CDC Quiz Volume One Multiple Choice
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CDC Quiz Volume one Multiple Choice
- 1.
Which knowledge operations management KOM level involves developiing and implementing policy to manage information throughout its life cycle and provide centralized services?
- A.
Major Command
- B.
Installation
- C.
Staff support
- D.
Agency
Correct Answer
B. InstallationExplanation
The correct answer is "Installation." The explanation for this is that the level of knowledge operations management (KOM) that involves developing and implementing policy to manage information throughout its life cycle and provide centralized services is typically done at the installation level. This means that the responsibility for managing information and ensuring its proper handling and usage lies with the specific installation or base where the operations are being carried out.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Who are the knowledge operations managers customers?
- A.
Information users, both internal and external
- B.
Information users, both centralized and decentralized
- C.
Information providers both internal and external
- D.
Information providers both centralized and decentralized
Correct Answer
A. Information users, both internal and externalExplanation
The knowledge operations manager's customers are information users, both internal and external. This means that the manager serves individuals or groups within the organization who require information for their work, as well as individuals or groups outside the organization who rely on the knowledge provided. The manager's role is to ensure that information is effectively and efficiently delivered to meet the needs of these users, regardless of whether they are internal or external to the organization.Rate this question:
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- 3.
When may a trainee perform a task unsupervised
- A.
Once the trainee is qualified
- B.
Once trainee completes 7 level training
- C.
When the trainee has completed initial skills training.
- D.
When the trainee has completed the task at least three times.
Correct Answer
A. Once the trainee is qualifiedExplanation
A trainee may perform a task unsupervised once they are qualified. This means that they have successfully demonstrated the necessary skills and knowledge to perform the task independently. Being qualified indicates that the trainee has reached a level of competence and can be trusted to carry out the task without direct supervision.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Superintendent positions are expected to be filled with managers at what skill level
- A.
3
- B.
5
- C.
7
- D.
9
Correct Answer
D. 9Explanation
Superintendent positions are expected to be filled with managers at a skill level of 9. This indicates that the role requires highly skilled and experienced individuals who possess advanced knowledge and expertise in managing and overseeing various operations and departments. These managers are expected to have a deep understanding of the industry, strong leadership abilities, and the ability to make critical decisions effectively. They are likely to have a significant level of responsibility and be capable of handling complex tasks and challenges in their role as superintendents.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Where does the authority for the functions and responsibilities of knowledge operations managment KOM originate
- A.
Public Law
- B.
United States COde
- C.
PL and Statutes
- D.
USC and PL
Correct Answer
D. USC and PLExplanation
The authority for the functions and responsibilities of knowledge operations management (KOM) originates from the United States Code (USC) and Public Law (PL). This means that the rules and regulations governing KOM are derived from the legal statutes outlined in the USC and PL. These laws provide the framework and guidelines for how KOM should be conducted and managed.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What branch of law deals mainly with the state or government and its relationships with individual?
- A.
Public Law
- B.
Federal Statutes
- C.
United States Code
- D.
Federal Government Policies
Correct Answer
A. Public LawExplanation
Public Law is the correct answer because it is the branch of law that focuses on the state or government and its interactions with individuals. It encompasses areas such as constitutional law, administrative law, and criminal law, which all involve the government's authority and its impact on individuals' rights and obligations. Public Law sets the framework for the relationship between the government and its citizens, ensuring accountability and the protection of individual rights within the legal system.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What act mandates establishments of agency programs for the managment of federal records
- A.
Privacy Act
- B.
Federal Records Act
- C.
Freedom of Information Act
- D.
Paperwork Reduction Reauthorization Act
Correct Answer
B. Federal Records ActExplanation
The Federal Records Act mandates the establishment of agency programs for the management of federal records. This act requires federal agencies to create and maintain records management programs to ensure the proper preservation, access, and disposal of records. It sets guidelines for recordkeeping practices, including record creation, maintenance, and disposition. The act aims to ensure transparency, accountability, and efficiency in the management of federal records.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What act provides policy to ensure public access to federal government infromation
- A.
Privacy
- B.
Federal records
- C.
Paperwork reduction
- D.
Freedom of Infromation
Correct Answer
D. Freedom of InfromationExplanation
The correct answer is "freedom of Information." The Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) provides policy to ensure public access to federal government information. This act allows individuals to request and obtain information from federal agencies, promoting transparency and accountability in government operations. It grants the public the right to access records and documents held by federal agencies, with certain exceptions for national security and personal privacy.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What act holds agencies accountable for the results of their infromation technology investments
- A.
Privacy
- B.
Clinger cohen
- C.
Global information
- D.
Paperwork Reduction Reauthorization
Correct Answer
B. Clinger cohenExplanation
The Clinger Cohen Act holds agencies accountable for the results of their information technology investments. This act, also known as the Information Technology Management Reform Act of 1996, requires federal agencies to establish a process for selecting, managing, and evaluating IT investments. It aims to improve the acquisition and management of IT resources within the government and ensure that agencies are responsible for the outcomes of their IT projects. This act promotes transparency, efficiency, and effectiveness in the use of IT resources by holding agencies accountable for the results they achieve.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What function is associated with the information management core competency
- A.
Collaborative tools
- B.
Records managment
- C.
Database management
- D.
Infromation presentation
Correct Answer
B. Records managmentExplanation
Records management is the function associated with the information management core competency. This is because records management involves the systematic control and organization of records throughout their lifecycle, including their creation, maintenance, and disposal. It ensures that records are properly managed, stored, and accessible, which is crucial for effective information management. Collaborative tools, database management, and information presentation are also important aspects of information management, but they are not specifically associated with the core competency of records management.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What function is associated with the knowledge managemnet core competency
- A.
Collaborative tools
- B.
Records management
- C.
Database managemnent
- D.
Community of interest
Correct Answer
A. Collaborative toolsExplanation
Collaborative tools are associated with the knowledge management core competency. These tools facilitate communication, collaboration, and sharing of information among individuals or teams within an organization. By using collaborative tools, organizations can effectively capture, store, and distribute knowledge, fostering a culture of collaboration and enabling employees to access and contribute to the collective knowledge of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What communications computer system C_CS personnel asssociated with the knowledge operation managemnet KOM career field perform system hardware and software operations managmement and administration
- A.
Operations
- B.
Programming
- C.
Network integration
- D.
Planning and implemtation
Correct Answer
A. OperationsExplanation
C_CS personnel associated with the knowledge operation management (KOM) career field perform system hardware and software operations management and administration. This means that they are responsible for overseeing and maintaining the functionality of computer systems, including both the hardware and software components. They ensure that the systems are operating smoothly and efficiently, troubleshoot any issues that arise, and handle tasks such as software installations and updates. Additionally, they may be involved in planning and implementing new systems or integrating computer networks.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What communications computer system C_CS peronnel associated with the knowledge operation management KOM career field coordinate restoration of service test subscriber equipment and verify end to end circuit services?
- A.
Operations
- B.
Programming
- C.
Network Integration
- D.
Planning and implementation
Correct Answer
C. Network IntegrationExplanation
Network Integration personnel are responsible for coordinating the restoration of service, testing subscriber equipment, and verifying end-to-end circuit services in the communications computer system. They ensure that all components and systems are properly integrated and functioning together to provide seamless communication services. This includes coordinating with various teams and departments to troubleshoot and resolve any issues that may arise during the restoration process. Network Integration personnel play a crucial role in ensuring that the communication system is fully operational and meets the needs of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Who ensures promotion test are valid and relevant by using ratings of testing importance knowledge of job structure and performance by pay grade groups of specific task
- A.
Supervisors
- B.
Psychologist
- C.
Career field Managers
- D.
Utilization and training workshop groups
Correct Answer
B. PsychologistExplanation
Psychologists ensure promotion tests are valid and relevant by using ratings of testing importance, knowledge of job structure, and performance by pay grade groups of specific tasks. They have the expertise to assess the validity and relevance of the tests based on their knowledge of human behavior, cognitive abilities, and job requirements. By analyzing the ratings and considering various factors, psychologists can provide valuable insights and recommendations to ensure that the promotion tests accurately measure the necessary skills and competencies for the job.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What do people involved in training decisions use as part of the instruction systems development ISD process
- A.
Workshops
- B.
Master training list
- C.
Occupational analysis
- D.
Job qualification standard
Correct Answer
C. Occupational analysisExplanation
People involved in training decisions use occupational analysis as part of the instruction systems development (ISD) process. Occupational analysis involves studying and analyzing job roles, tasks, and skills required for a particular occupation. This analysis helps in identifying the specific training needs and requirements for individuals in that occupation. By conducting an occupational analysis, trainers can design and develop training programs that are tailored to the specific job requirements, ensuring that the training is effective and relevant to the learners' needs.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the goal of the utilization and training workshop?
- A.
Train the trainers and cerifiers
- B.
Set training plan for the career field
- C.
Produce a master training plane for the career field
- D.
Estabolish a viable career field education and training plan
Correct Answer
D. Estabolish a viable career field education and training planExplanation
The goal of the utilization and training workshop is to establish a viable career field education and training plan. This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive and effective plan for educating and training individuals in a specific career field. This plan will likely include strategies for developing skills, providing resources, and ensuring that the training meets the needs and demands of the career field.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What do the training advisory groups provide
- A.
Cohesive approach to address training managemnent issues
- B.
Cohesive approach to address maintenance issues
- C.
Establishment of viable training and technologies
- D.
Establish of training school priorities
Correct Answer
A. Cohesive approach to address training managemnent issuesExplanation
Training advisory groups provide a cohesive approach to address training management issues. These groups help in developing strategies and plans to effectively manage training programs. They ensure that the training needs of the organization are met, and provide guidance on the design, implementation, and evaluation of training initiatives. By bringing together different stakeholders and experts, training advisory groups facilitate collaboration and coordination, leading to a more integrated and efficient approach towards addressing training management issues.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What operation do we use to ensure cross domain freedom of action frou our freinds and allies and deny that same freedom to our adversaries
- A.
Cyber
- B.
Defensive countercyber
- C.
Offensive countercyber
- D.
Cyber combat support
Correct Answer
A. CyberExplanation
The correct answer is cyber. This answer suggests that the operation being referred to is related to the cyber domain. It implies that through the use of cyber capabilities, we aim to ensure freedom of action for our friends and allies while denying that same freedom to our adversaries. This could involve defensive measures to protect our own systems and networks, offensive actions to disrupt or disable the adversary's cyber capabilities, or providing cyber combat support to our friends and allies.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What type of cyber operations ensures friendly freedom of action in cyberspace while denying it to adversaries
- A.
Cyber warfare
- B.
Countercyber
- C.
Cyber cross domain
- D.
Cyber combat support
Correct Answer
B. CountercyberExplanation
Countercyber operations ensure friendly freedom of action in cyberspace while denying it to adversaries. These operations involve actively defending against and neutralizing cyber threats posed by adversaries. By identifying and countering cyber attacks, countercyber operations aim to protect critical infrastructure, networks, and information from being compromised or exploited. This proactive approach helps maintain the advantage in cyberspace and safeguard friendly operations.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What ooperations must the Air force develop to support structures and programs to sustain and develop effective cyber capabilities
- A.
Cyber combat
- B.
Cyber cross domain
- C.
Defensive countercyber
- D.
Offensive countercyber
Correct Answer
A. Cyber combatExplanation
The Air Force must develop cyber combat operations to support structures and programs for sustaining and developing effective cyber capabilities. This involves engaging in offensive and defensive countercyber activities, including cyber cross domain operations. By actively engaging in cyber combat, the Air Force can protect its networks, systems, and data from cyber threats, as well as conduct offensive operations to disrupt and neutralize adversaries in the cyberspace domain.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which AFI volume 1 titled Network Operations provides the guidance necessary
- A.
33-111
- B.
33-115
- C.
33-204
- D.
33-402
Correct Answer
B. 33-115Explanation
AFI 33-115 is the correct answer because it is titled "Network Operations" and provides the necessary guidance for network operations. The other options, 33-111, 33-204, and 33-402, do not specifically mention network operations in their titles and may not provide the required guidance for this specific topic.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which function cirulates tasking and driections the intedgrated network operations and security center through communitcation tasking orders
- A.
Air force network operations center
- B.
Network operations division
- C.
Network control division
- D.
Global neOps Center
Correct Answer
A. Air force network operations centerExplanation
The Air Force Network Operations Center is responsible for circulating tasking and directing the integrated network operations and security center through communication tasking orders. This center is specifically designed to handle network operations and security for the Air Force, ensuring efficient and effective communication within the network.Rate this question:
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- 23.
At which tier do the Network control centers NCC currently provide on site technical capability
- A.
Tier 1
- B.
Tier 2
- C.
Tier 3
- D.
Tier 4
Correct Answer
C. Tier 3Explanation
The Network control centers (NCC) currently provide on-site technical capability at tier 3. This means that they have the ability to handle and resolve more complex technical issues. Tier 3 support typically involves advanced troubleshooting and problem-solving skills, and may require specialized knowledge or expertise. By providing on-site technical capability at this tier, the NCC ensures that they can effectively address and resolve the more challenging technical issues that may arise.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is the operations flight responsible for within the communications squadron
- A.
Managing base level communication security programs
- B.
Managing activities related to budgeting and billing
- C.
Managing theater deployable communications equipment
- D.
Providing network control center opearations toinclude the client service center
Correct Answer
D. Providing network control center opearations toinclude the client service centerExplanation
The operations flight within the communications squadron is responsible for providing network control center operations, including the client service center. This means that they are in charge of managing and overseeing the operations of the network control center, which includes providing services to the client service center. They are responsible for ensuring that the network and communication systems are functioning properly and meeting the needs of the client service center.Rate this question:
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- 25.
As a knowledge operations manager which flight would you be assinged to if you were assigned to the communications squadron
- A.
SCD
- B.
SCO
- C.
SCP
- D.
SCX
Correct Answer
B. SCOExplanation
As a knowledge operations manager assigned to the communications squadron, you would be assigned to the flight with the designation SCO. This is because SCO stands for Communications Operations, which aligns with your role and responsibilities as a knowledge operations manager within the communications squadron.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What serves as the chairperson for the utilization and training workshop U and TW
- A.
Base functional Manager
- B.
Air force career field manager
- C.
Air force chief infromation officer
- D.
Major command functional manager
Correct Answer
C. Air force chief infromation officerExplanation
The Air Force Chief Information Officer serves as the chairperson for the utilization and training workshop U and TW. This individual is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the utilization and training efforts within the Air Force, ensuring that resources are effectively utilized and personnel are properly trained in information technology. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the Air Force's information systems are functioning efficiently and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan requirments
- A.
Base functional manager
- B.
Air force career field manager
- C.
Air force cheif information officer
- D.
Major command functional manager
Correct Answer
B. Air force career field managerExplanation
The Air Force career field manager is the final authority to waive career field education training plan requirements. They have the ultimate decision-making power and expertise in their respective career fields, allowing them to assess the necessity of certain training plans and make exceptions if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Who is a voting representative during the utilization and training workshop U and TW
- A.
Highest ranking infromation manager on the base
- B.
Communication squadron commander
- C.
Major command functional manager
- D.
Base training manager
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional managerExplanation
The major command functional manager is the voting representative during the utilization and training workshop U and TW. This individual holds a high-ranking position within the major command and is responsible for overseeing the functional areas within the command. They have the authority and expertise to make decisions and represent the command's interests during the workshop. The communication squadron commander and base training manager may have some involvement in the workshop, but the major command functional manager holds the highest ranking position and is therefore the appropriate choice as the voting representative.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Who identifies qualified subject matter experts to help with the development of specialty knowledge test
- A.
Chief group
- B.
Air force career field field manager
- C.
Major command functional manager
- D.
Communication squadron commander
Correct Answer
B. Air force career field field managerExplanation
The air force career field field manager is responsible for identifying qualified subject matter experts to assist in the development of specialty knowledge tests. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the skills and qualifications of individuals within their career field and select the most suitable experts to contribute to the test development process. This ensures that the tests are accurate and comprehensive, reflecting the specific knowledge and requirements of the career field.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Who appoints the wing or base level knowledge operations managment KOM functional manager
- A.
Wing or base commander
- B.
Air force career field manager
- C.
Major command functional manager
- D.
Communications squadron commander
Correct Answer
D. Communications squadron commanderExplanation
The communications squadron commander is responsible for appointing the wing or base level knowledge operations management (KOM) functional manager. This individual is in charge of overseeing the operations and management of the KOM function within the squadron. They have the authority to select and appoint the most suitable candidate for this role based on their knowledge, skills, and experience in the field.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Who is responsible to ensure all knowledge operations managers have applicable training products
- A.
Base training manager
- B.
Base functional manager
- C.
Air froce career field manager
- D.
Major command functional manager
Correct Answer
B. Base functional managerExplanation
The base functional manager is responsible for ensuring that all knowledge operations managers have applicable training products. This means that it is the duty of the base functional manager to provide the necessary training resources and materials to the knowledge operations managers, ensuring that they have the knowledge and skills required to perform their tasks effectively. This responsibility falls under the jurisdiction of the base functional manager, who oversees the functional aspects of the base operations.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Knowledge opearations management KOM personnel are considered for job rotations withing their career field every
- A.
15 months
- B.
18 months
- C.
24 months
- D.
36 months
Correct Answer
C. 24 monthsExplanation
KOM personnel are considered for job rotations within their career field every 24 months. This means that every two years, these personnel have the opportunity to move to a different job within their field. Job rotations can provide employees with new challenges, opportunities for growth, and a broader understanding of the organization. By rotating jobs every 24 months, KOM personnel can gain diverse experiences and develop a well-rounded skill set, ultimately benefiting both the individuals and the organization.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Studies have shown that the positive impacts of job rotation are
- A.
Reduced work stress, increased production and increased salary
- B.
Reduced boredom increased health and wllness and increased motivation
- C.
Increased leadership values reduced work stress and increased production
- D.
Reduced boredom, reduced work stress increased innovation and increase production
Correct Answer
D. Reduced boredom, reduced work stress increased innovation and increase productionExplanation
Job rotation refers to the practice of employees switching between different roles or tasks within an organization. This can have several positive impacts. Firstly, it reduces boredom as employees get the opportunity to engage in different activities, preventing monotony and increasing job satisfaction. Secondly, it reduces work stress by providing employees with a change of scenery and allowing them to develop new skills and knowledge. Additionally, job rotation promotes innovation as employees gain exposure to different perspectives and approaches. Finally, it can increase production as employees become more versatile and adaptable, leading to improved efficiency and effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which communication and infromation C and I award program recognizes individual teams and units for their superior perfromance, professional excellence and significant contributions to the air force
- A.
Air froce war fighter integration and chief infromation officer special trophies and awards program
- B.
General billy mitchell award for communications and infromation excellence
- C.
Major general harold m mcclelland award
- D.
Lieutenant general harold w grant award
Correct Answer
A. Air froce war fighter integration and chief infromation officer special tropHies and awards programExplanation
The correct answer is the "Air Force War Fighter Integration and Chief Information Officer Special Trophies and Awards Program." This program recognizes individual teams and units for their superior performance, professional excellence, and significant contributions to the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Non commissioned officers NCO performing duties in which AFSC are qualified for nomination for the air force knowledge operations management KOM Outstanding NCO award
- A.
2E
- B.
3C
- C.
3V
- D.
3A
Correct Answer
D. 3AExplanation
The correct answer is 3A because the question is asking for the Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) that qualifies non commissioned officers (NCOs) for nomination for the Air Force Knowledge Operations Management (KOM) Outstanding NCO award. The AFSC 3A represents the Administration career field in the Air Force, which includes tasks related to managing and organizing administrative functions within the military. Therefore, NCOs with AFSC 3A would be qualified for nomination for the KOM Outstanding NCO award.Rate this question:
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- 36.
How many people can make up a team that is awarded the general edwin w pawlings award
- A.
2 to 25
- B.
2 to 50
- C.
300 or less
- D.
301 or more
Correct Answer
A. 2 to 25Explanation
The correct answer is 2 to 25 because the question asks for the number of people that can make up a team awarded the General Edwin W Pawlings Award. The range of 2 to 25 suggests that a team can consist of a minimum of 2 people and a maximum of 25 people.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which award winner is selected for communications and infromation contributions that most enhance the air force war fighting capability
- A.
General edwin w rawlings award
- B.
Leutenant general harold w grant award
- C.
Major general harold m mcclelland award
- D.
General billy mitchell award fro communications and infromation excellence
Correct Answer
D. General billy mitchell award fro communications and infromation excellenceExplanation
The general billy mitchell award for communications and information excellence is selected for contributions that most enhance the air force war fighting capability.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which communications and infromation professional of the year award represents a distinguished air power pioneer who was and air force communications officer
- A.
General edwin w rawlings award
- B.
Lieutenant general harold w grant award
- C.
Major general harold m mclelland award
- D.
General billy mitchel award from communications and infromation excellence
Correct Answer
C. Major general harold m mclelland awardExplanation
The Major General Harold M. McClelland Award is the correct answer because it represents a distinguished air power pioneer who was an Air Force communications officer. This award recognizes individuals who have made significant contributions to the field of communications and information in the Air Force. The other options do not specifically mention a distinguished air power pioneer who was an air force communications officer.Rate this question:
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- 39.
WHich communications and infromation professional of the year award is named for the fist commander of the air force communications service
- A.
General edwin w. rawllings award
- B.
Liueutenant general harold w. grant award
- C.
Major general harold me mclelland award
- D.
General billy mitchell award fro communications and infroamtion excellence
Correct Answer
B. Liueutenant general harold w. grant awardExplanation
The correct answer is the "Lieutenant General Harold W. Grant Award." This award is named after Lieutenant General Harold W. Grant, who was the first commander of the Air Force Communications Service.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What are the types of selcetion processes bases use to determine the winners for the quarterly awards program
- A.
Written packages and boards
- B.
Writeen packages and peer assessments
- C.
Name rocognition peer assessments and boards
- D.
Name recognition written pages boards and peer assessments
Correct Answer
A. Written packages and boardsExplanation
The correct answer is "written packages and boards". This means that the selection process for determining the winners of the quarterly awards program involves evaluating written packages submitted by the candidates and also includes a board or panel that assesses and selects the winners based on the information provided in the packages.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What is a comprehensive multipurpose document that covers the entire spectrum of education and training for a career field
- A.
Master training list
- B.
Specialty training standard
- C.
Air force job qualification standard
- D.
Career field education and training plan
Correct Answer
D. Career field education and training planExplanation
A career field education and training plan is a comprehensive multipurpose document that covers the entire spectrum of education and training for a specific career field. It outlines the necessary skills, knowledge, and qualifications required for individuals in that field. This plan serves as a roadmap for individuals to progress and excel in their career by providing a structured framework for their education and training. It ensures that all aspects of education and training are covered, making it a comprehensive document for the career field.Rate this question:
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- 42.
How many parts are there in a career field education and training plan
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
5
- D.
7
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
A career field education and training plan typically consists of two parts. These parts may include theoretical education and practical training. The theoretical education component provides the necessary knowledge and understanding of the career field, while the practical training component allows individuals to apply their knowledge in real-world settings. By combining these two parts, individuals can acquire the skills and competencies required for a successful career in their chosen field.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What document lists all the general tasks across a career field, identifies the core tasks, and lists proficiency code levels for each task?
- A.
Master training list
- B.
Specialty training standard
- C.
Air force job qualification standard
- D.
Job qualification standard continuation sheet
Correct Answer
B. Specialty training standardExplanation
The specialty training standard is a document that lists all the general tasks across a career field, identifies the core tasks, and lists proficiency code levels for each task. This document provides a comprehensive overview of the skills and knowledge required for a specific career field, and serves as a guide for training and qualification. It helps to ensure that individuals in the career field are properly trained and proficient in their tasks. The other options, such as the master training list and job qualification standard, may also be related to training and qualification, but the specialty training standard specifically focuses on listing tasks and proficiency levels.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which document has a comprehensive task list that describing a particualr job type or duty position
- A.
Master task list
- B.
Specialty training standard
- C.
Airforce job qualification standard
- D.
Job qualification standard continuation chart
Correct Answer
C. Airforce job qualification standardExplanation
The Air Force Job Qualification Standard is a document that contains a comprehensive task list describing a particular job type or duty position. It outlines the specific tasks and responsibilities that individuals in that job must be able to perform. This document serves as a guideline for training and evaluating personnel in the Air Force, ensuring that they meet the necessary qualifications and standards for their respective positions.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which is an intergral part of your work center master training plan
- A.
Master task listing
- B.
Training needs
- C.
Training capabilities
- D.
Training strategies
Correct Answer
A. Master task listingExplanation
The master task listing is an integral part of the work center master training plan because it provides a comprehensive and organized list of all the tasks that need to be performed within the work center. It serves as a reference for identifying the specific training needs of personnel and helps in determining the training capabilities required to effectively perform those tasks. Additionally, the master task listing assists in developing appropriate training strategies by outlining the specific tasks that need to be addressed in the training program.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Who determines when a trainee is ready to be certified on a task
- A.
Trainee
- B.
Trainer
- C.
Certifier
- D.
Supervisor
Correct Answer
B. TrainerExplanation
The trainer is responsible for determining when a trainee is ready to be certified on a task. The trainer is the one who provides guidance, instruction, and assessments to the trainee throughout their training process. They have the knowledge and expertise to evaluate the trainee's skills and competence in performing the task. Based on their observations and assessments, the trainer can determine if the trainee has reached the required level of proficiency and is ready to be certified. The trainer plays a crucial role in ensuring that the trainee is adequately prepared and capable of performing the task independently.Rate this question:
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- 47.
If a task requires a third party certification, who is authorized to certify task completiontr
- A.
Trainee
- B.
Supervisors
- C.
Task trainer
- D.
Task certifier
Correct Answer
D. Task certifierExplanation
A task certifier is authorized to certify task completion when a task requires a third-party certification. This means that they have the authority and expertise to assess whether the task has been successfully completed according to the required standards or criteria. The task certifier's role is to ensure that the task has been performed correctly and meets the necessary requirements before it can be considered officially completed.Rate this question:
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- 48.
THe objective of the network professional training program is to
- A.
Ensure all network professionals are trained to standardized critera
- B.
Ensure all squadron personell are trained to work on the computer
- C.
Provide help advice and authoriative refernce to unit leadership
- D.
Provide light lean and lethal forces to our national military strategy
Correct Answer
A. Ensure all network professionals are trained to standardized criteraExplanation
The objective of the network professional training program is to ensure that all network professionals are trained according to standardized criteria. This means that the program aims to establish a set of criteria or standards that every network professional must meet through training. By doing so, the program ensures that network professionals have a consistent level of knowledge and skills, which is important for maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of network systems.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Who is the focal point for the appointment of 3A0X1 personell to fill quality assurance positions
- A.
Unit commander
- B.
3A0X1 group functional manager
- C.
Communications squaddron commander
- D.
3A0X1 wing and majcom functional manager
Correct Answer
D. 3A0X1 wing and majcom functional managerExplanation
The 3A0X1 wing and majcom functional manager is responsible for appointing personnel to fill quality assurance positions. This individual oversees the quality assurance process within the wing and majcom, ensuring that the right individuals are selected for these positions. They have the authority and knowledge to make informed decisions about personnel appointments in order to maintain the highest standards of quality assurance.Rate this question:
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- 50.
How long do you as a trainee to complete each career development course volume once your superviosr issue it to you
- A.
30 days
- B.
45 days
- C.
60 days
- D.
90 days
Correct Answer
A. 30 daysExplanation
Trainees are expected to complete each career development course volume within 30 days of receiving it from their supervisor. This suggests that the courses are designed to be completed within a relatively short period of time, allowing trainees to quickly acquire the necessary skills and knowledge. It also implies that there may be a sense of urgency and importance placed on completing these courses promptly, possibly to ensure trainees are able to apply their newly acquired skills in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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May 03, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 24, 2009Quiz Created by
Susieq_998
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