
- C.
Prolonged treatment
- D.
The treat of insomnia
Correct Answer
D. The treat of insomniaExplanation
Antianxiety medications are prescribed for the treatment of insomnia. Insomnia refers to the difficulty in falling asleep or staying asleep, which can lead to various negative effects on a person's physical and mental well-being. Antianxiety medications can help to alleviate anxiety symptoms that may be contributing to insomnia, allowing individuals to achieve better sleep. These medications work by calming the central nervous system, promoting relaxation, and reducing feelings of anxiety, which can ultimately aid in improving sleep quality.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Antipsychotic medications are categorized as
- A.
Hypnotics
- B.
Major tranquilizers
- C.
Seizure medications
- D.
Antisynovial producers
Correct Answer
B. Major tranquilizersExplanation
Antipsychotic medications are classified as major tranquilizers because they are primarily used to treat severe mental disorders such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. These medications work by blocking certain neurotransmitters in the brain, helping to reduce hallucinations, delusions, and other psychotic symptoms. The term "major tranquilizers" refers to their ability to calm and stabilize individuals with these conditions, allowing them to function better in their daily lives.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) common to typical phenothiazines antipsychotic medications is a result of
- A.
Increasing body secretion function
- B.
Decreasing norepinephrine relay
- C.
Increasing serotonin reuptake
- D.
Blocking dopamine receptors
Correct Answer
D. Blocking dopamine receptorsExplanation
Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) are common in typical phenothiazines antipsychotic medications. These side effects are a result of blocking dopamine receptors. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a role in motor control. Blocking dopamine receptors can lead to motor disturbances and movement disorders, which are characteristic of EPS.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which pulse point should be checked before the administration of digitalis?
- A.
Brachial
- B.
Apical
- C.
Radial
- D.
Pedal
Correct Answer
B. ApicalExplanation
Before the administration of digitalis, the apical pulse point should be checked. This is because digitalis is a medication used to treat heart conditions, and it works by affecting the heart's rhythm and strength of contractions. The apical pulse is the most accurate measurement of the heart's rhythm and is taken by listening to the heartbeat with a stethoscope placed over the apex of the heart. By checking the apical pulse, healthcare providers can assess the baseline heart rate and rhythm before administering digitalis to ensure its safety and effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except
- A.
Vertigo
- B.
Diplopia
- C.
Tachycardia
- D.
Bradycardia
Correct Answer
C. TachycardiaExplanation
Digitalis is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions. It works by increasing the strength and efficiency of the heart muscle. However, it can also have toxic side effects. Vertigo and diplopia (double vision) are potential side effects of digitalis toxicity. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is also a known side effect, as digitalis can suppress the electrical signals that regulate the heart rate. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is not a toxic side effect of digitalis. Tachycardia refers to a fast heart rate, which is not typically associated with digitalis toxicity.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with
- A.
Lung conditions that cause bronchospasm
- B.
Heart block and congestive heart failure
- C.
Renal and hepatic impairment
- D.
Diabetes militeus
Correct Answer
A. Lung conditions that cause bronchospasmExplanation
Adrenergic blockers are medications that block the effects of adrenaline in the body. In low doses, they can be used to treat patients with lung conditions that cause bronchospasm. Bronchospasm is a condition where the muscles around the airways in the lungs tighten, causing difficulty in breathing. By blocking the effects of adrenaline, adrenergic blockers can help relax these muscles and improve airflow in the lungs. Therefore, using adrenergic blockers in low doses can be beneficial for patients with lung conditions that cause bronchospasm.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Calcium channel blockers should not be taken with
- A.
Grapefruit juice
- B.
Soy products
- C.
Water
- D.
Milk
Correct Answer
A. Grapefruit juiceExplanation
Grapefruit juice should not be taken with calcium channel blockers because it can interfere with the way the medication is metabolized in the body. Grapefruit juice contains compounds that inhibit an enzyme responsible for breaking down the medication, leading to higher levels of the drug in the bloodstream. This can increase the risk of side effects and potentially cause harm. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking calcium channel blockers.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The drug of choice when treating premature ventricular contractions associated with a myocardial infarction is
- A.
Epinephrine
- B.
Lidocaine
- C.
Tonocard
- D.
Ultram
Correct Answer
B. LidocaineExplanation
Lidocaine is the drug of choice when treating premature ventricular contractions associated with a myocardial infarction because it is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug that works by blocking sodium channels in the heart, thereby reducing abnormal electrical activity. This helps to restore normal heart rhythm and prevent further complications. Epinephrine is not typically used for treating premature ventricular contractions associated with a myocardial infarction, as it is primarily used for treating cardiac arrest. Tonocard and Ultram are not commonly used for this condition and do not have specific antiarrhythmic properties.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 28, 2018Quiz Created by
Samantha Roderick
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