Chima Mock Exam Part A: Quiz!

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  • 1/87 Questions

    This term is given for those patients who abuse drugs or alcohol to the point where if they do not take the drug or alcohol it may result in withdrawal symptoms.

    • Nondependent
    • Psychoactive
    • Obsessive
    • Dependent
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About This Quiz

The Canadian health information management association exam is designed to help you test out what you learned to be certified in health information management and what is expected of you. Take up this Chima mock exam part A and gauge your preparedness for the upcoming exam. All the best!

Chima Mock Exam Part A: Quiz! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    You just completed a process through which you reviewed a patient record and entered the required elements into a database. What is this process called?

    • Case finding

    • Abstracting

    • Staging

    • Nomenclature

    Correct Answer
    A. Abstracting
    Explanation
    Abstracting is the process of reviewing a patient record and entering the required elements into a database. It involves extracting relevant information from the record and recording it in a structured format. This process is important for maintaining accurate and comprehensive patient records, which can be used for various purposes such as research, quality improvement, and billing. Case finding, staging, and nomenclature are not the correct terms for this process.

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  • 3. 

    The use of personalized signature stamps for authentication of entries in a paper-based record requires special measures to guard against delegated use of the stamp. In a completely computerized patient record system, similar measures might be utilized to govern the use of:

    • Fingerprint signatures

    • Expert systems

    • Voice recognition systems

    • Electronic signatures

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic signatures
    Explanation
    In a completely computerized patient record system, similar measures might be utilized to govern the use of electronic signatures. This is because electronic signatures, like personalized signature stamps, are used for authentication of entries. Just like with personalized signature stamps, special measures need to be taken to guard against unauthorized or delegated use of electronic signatures to ensure the integrity and security of the patient record system.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is concerned with analysis and prediction of genomics, proteomics and protein structure? 

    • Bioinformatics.

    • Clinical informatics.

    • Health informatics.

    • Nursing informatics.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioinformatics.
    Explanation
    Bioinformatics is the correct answer because it is the field that deals with the analysis and prediction of genomics, proteomics, and protein structure. It involves the use of computer science, statistics, and biological knowledge to analyze and interpret biological data, such as DNA sequences and protein structures. Bioinformatics plays a crucial role in understanding the genetic basis of diseases, drug discovery, and personalized medicine. Clinical informatics, health informatics, and nursing informatics are related fields but are not specifically focused on genomics and proteomics analysis.

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  • 5. 

    A risk manager needs to locate a full report of a patient's fall from his bed, including witness reports and probable reasons for the fall. She would most likely find this information in the

    • Doctors' progress notes

    • Incident report

    • Integrated progress notes

    • Nurses' notes

    Correct Answer
    A. Incident report
    Explanation
    The risk manager would most likely find a full report of a patient's fall from his bed, including witness reports and probable reasons for the fall in the incident report. Incident reports are typically used to document and investigate any adverse events or incidents that occur in a healthcare setting, such as patient falls. These reports provide a comprehensive account of the incident, including details from witnesses and any relevant information regarding the causes or contributing factors to the fall. Therefore, the incident report is the most appropriate source for the risk manager to locate the desired information.

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  • 6. 

    A pharyngeal culture is taken from a 13-year-old male patient presenting to the ER with fever, painful cervical lymph nodes, purulent tonsillar exudate, and difficulty swallowing. A blood agar culture plate shows complete hemolysis around Streptococcus pyogenes bacterial colonies. The patient is given a prescription for erythromycin. The diagnosis in this case is

    • A group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection

    • A methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus skin infection

    • Tuberculosis with drug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis-positive sputum.

    • Meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis-positive cerebrospinal fluid.

    Correct Answer
    A. A group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection. This is indicated by the presence of Streptococcus pyogenes bacterial colonies on the blood agar culture plate and the patient's symptoms of fever, painful cervical lymph nodes, purulent tonsillar exudate, and difficulty swallowing. Erythromycin is commonly prescribed for streptococcal infections, further supporting this diagnosis.

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  • 7. 

    James has significant lower back pain radiating down his left leg. This condition is called ______________. MRI shows an intervertebral ____________________ impinging on spinal nerves at the __________________ level. Bed rest produced no improvement. His orthopedist decided to perform a ____________________ to relieve pressure on his nerves. 

    • Fibromyalgia, exostosis, C2–C3, microdiskectomy

    • Talipes, disk, L5–S1, tenorrhaphy

    • Talipes, bunion, T3–T5, bunionectomy

    • Sciatica, disk, L5–S1, microdiskectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Sciatica, disk, L5–S1, microdiskectomy
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "sciatica, disk, L5-S1, microdiskectomy." Sciatica refers to the condition of lower back pain radiating down the leg, which matches James' symptoms. The MRI shows a herniated disk impinging on spinal nerves at the L5-S1 level, indicating the location of the problem. Bed rest did not improve the condition, so the orthopedist decided to perform a microdiskectomy to relieve pressure on the nerves.

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  • 8. 

    Data quality audits should include a report that summarizes the findings and provides recommendations. The report should include:

    • Subjective conclusions about the quality of the data.

    • A comparison of findings to peer benchmarks and industry best practices.

    • Indicators that measure the quality of the information objectively

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    A data quality audit should include a report that summarizes the findings and provides recommendations. This report should include subjective conclusions about the quality of the data, a comparison of findings to peer benchmarks and industry best practices, and indicators that measure the quality of the information objectively. Including all of these elements in the report ensures a comprehensive assessment of the data quality and provides a basis for making informed decisions and improvements.

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  • 9. 

    Connections to the internet on a network are managed by: 

    • Routers.

    • Switches.

    • Firewalls.

    • VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol).

    Correct Answer
    A. Routers.
    Explanation
    Routers are responsible for managing connections to the internet on a network. They act as a central hub, directing network traffic between different devices and networks. Routers use routing tables to determine the best path for data packets to reach their destination, ensuring efficient and effective communication. Switches, on the other hand, are responsible for connecting devices within a network, while firewalls provide security by monitoring and controlling incoming and outgoing network traffic. VoIP is a technology used for making voice calls over the internet, but it is not directly involved in managing network connections.

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  • 10. 

    What is the first step in the process of disposing of health information? 

    • Take an inventory of each machine that stores health information and develop a process to regularly erase the memory.

    • Develop a destruction policy in conjunction with the organization's retention schedule.

    • Perform audits on compliance to the disposition policy.

    • Record the destruction of any information.

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop a destruction policy in conjunction with the organization's retention schedule.
    Explanation
    The first step in the process of disposing of health information is to develop a destruction policy in conjunction with the organization's retention schedule. This involves creating a plan that outlines how and when health information will be destroyed in accordance with legal and regulatory requirements. By establishing a destruction policy, the organization ensures that sensitive information is properly disposed of, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or misuse. This step sets the foundation for the subsequent actions of taking an inventory, performing audits, and recording the destruction of information.

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  • 11. 

    A pre-determined performance standard which an organization compares its performance against is called a/an:  

    • Indicator.

    • Benchmark.

    • Balanced scorecard.

    • Matrix.

    Correct Answer
    A. Benchmark.
    Explanation
    A pre-determined performance standard which an organization compares its performance against is called a benchmark. A benchmark is a reference point or a standard of comparison that helps organizations measure their performance and identify areas for improvement. It allows organizations to assess their performance in relation to industry best practices or their own past performance. By comparing their performance against benchmarks, organizations can set goals, track progress, and make informed decisions to enhance their performance and competitiveness.

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  • 12. 

    The best form/graph for demonstrating trends over time would be:

    • Frequency polygon.

    • Line graph.

    • Pie chart.

    • Histogram.

    Correct Answer
    A. Line graph.
    Explanation
    A line graph is the best form for demonstrating trends over time because it shows the relationship between two variables on a continuous scale. It uses a line to connect data points, allowing for a clear visualization of how the values change over time. This makes it easy to identify patterns, trends, and fluctuations in the data. On the other hand, a frequency polygon is used to represent the distribution of a single variable, a pie chart is used to show proportions or percentages, and a histogram is used to display the frequency of different data ranges.

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  • 13. 

    Which organization has been the catalyst in establishing the blueprint towards the creation of the pan-Canadian Electronic Health Record (EHR)? 

    • Canada Health Infoway.

    • Canadian Health Information Management (CHIMA)

    • Canadian Standards Association (CSA).

    • Health Level Seven International (HL7).

    Correct Answer
    A. Canada Health Infoway.
    Explanation
    Canada Health Infoway has been the catalyst in establishing the blueprint towards the creation of the pan-Canadian Electronic Health Record (EHR).

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  • 14. 

    In reviewing the medical record of a patient admitted for a left herniorrhaphy, the coder discovers an extremely low potassium level on the laboratory report. In examining the physician's orders, the coder notices that intravenous potassium was ordered. The physician has not listed any indication of an abnormal potassium level or any related condition on the discharge summary. The best course of action for the coder to take is to

    • Confer with the physician and ask him or her to list the condition as a final diagnosis if he or she considers the abnormal potassium level to be clinically significant.

    • Code the record as is

    • Code the condition as abnormal blood chemistry

    • Code the abnonnal potassium level as a complication following surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. Confer with the physician and ask him or her to list the condition as a final diagnosis if he or she considers the abnormal potassium level to be clinically significant.
    Explanation
    The best course of action for the coder is to confer with the physician and ask them to list the condition as a final diagnosis if they consider the abnormal potassium level to be clinically significant. This is because the physician's orders indicate that intravenous potassium was ordered, suggesting that the low potassium level may be related to a specific condition or treatment. By discussing this with the physician, the coder can ensure that the final diagnosis accurately reflects the patient's medical condition.

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  • 15. 

    What is the rule when coding a patient who had lithotripsy performed for a condition of bladder stones followed by a subsequent extraction of the fragments?

    • The condition of hydronephrosis is assumed to be with calculus obstruction and is MRDx with an additional code for urolithiasis as a type 3

    • When extraction follows lithotripsy, both the destruction and the extraction are coded

    • In jurisdictions not requiring extraction to be recorded, only the code for destruction is assigned.

    • Always code extraction whether or not there was an extraction

    Correct Answer
    A. When extraction follows lithotripsy, both the destruction and the extraction are coded
    Explanation
    When a patient undergoes lithotripsy for bladder stones and then has subsequent extraction of the fragments, both the destruction of the stones and the extraction procedure should be coded. This means that the codes for both the destruction and the extraction should be assigned. This rule applies when extraction follows lithotripsy.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is NOT a circulatory complication of Diabetes mellitus?

    • Hypertension

    • DVT

    • COPD

    • Acute myocardial infarction

    Correct Answer
    A. COPD
    Explanation
    Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is not a circulatory complication of Diabetes mellitus. COPD is a respiratory condition characterized by obstructed airflow to the lungs, typically caused by long-term exposure to irritants such as cigarette smoke. While Diabetes mellitus can lead to various circulatory complications such as hypertension, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), and acute myocardial infarction (heart attack), it does not directly cause COPD.

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  • 17. 

    The type of assessment that would be done to assess the effects of new medical staff, program, diagnostic technology, intervention types to assess the financial and other consequences is a/an:

    • Decision tree

    • Impact analysis.

    • Process map.

    • Cause and effect diagram.

    Correct Answer
    A. Impact analysis.
    Explanation
    An impact analysis is a type of assessment that would be done to assess the effects of new medical staff, program, diagnostic technology, and intervention types on the financial and other consequences. It involves evaluating the potential outcomes and consequences of implementing these changes and determining the extent to which they will affect various aspects of the organization or system. This analysis helps in understanding the potential risks, benefits, and overall impact of the proposed changes before implementing them.

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  • 18. 

    A retrospective cohort study:

    • Is referred to as a non-concurrent study.

    • Can reduce the time required to under take the study.

    • Can increase the time required to undertake the study.

    • Both a and b.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both a and b.
    Explanation
    A retrospective cohort study is referred to as a non-concurrent study because it looks back at past data to analyze the relationship between exposure to a risk factor and the occurrence of an outcome. This type of study can reduce the time required to undertake the study because it utilizes existing data instead of collecting new data from scratch. However, it can also increase the time required to undertake the study if there are limitations in accessing and analyzing the existing data. Therefore, the correct answer is both a and b.

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  • 19. 

    The small hole between the upper heart chambers; congenital anomaly:

    • Coronary artery disease

    • Atrial septal defect

    • Tetralogy of Fallot

    • Patent Ductus Arteriosus

    Correct Answer
    A. Atrial septal defect
    Explanation
    Atrial septal defect is a congenital anomaly characterized by a small hole between the upper heart chambers. This defect allows oxygen-rich blood to mix with oxygen-poor blood, leading to an increased workload on the heart and potential complications. It is not related to coronary artery disease, tetralogy of Fallot, or patent ductus arteriosus.

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  • 20. 

    Sally has a brain injury; she knows what she wants to say but canʹt vocalize the words. The part of her brain that deals with the ability to speak are the: 

    • Central sulcus

    • Brocaʹs area

    • Primary motor area

    • Gyrus

    Correct Answer
    A. Brocaʹs area
    Explanation
    Sally's inability to vocalize words despite knowing what she wants to say suggests that the part of her brain responsible for speech production is affected. This is known as Broca's area, which is located in the frontal lobe of the brain. Broca's area plays a crucial role in the planning and coordination of the movements required for speech production. Therefore, it is likely that Sally's brain injury has affected her Broca's area, leading to her difficulty in vocalizing words.

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  • 21. 

    The coding supervisor notices that the coders are routinely failing to code all possible diagnoses and procedures for a patient encounter. This indicates to the supervisor that there is a problem with

    • Completeness

    • Validity

    • Reliability

    • TimeIiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Completeness
    Explanation
    The correct answer is completeness. The fact that the coders are routinely failing to code all possible diagnoses and procedures for a patient encounter suggests that there is a problem with completeness. This means that the coders are not capturing all the necessary information and are leaving out important details in their coding process. This can lead to inaccurate and incomplete medical records, which can have negative consequences for patient care and reimbursement.

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  • 22. 

    An example of biosignal(s) would be: 

    • An ECG recording.

    • A blood pressure reading.

    • Monitoring the colour of a skin lesion.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The given options include examples of different biosignals. An ECG recording is a biosignal that measures the electrical activity of the heart. A blood pressure reading is a biosignal that measures the force of blood against the walls of arteries. Monitoring the color of a skin lesion can also be considered a biosignal as it provides information about the health and condition of the skin. Therefore, all of the given options are examples of biosignals.

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  • 23. 

    When there is documentation that palliative care is the sole purpose for the admission this element must precede the Z code.

    • Type 2

    • Prefix 8

    • Prefix 6

    • Type 1

    Correct Answer
    A. Prefix 8
    Explanation
    When there is documentation that palliative care is the sole purpose for the admission, the prefix 8 must precede the Z code. This indicates that the admission is specifically for palliative care and helps to differentiate it from other types of admissions.

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  • 24. 

    What does an interface ensure?

    • General public access to a portal over Internet.

    • Auditing of access to software to guard against privacy breaches.

    • Connection to a secure local area network (LAN).

    • Data flow from one software application to another application.

    Correct Answer
    A. Data flow from one software application to another application.
    Explanation
    An interface ensures the flow of data from one software application to another application. It provides a means for different software systems to communicate and exchange information. By defining a set of rules and protocols, an interface allows for seamless integration and interoperability between applications, enabling the transfer of data in a standardized and efficient manner.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is defined as "the intersection of clinical sciences in which the application of computers in medicine and healthcare are used together with management practices that promote the proper implementation, use and maintenance of health information systems?"

    • Information and Communications Technology Council (ICTC)

    • Health Informatics (HI)

    • Health Information Management (HIM)

    • Healthcare Information and Management Systems Society (HIMSS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Health Informatics (HI)
    Explanation
    Health Informatics (HI) is defined as "the intersection of clinical sciences in which the application of computers in medicine and healthcare are used together with management practices that promote the proper implementation, use and maintenance of health information systems." This field combines the use of technology and management practices to improve the implementation and use of health information systems in healthcare settings. It focuses on utilizing computer systems and data analysis to enhance patient care, research, and healthcare management.

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  • 26. 

    Which stage, of the standards lifecycle ensures that the health information standards are kept relevant and sustainable?

    • Implementation.

    • Education and training.

    • Conformance.

    • Maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance.
    Explanation
    Maintenance is the correct answer because this stage of the standards lifecycle is responsible for ensuring that health information standards are kept relevant and sustainable. During the maintenance stage, updates and revisions are made to the standards to address any changes in technology, regulations, or best practices. This helps to ensure that the standards continue to meet the needs of the healthcare industry and can be effectively implemented and used by healthcare organizations.

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  • 27. 

    ______________ is the most common type of skin cancer and ________________ is the most deadly type of skin cancer.

    • Malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinoma

    • Basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma

    • Oat cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma

    • Squamous cell carcinoma​, oat cell carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma
    Explanation
    Basal cell carcinoma is the most common type of skin cancer, while malignant melanoma is the most deadly type of skin cancer.

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  • 28. 

    Visual examination of the chest via endoscope and a video monitor. 

    • Video-assisted thoracic surgery

    • PET scan

    • Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

    • Chest X-Ray

    Correct Answer
    A. Video-assisted thoracic surgery
    Explanation
    Video-assisted thoracic surgery involves the use of an endoscope and a video monitor to visually examine the chest. This minimally invasive procedure allows surgeons to perform various diagnostic and therapeutic interventions, such as biopsies, removal of tumors, and repair of damaged tissues in the chest cavity. It provides a clearer and magnified view of the internal structures, enabling precise and targeted surgical interventions. Compared to traditional open chest surgery, video-assisted thoracic surgery offers several advantages, including smaller incisions, reduced pain and scarring, shorter hospital stays, and faster recovery times.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following classification systems was designed with electronic systems in mind and is currently being used for problem lists, ICU unit monitoring, patient care assessments, data collection, medical research studies, clinical trials, disease surveillance, and images?

    • SNOMED CT

    • SNDO

    • ICPC

    • ICD 10

    Correct Answer
    A. SNOMED CT
    Explanation
    SNOMED CT is the correct answer because it is a comprehensive clinical terminology and classification system that was specifically designed for electronic systems. It is currently being used in various healthcare settings such as problem lists, ICU unit monitoring, patient care assessments, data collection, medical research studies, clinical trials, disease surveillance, and images. SNOMED CT allows for standardized and interoperable communication of clinical information, making it an essential tool for healthcare professionals and researchers.

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  • 30. 

    You are looking at statistics for your facility that include average length of stay (ALOS) and discharge data by Dr. Mosley. What type of data are you reviewing?

    • Aggregate data

    • Patient-identifiable data

    • Clinical data

    • Primary health data

    Correct Answer
    A. Aggregate data
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Aggregate data." In this scenario, the statistics being reviewed include average length of stay (ALOS) and discharge data, which are indicators of overall performance and outcomes for the facility as a whole. This type of data summarizes and combines information from multiple individual cases, providing a broader perspective on trends and patterns in patient care. Patient-identifiable data, clinical data, and primary health data would focus on specific patient information or individual health records, which is not the case here.

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  • 31. 

    The collection of software programs that supports a database by managing the database structure and controlling access to the data stored in the database is called a:

    • Data dictionary

    • Data warehouse

    • Database management system

    • Database security program

    Correct Answer
    A. Database management system
    Explanation
    A database management system (DBMS) is a collection of software programs that supports a database by managing the database structure and controlling access to the data stored in the database. It provides tools and functions for creating, modifying, and querying the database, as well as ensuring data integrity, security, and efficient data management. The DBMS acts as an interface between the users and the database, allowing them to interact with the data and perform various operations on it. It is responsible for organizing and storing the data, as well as handling concurrency control and transaction management.

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  • 32. 
    Looking at the data represented in the scatter diagram below, you would conclude that there is     - ProProfs

    Looking at the data represented in the scatter diagram below, you would conclude that there is    

    • No correlation between Variable X and Variable Y.

    • A positive correlation between Variable X and Variable Y.

    • A negative correlation between Variable X and Variable Y.

    • A cause and effect relationship between Variable X and Variable Y.

    Correct Answer
    A. A positive correlation between Variable X and Variable Y.
    Explanation
    Based on the scatter diagram, it can be observed that as Variable X increases, Variable Y also tends to increase. This indicates a positive correlation between the two variables, suggesting that as one variable increases, the other variable also tends to increase. Therefore, the correct answer is a positive correlation between Variable X and Variable Y.

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  • 33. 

    A system of preferred terminology for naming disease processes is known as a?

    • Set of categories

    • Classification system

    • Medical nomenclature

    • Diagnosis listing

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical nomenclature
    Explanation
    Medical nomenclature refers to the system of preferred terminology used for naming disease processes. It is a standardized and organized way of classifying and categorizing diseases, conditions, and medical procedures. This helps in effective communication among healthcare professionals and ensures consistency in the naming and classification of diseases across different medical settings. Therefore, medical nomenclature is the correct answer for the given question.

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  • 34. 

    The major purpose of random assignment in a clinical trial is to

    • Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment.

    • Help ensure that study subjects are representative of the general population.

    • Facilitate double-blinding.

    • Ensure that the study groups are comparable on baseline characteristics.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment.
    Explanation
    Random assignment in a clinical trial is used to reduce selection bias in the allocation of treatment. Selection bias occurs when certain characteristics of participants influence their assignment to different treatment groups, potentially leading to biased results. By randomly assigning participants to different treatment groups, the likelihood of systematic differences in baseline characteristics between the groups is minimized. This helps to ensure that any observed differences in outcomes can be attributed to the treatment itself rather than pre-existing differences between the groups.

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  • 35. 

    The most common blood borne infection in the Canada is

    • Helicobacter pylori

    • Hepatitis A

    • Hepatitis C

    • Hemophilia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis C
    Explanation
    Hepatitis C is the most common blood-borne infection in Canada. It is a viral infection that primarily affects the liver. It is transmitted through contact with infected blood, such as through sharing needles or other drug paraphernalia, receiving contaminated blood transfusions, or through unprotected sexual contact with an infected person. Hepatitis C can lead to chronic liver disease and, in some cases, liver cancer. It is important to raise awareness about this infection and promote preventive measures to reduce its spread.

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  • 36. 

    Process, test, or procedure in which something is measured or observed in a living organism.

    • In vitro

    • In vivo

    • Uptake

    • Bone scan

    Correct Answer
    A. In vivo
    Explanation
    In vivo refers to a process, test, or procedure in which something is measured or observed in a living organism. This term is used to differentiate from in vitro, which refers to experiments conducted outside of a living organism, such as in a test tube or petri dish. In the context of the given options, in vivo is the most appropriate term as it specifically relates to measurements or observations made within a living organism.

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  • 37. 

    A barrier to widespread use of automated code assignment is

    • Inadequate technology

    • Poor quality of documentation

    • Resistance by physicians

    • Resistance by HIM professionals

    Correct Answer
    A. Poor quality of documentation
    Explanation
    Poor quality of documentation can be a barrier to widespread use of automated code assignment because accurate and detailed documentation is crucial for the coding process. If the documentation is incomplete, unclear, or inconsistent, it becomes difficult for automated coding systems to accurately assign appropriate codes. This can lead to errors and discrepancies in coding, affecting the quality and reliability of healthcare data. Therefore, improving the quality of documentation is essential for the successful implementation and effectiveness of automated code assignment systems.

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  • 38. 

    Facts and figures that have been organized, either through manual or electronic processes, to reveal meaningful, useful, or valuable patterns, is/are:

    • Data

    • Wisdom

    • Knowledge

    • Information

    Correct Answer
    A. Information
    Explanation
    The term "information" refers to facts and figures that have been organized, either manually or electronically, to reveal meaningful, useful, or valuable patterns. This implies that information is the result of processing and organizing data in a way that it becomes meaningful and usable. While data refers to raw and unprocessed facts, information is the transformed and organized version of data that provides insights and understanding. Therefore, in this context, the correct answer is information.

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  • 39. 

    What criterion is critical in selecting performance indicators for a health record department?

    • Identify at least 25 indicators that are reflective of all department functions.

    • Indicators must include the most important aspects of performance.

    • Select indicators that reflect positively on the department.

    • None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Indicators must include the most important aspects of performance.
    Explanation
    The criterion critical in selecting performance indicators for a health record department is that the indicators must include the most important aspects of performance. This means that the selected indicators should accurately measure the key functions and goals of the department. By focusing on the most important aspects of performance, the department can effectively track and evaluate its progress and make informed decisions for improvement.

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  • 40. 

    A researcher has obtained referrals from 5 different healthcare locations and would like to determine if there is a relationship between locations and the number of home visits per year. Which hypothesis test is the most appropriate to use in order to assess the statistical significance of the differences between the 5 locations?

    • Chi-square independence

    • Chi-square goodness of fit

    • ANOVA

    • Two related means

    Correct Answer
    A. ANOVA
    Explanation
    ANOVA (Analysis of Variance) is the most appropriate hypothesis test to determine if there is a significant difference between the means of multiple groups. In this case, the researcher wants to assess the statistical significance of the differences between the 5 healthcare locations in terms of the number of home visits per year. ANOVA allows for comparing means across multiple groups and determining if any of the differences are statistically significant. Therefore, ANOVA is the most suitable test for this scenario.

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  • 41. 

    A patient admitted to the hospital on January 24 and discharged on February 9 has a length of stay of:

    • 16 days.

    • 15 days.

    • 17 days.

    • 14 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 days.
    Explanation
    The length of stay is calculated by subtracting the admission date from the discharge date. In this case, the patient was admitted on January 24 and discharged on February 9. Counting the days between these two dates, we have a total of 16 days. Therefore, the correct answer is 16 days.

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  • 42. 

    As the Chair of a Forms Review Committee, you need to track the field name of a particular datafield and the description of that field. Your best source for this information would be the

    • Data dictionary

    • Facility's data dictionary

    • Data warehouse

    • System development life cycle

    Correct Answer
    A. Data dictionary
    Explanation
    A data dictionary is a centralized repository that provides detailed information about the data elements used in a database or system. It contains the field names and descriptions of each datafield, making it the best source for tracking this information. The facility's data dictionary may also be a good source if it is specific to the organization or facility. A data warehouse is a large repository of data from different sources, but it may not provide the specific field name and description information needed. The system development life cycle is a process for developing and maintaining a system, but it does not provide the specific datafield information required.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is NOT the cause of cirrhosis?

    • Alcoholic

    • Hepatitis

    • Ascites

    • Pancreatitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Ascites
    Explanation
    Ascites is not a cause of cirrhosis. Cirrhosis is a condition characterized by scarring of the liver, which can be caused by various factors such as alcohol abuse (alcoholic cirrhosis) or viral infections like hepatitis. Ascites, on the other hand, is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is often a complication of cirrhosis, rather than a cause. Pancreatitis, inflammation of the pancreas, is also not a direct cause of cirrhosis.

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  • 44. 

    This disease is classified as primary, secondary, or congenital and can be treated with iridotomy/partial iridectomy, or drainage of the anterior chamber, or scleral drainage.

    • Retinal detachment

    • Retinopathy

    • Glaucoma

    • Macular Degeneration

    Correct Answer
    A. Glaucoma
    Explanation
    Glaucoma is a disease that affects the optic nerve and is characterized by increased pressure within the eye. It can be classified as primary, secondary, or congenital depending on the underlying cause. Treatment options for glaucoma include iridotomy/partial iridectomy, which involves creating a small hole in the iris to allow fluid drainage, or drainage of the anterior chamber, which involves creating a new drainage pathway for the fluid. Scleral drainage is another treatment option that involves creating a small channel in the white part of the eye to allow fluid to drain. Therefore, glaucoma is the correct answer based on the given information.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following would be considered administrative data?

    • Birth date, postal code, health care number

    • Diagnosis, procedures, ICU units

    • Health care provider profile, date of admission, separation dates

    • Religion, gender, weight

    Correct Answer
    A. Health care provider profile, date of admission, separation dates
    Explanation
    The answer is health care provider profile, date of admission, separation dates. Administrative data refers to information that is collected for administrative purposes, such as managing and organizing healthcare services. Health care provider profiles contain information about the healthcare professionals, date of admission refers to the date a patient is admitted to a healthcare facility, and separation dates refer to the date a patient is discharged or leaves the facility. These pieces of information are all administrative in nature and are used for managing and coordinating healthcare services.

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  • 46. 

    The first five characters of a Canadian Classification of Interventions (CCI) code are referred to as:

    • Blocks

    • Categories

    • Identifiers

    • Rubric.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rubric.
    Explanation
    The first five characters of a Canadian Classification of Interventions (CCI) code are referred to as "rubric." A rubric is a set of guidelines or instructions used to classify or evaluate something. In this context, the first five characters of the CCI code serve as an identifier or classification system for interventions. Therefore, "rubric" accurately describes the purpose and function of these characters in the CCI code.

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  • 47. 

    Which best describes a correlational study?

    • It uses data from entire populations to compare disease frequencies between same/different groups during the same or different points in time.

    • It cannot be used to test a hypothesis because of a number of limitations.

    • It consists of the carefully detailed report by one or more clinicians of the profile of a single patient.

    • Both a and b.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both a and b.
    Explanation
    A correlational study is a type of research design that examines the relationship between two or more variables. It uses data from entire populations to compare disease frequencies between same/different groups during the same or different points in time. Additionally, correlational studies have a number of limitations that prevent them from being used to test a hypothesis. Therefore, the correct answer is "Both a and b" because it encompasses both aspects of a correlational study.

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  • 48. 

    Alice and her friends had been staying up late for weeks, cramming for exams. She developed a sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in her neck and felt fatigued all the time. Dr. Smith did a blood test, and the results showed lymphocytosis and antibodies to EBV in the bloodstream. His diagnosis was 

    • Leukapheresis

    • Lymphocytopenia

    • Mononucleosis

    • Thalassemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Mononucleosis
    Explanation
    Alice's symptoms of a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, fatigue, and the presence of antibodies to EBV in her bloodstream are consistent with a diagnosis of mononucleosis. Mononucleosis, also known as "mono," is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). It is characterized by an increase in lymphocytes (lymphocytosis) and can cause symptoms such as fatigue, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes. Leukapheresis is a procedure to remove white blood cells, lymphocytopenia is a low lymphocyte count, and thalassemia is a genetic disorder affecting hemoglobin production, none of which align with Alice's symptoms and test results.

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  • 49. 

    Which phase of the data analysis process is considered most critical?

    • Data analysis and interpretation.

    • Data evaluation.

    • Needs assessment.

    • Data promotion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Needs assessment.
    Explanation
    Needs assessment is considered the most critical phase of the data analysis process because it involves identifying the specific information needs and objectives of the analysis. This phase helps determine what data should be collected, what methods should be used, and what analysis techniques should be applied to address the research questions or solve the problem at hand. Without a thorough needs assessment, the subsequent phases of data analysis and interpretation, data evaluation, and data promotion may not be effective or relevant.

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  • Sep 03, 2024
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    Kevin
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