Unit Testing Standards Quiz
How much do you know about Unit Testing Standards? Think you can pass a quiz on the same? Do you know the various verification procedures of testing? What are the excepted outcomes of various testing? What is a V-model? Answer more such questions like this and prove your knowledge with this Unit testing standards quiz. Do share the quiz with peers to help enhance their knowledge.
- 1.
What is the MAIN focus of acceptance testing?
- A.
Testing for a business perspective.
- B.
Finding faults in the system.
- C.
Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users.
- D.
Testing the system with other systems.
Correct Answer
A. Testing for a business perspective.Explanation
The main focus of acceptance testing is to test for a business perspective. This means that the testing process aims to ensure that the system meets the business requirements and objectives. It involves evaluating whether the system functions as intended and whether it is suitable for use in the specific business environment. Acceptance testing is typically performed by end-users or stakeholders to determine if the system is acceptable and ready for deployment. It is not primarily about finding faults in the system or testing it with other systems, although these aspects may be included in the overall testing process.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which defects are OFTEN much cheaper to remove?
- A.
Minor defects that were found by users.
- B.
Defects that were detected early .
- C.
Usability defects found by customers.
- D.
Defects in infrequently used functionality.
Correct Answer
B. Defects that were detected early .Explanation
Defects that are detected early are often much cheaper to remove because they can be addressed and fixed before they have a chance to cause further issues or impact other parts of the system. Early detection allows for quicker and more efficient resolution, reducing the time and effort required for debugging and rework. This helps to minimize the overall cost associated with defect removal and ensures that the product or system is delivered with higher quality and fewer issues.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following is not the integration strategy ?
- A.
Top-down
- B.
Bottom-up
- C.
Big-bang
- D.
Design-based
Correct Answer
D. Design-basedExplanation
The integration strategy refers to the approach used to combine different components or modules of a system. Top-down, bottom-up, and big-bang are all commonly used integration strategies. However, design-based is not a recognized integration strategy.Rate this question:
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- 4.
One of the fields on a student registration form contains a text box that accepts alphanumeric values.Identify the invalid and valid equivalence class?
- A.
BoOkLeT ; B01kL0t
- B.
BO1kLEt ; BOOKLET
- C.
B01kle8 ; Bo0klet ,
- D.
BOOklet ; Booklet
Correct Answer
A. BoOkLeT ; B01kL0tExplanation
The valid equivalence class for the field on the student registration form is alphanumeric values, meaning it can accept both letters and numbers. The given answer "BoOkLeT ; B01kL0t" falls under this valid equivalence class as it contains a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, as well as numbers.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
- A.
Attend a tool exhibition
- B.
Invite a vendor to give a demo
- C.
Analyse your needs and requirements
- D.
Find out what your budget would be for the tool
- E.
Search the internet
Correct Answer
C. Analyse your needs and requirementsExplanation
The correct answer is to analyze your needs and requirements. This is the most logical and practical step to take when looking for a new test tool. By analyzing your needs and requirements, you can determine what specific features and functionalities you require from a test tool. This will help you narrow down your options and choose a tool that best fits your needs. Attending a tool exhibition or inviting a vendor for a demo may be helpful later in the process, but it is important to first understand your own requirements before exploring external options. Searching the internet can also be useful, but it should be done after analyzing your needs to ensure you are searching for the right type of tool.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Consider the following list of either product or project risks: I. An incorrect calculation of fees might shortchange the organization. II. A vendor might fail to deliver a system component on time. III. A defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges. IV. A skills gap might occur in a new technology used in the system. V. A defect-prioritization process might overload the development team. Which of the following statements is true?
- A.
I is primarily a product risk and II, III, IV and V are primarily project risks.
- B.
II and V are primarily product risks and I, III and V are primarily project risks.
- C.
I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks.
- D.
III and V are primarily product risks, while I, II and IV are primarily project risks.
Correct Answer
C. I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks.Explanation
The correct answer is I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks. This is because risk I is related to the incorrect calculation of fees, which is a product-related issue that can affect the organization. Risk III is about a defect that can allow hackers to gain administrative privileges, which is also a product-related risk. On the other hand, risks II, IV, and V are all related to the project itself, such as vendor delivery, skills gap, and defect prioritization process, which can impact the project's success.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Consider the following statements about regression tests: I. They may usefully be automated if they are well designed. II. They are the same as confirmation tests (re-tests). III. They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse affect elsewhere in the system. IV. They are only effective if automated. Which pair of statements is true?
- A.
I and II
- B.
I and III
- C.
II and III
- D.
II and IV
Correct Answer
B. I and IIIExplanation
The correct answer is I and III. This is because statement I states that regression tests can be automated if they are well designed, which implies that automation can be useful for regression tests. Statement III states that regression tests are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse effect elsewhere in the system, which aligns with the purpose of regression testing. Therefore, both statements I and III are true.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following are benefits and which are risks of using tools to support testing? 1. Over-reliance on the tool 2. Greater consistency and repeatability 3. Objective assessment 4. Unrealistic expectations 5. Underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets generated by the tool 6. Ease of access to information about tests or testing 7. Repetitive work is reduced
- A.
Benefits: 3, 4, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 2 and 5
- B.
Benefits: 1, 2, 3 and 7, Risks: 4, 5 and 6
- C.
Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5
- D.
Benefits: 2, 3, 5 and 6. Risks: 1, 4 and 7
Correct Answer
C. Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5Explanation
The benefits of using tools to support testing include greater consistency and repeatability, objective assessment, ease of access to information about tests or testing, and reduced repetitive work. These benefits help improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the testing process. However, there are also risks associated with using these tools, such as over-reliance on the tool, unrealistic expectations, and underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets generated by the tool. These risks can lead to potential issues and limitations in the testing process.Rate this question:
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- 9.
If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched on. When the temperature reaches 21 degrees, the heating is switched off. What is the minimum set of test input values to cover all valid equivalence partitions?
- A.
15, 19 and 25 degrees
- B.
17, 18, 20 and 21 degrees
- C.
18, 20 and 22 degrees
- D.
16 and 26 degrees
Correct Answer
A. 15, 19 and 25 degreesExplanation
The minimum set of test input values to cover all valid equivalence partitions is 15, 19, and 25 degrees. This is because these values represent the lower limit, middle value, and upper limit of the valid equivalence partitions. A temperature below 18 degrees (15 degrees) triggers the heating to switch on, a temperature between 18 and 21 degrees (19 degrees) does not trigger any action, and a temperature above 21 degrees (25 degrees) triggers the heating to switch off. Therefore, testing these three values ensures that all possible scenarios are covered.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What is the purpose of confirmation testing?
- A.
To confirm the users' confidence that the system will meet their business needs.
- B.
To confirm that a defect has been fixed correctly.
- C.
To confirm that no unexpected changes have been introduced or uncovered as a result of changes made.
- D.
To confirm that the detailed logic of a component conforms to its specification.
Correct Answer
B. To confirm that a defect has been fixed correctly.Explanation
Confirmation testing is performed to ensure that a defect or issue that was previously identified and fixed has been resolved correctly. This type of testing is done to validate that the fix implemented has effectively resolved the problem without introducing any new issues or unintended changes. It helps in verifying that the system is functioning as expected after the defect has been addressed, providing confidence that the fix was successful.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A test plan is written specifically to describe a level of testing where the primary goal is establishing confidence in the system. Which of the following is a likely name for this document?
- A.
Master test plan
- B.
System test plan
- C.
Acceptance test plan
- D.
Project plan
Correct Answer
C. Acceptance test planExplanation
An acceptance test plan is a likely name for the document that describes a level of testing where the primary goal is establishing confidence in the system. This plan outlines the tests that will be conducted to determine whether the system meets the specified requirements and is ready for acceptance by the stakeholders. It typically includes details on the scope, objectives, test cases, and acceptance criteria for the testing phase.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A test plan included the following clauses among the exit criteria: # System test shall continue until all significant product risks have been covered to the extent specified in the product risk analysis document. # System test shall continue until no must-fix defects remain against any significant product risks specified in the product risk analysis document. During test execution, the test team detects 430 must-fix defects prior to release and all must-fix defects are resolved. After release, the customers find 212 new defects, none of which were detected during testing. This means that only 67% of the important defects were found prior to release, a percentage which is well below average in your industry. You are asked to find the root cause for the high number of field failures. Consider the following list of explanations: I. Not all the tests planned for the significant product risks were executed. II. The organization has unrealistic expectations of the percentage of defects that testing can find. III. A version-control issue has resulted in the release of a version of the software that was used during early testing. IV. The product risk analysis failed to identify all the important risks from a customer point of view. V. The product risk analysis was not updated during the project as new information became available. Which of the following statements indicate which explanations are possible root causes?
- A.
II, III and IV are possible explanations, but I and V are not possible.
- B.
All five are possible explanations.
- C.
I, IV and V are possible explanations, but II and III are not possible.
- D.
III, IV and V are possible explanations, but I and II are not possible.
Correct Answer
C. I, IV and V are possible explanations, but II and III are not possible.Explanation
The given answer states that explanations I, IV, and V are possible root causes for the high number of field failures, while explanations II and III are not possible. This suggests that not executing all the tests planned for the significant product risks, failing to identify all important risks from a customer point of view, and not updating the product risk analysis during the project as new information became available could be the reasons for the high number of field failures. However, having unrealistic expectations of the percentage of defects that testing can find and a version-control issue resulting in the release of a version of the software used during early testing are not considered possible root causes.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which two specification-based testing techniques are most closely related to each other?
- A.
Decision tables and state transition testing
- B.
Equivalence partitioning and state transition testing
- C.
Decision tables and boundary value analysis
- D.
Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis
Correct Answer
D. Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysisExplanation
Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis are closely related specification-based testing techniques. Equivalence partitioning involves dividing the input domain into different equivalence classes and selecting representative values from each class for testing. Boundary value analysis focuses on testing the boundaries and limits of the input domain, including values at the lower and upper bounds, as well as just inside and just outside those boundaries. Both techniques aim to identify and test the different possible scenarios and potential errors that may occur within the input domain of a system.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
- A.
It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
- B.
It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
- C.
It reduces defect multiplication
- D.
It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
Correct Answer
C. It reduces defect multiplicationExplanation
Verification early in the life cycle reduces defect multiplication. This means that by identifying and addressing defects early on, the likelihood of those defects causing further issues or multiplying into more complex problems is minimized. This is beneficial because it saves time and resources that would otherwise be spent on fixing and retesting these multiplied defects later in the project. By catching and resolving defects early, the overall quality of the product is improved and the risk of major issues occurring later in the development process is reduced.Rate this question:
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- 15.
For the program below, how many test cases are needed to achieve 100% statement coverage(SC) and 100% branch coverage(BC)? SWITCH PC ON START 'OUTLOOK' IF OUTLOOK OPEN SEND MAIL CLOSE OUTLOOK
- A.
SC = 1 ; BC = 2
- B.
SC = 1 ; BC = 1
- C.
SC = 2 ; BC = 2
- D.
SC = 2 ; BC = 1
Correct Answer
A. SC = 1 ; BC = 2Explanation
To achieve 100% statement coverage (SC) and 100% branch coverage (BC), only one test case is needed. This is because there is only one decision point in the program, which is the "IF OUTLOOK OPEN" condition. The program will always execute the "SWITCH PC ON" statement and the "START 'OUTLOOK'" statement. The "SEND MAIL" and "CLOSE OUTLOOK" statements will only be executed if the "IF OUTLOOK OPEN" condition is true, which covers both branches of the decision point. Therefore, one test case is sufficient to achieve 100% SC and 100% BC.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following are the activities of equivalence partitioning ?
- A.
Identify all inputs and all outputs.
- B.
Identify equivalence classes for each input.
- C.
Ensure that the test cases test each input and output at least once.
- D.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
D. All of the above.Explanation
Equivalence partitioning is a software testing technique that reduces the number of test cases by dividing inputs into equivalence classes. It assumes that if a system processes one input from a class correctly, it will process others from the same class correctly. The technique involves identifying all inputs and outputs, grouping inputs into equivalence classes, and ensuring that test cases cover each class at least once. This helps to effectively test the system with fewer test cases.Rate this question:
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- 17.
We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
- A.
Each test stage has a different purpose.
- B.
It is easier to manage testing in stages.
- C.
We can run different tests in different environments.
- D.
The more stages we have, the better the testing.
Correct Answer
A. Each test stage has a different purpose.Explanation
The reason why testing is split into distinct stages is because each stage serves a different purpose. By dividing testing into stages, it allows for a systematic approach where each stage focuses on specific aspects of testing, such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and user acceptance testing. This helps ensure that all necessary testing is conducted and allows for better organization and management of the testing process.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
- A.
Regression testing
- B.
Integration testing
- C.
System testing
- D.
User acceptance testing
Correct Answer
A. Regression testingExplanation
Regression testing is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities. Regression testing involves retesting previously tested functionality to ensure that changes or fixes have not introduced new defects. Test capture and replay tools allow testers to record and replay test scenarios, making it easier to repeat tests and compare results. This can significantly speed up the regression testing process and increase efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following requirements is testable?
- A.
The system shall be user friendly.
- B.
The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
- C.
The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
- D.
The system shall be built to be portable.
Correct Answer
C. The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.Explanation
The requirement that states "The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load" is testable because it can be measured and verified. It specifies a specific performance metric (response time) and a target value (less than one second) that can be objectively tested against the actual performance of the system under the specified design load.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
- A.
Syntax testing
- B.
Equivalence partitioning
- C.
Stress testing
- D.
Modified condition/decision coverage
Correct Answer
C. Stress testingExplanation
Stress testing is not described in a unit test standard. Unit tests focus on testing individual units of code in isolation, typically at the function or method level, to ensure that they work correctly. Stress testing, on the other hand, is a type of testing that evaluates the system's performance and stability under extreme conditions, such as high loads or limited resources. While stress testing is important, it is typically not included in unit test standards as it goes beyond the scope of unit testing.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is true of the V-model?
- A.
It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
- B.
It only models the testing phase.
- C.
It specifies the test techniques to be used.
- D.
It includes the verification of designs.
Correct Answer
D. It includes the verification of designs.Explanation
The V-model is a software development model that emphasizes the verification and validation of designs. It includes the verification of designs because it follows a sequential process where each phase of development is associated with a corresponding testing phase. This means that the design phase is followed by the design verification phase, where the design is checked for accuracy and completeness. Therefore, the statement "It includes the verification of designs" is true for the V-model.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
- A.
Boundary value analysis
- B.
Usability testing
- C.
Performance testing
- D.
Security testing
Correct Answer
A. Boundary value analysisExplanation
Boundary value analysis is a form of functional testing that focuses on testing the system's behavior at the boundaries of input values. It involves testing the minimum and maximum values, as well as values just above and below these boundaries, to ensure that the system handles them correctly. This type of testing helps identify issues related to boundary conditions, such as off-by-one errors or incorrect handling of edge cases. It is an effective technique for identifying defects and ensuring the system's functionality is robust.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
- A.
Features to be tested
- B.
Incident reports
- C.
Risks
- D.
Schedule
Correct Answer
B. Incident reportsExplanation
Incident reports would not normally form part of a test plan because incident reports are typically used to document and track issues or problems that occur during testing or in production. They are not typically used to outline the overall strategy or approach for testing. A test plan typically includes features to be tested, risks, and the schedule for executing the tests.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
- A.
Actual results
- B.
Program specification
- C.
User requirements
- D.
System specification
Correct Answer
C. User requirementsExplanation
User requirements are the best source of expected outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts because they outline the specific functionalities and features that the user expects from the system. These requirements serve as a baseline for determining whether the system meets the user's needs and expectations. Program specification and system specification may provide technical details and constraints, but they may not necessarily capture the user's perspective. Actual results, on the other hand, are the observed outcomes after executing the test scripts and cannot be used as a source for expected outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 25.
System test execution on a project is planned for eight weeks. After a week of testing, a tester suggests that the test objective stated in the test plan of 'finding as many defects as possible during system test' might be more closely met by redirecting the test effort according to which test principle?
- A.
Impossibility of exhaustive testing.
- B.
Importance of early testing.
- C.
The absence of errors fallacy.
- D.
Defect clustering.
Correct Answer
D. Defect clustering.Explanation
The test principle that would better align with the test objective of finding as many defects as possible during system testing is Defect clustering. Defect clustering suggests that a small number of modules contain the majority of defects. By focusing the test effort on these modules or areas, testers can find more defects more efficiently and effectively, thus increasing the likelihood of meeting the stated test objective.Rate this question:
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May 07, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jan 11, 2016Quiz Created by
Kirubakaran17
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