1.
When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
Correct Answer
D. When the interface is functioning as a DCE device
Explanation
The clock rate command is used to set the clock rate on a router's serial interface when it is functioning as a DCE (Data Communications Equipment) device. In a network, a DCE device provides clocking to a DTE (Data Terminal Equipment) device, which is typically a router or a switch. By configuring the clock rate on the DCE device, it ensures that the timing of the data transmission is synchronized between the DCE and DTE devices, allowing for proper communication. Therefore, the clock rate command is necessary when the interface is functioning as a DCE device.
2.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
Correct Answer
B. IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
Explanation
The correct configuration for Host A is IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17. This is because the IP address falls within the same subnet as the default gateway, and the subnet mask is correctly configured to match the network.
3.
Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?
Correct Answer
A. Address translation
Explanation
Router RT_A needs to provide address translation in order to allow Internet access for hosts in this network. Address translation, also known as Network Address Translation (NAT), is a process that allows multiple devices in a private network to share a single public IP address. This enables the hosts in the network to communicate with the Internet using the shared public IP address, which helps in conserving the limited number of available public IP addresses.
4.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?
Correct Answer
C. Leaving Dallas
Explanation
This packet was captured at the point of leaving Dallas because the source MAC address in the captured frame belongs to host A, indicating that it originated from host A. Since the packet is leaving host A and the destination IP address is not within the same subnet as host A, it must be traveling through a router. Dallas is the location where the router is located, so the packet was captured at the point of leaving Dallas.
5.
Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?
Correct Answer
B. 0 to 1023
Explanation
The range of port numbers that are reserved for services commonly used by applications running on servers is 0 to 1023. These ports are known as well-known ports or system ports. They are assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) and are used for popular services such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), SSH (port 22), and many others. These ports are typically restricted to privileged processes or administrators on a system to ensure security and prevent unauthorized access.
6.
Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?
Correct Answer
C. Switch-6J#
Explanation
The appropriate mode used for the "copy running-config startup-config" command is represented by the prompt "Switch-6J#". This prompt indicates that the user is in privileged EXEC mode, which is required to execute this command. The "copy running-config startup-config" command is used to save the current configuration of the switch to the startup configuration file, which will be loaded automatically when the switch is powered on or restarted.
7.
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?
Correct Answer
C. 192.168.254.1
Explanation
The correct answer is 192.168.254.1. This address should be pinged from the host to confirm that the router interface is operational.
8.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to reach host B on the remote network. A technician attempted to ping the local gateway and the ping was successful. To verify the host configuration, the technician issued the ipconfig command. What is the likely cause of the problem?
Correct Answer
D. The default gateway on host A is incorrectly configured.
Explanation
The likely cause of the problem is that the default gateway on host A is incorrectly configured. This means that host A does not know the correct path to reach host B on the remote network. The successful ping to the local gateway indicates that the local network configuration is correct. The incorrect configuration of the default gateway prevents host A from reaching host B on the remote network.
9.
An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization?
Correct Answer
B. 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255
Explanation
The given subnet mask 255.255.224.0 allows for a total of 8192 IP addresses. The network ID 10.10.128.0 with this subnet mask can accommodate IP addresses ranging from 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255, which falls within the given answer option.
10.
Refer to the exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?
Correct Answer
C. Router
Explanation
A router should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable access from home. A router is a networking device that forwards data packets between computer networks. It determines the best path for data to travel from the intranet to the Internet and vice versa. It also provides security features such as network address translation (NAT) to hide the internal IP addresses of devices on the intranet. Therefore, a router is necessary to establish a connection between the organization intranet and the Internet for remote access.
11.
Which OSI layer manages data segments?
Correct Answer
C. Transport layer
Explanation
The transport layer is responsible for managing data segments in the OSI model. This layer ensures reliable and error-free delivery of data between the source and destination hosts. It breaks down the data into smaller segments, adds sequence numbers for reassembly at the receiving end, and handles flow control and error detection. The transport layer also determines the appropriate protocol to use for data transmission, such as TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) or UDP (User Datagram Protocol).
12.
Which two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
D. 1000 BASE-TX
E. 1000 BASE-SX
Explanation
The correct answer is 1000 BASE-TX and 1000 BASE-SX. These two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s. 10 BASE-T and 100 BASE-T only provide bandwidth up to 100 Mb/s, while 100 BASE-FX provides bandwidth up to 100 Mb/s over fiber optic cables. 1000 BASE-TX and 1000 BASE-SX are the only options that can support bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s.
13.
To enhance security in a network, the network administrator uses these commands:
Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)#password j1mdi2
Router(config-line)# login
What two conclusions are evident from these commands? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Users who attempt to connect to the console port of the router must enter a password.
B. The entries permit access through the console by the use of j1mdi2 as the password.
Explanation
The first conclusion is evident because the command "line console 0" configures the console port of the router, and the command "password j1mdi2" sets the password for that port. This means that anyone who wants to connect to the console port must enter the password.
The second conclusion is evident because the command "login" enables the use of the password for authentication, allowing access through the console using the specified password "j1mdi2".
14.
Refer to the exhibit. RouterB is configured properly. The Ethernet interface Fa0/0 of RouterA is configured with the use of the commands that are shown. However, a ping from the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB is unsuccessful. What action should be taken on RouterA to solve this problem?
Correct Answer
C. Use the no shutdown command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Explanation
The correct answer is to use the "no shutdown" command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0. This command will enable the interface and bring it up, allowing it to send and receive traffic. Since the ping from RouterA to RouterB is unsuccessful, it indicates that the interface is currently in a shutdown state. By using the "no shutdown" command, the interface will be activated and the ping should be successful.
15.
Refer to the exhibit. When host A sends a frame addressed for host D, which hosts will receive the frame?
Correct Answer
A. Only host D
Explanation
When host A sends a frame addressed for host D, only host D will receive the frame. This is because frames are only received by the host that is addressed in the frame's destination field.
16.
Refer to the exhibit. Communication for hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this?
Correct Answer
D. The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses.
Explanation
The reason for the communication restriction between hosts X and Y is that the gateway addresses are broadcast addresses. Broadcast addresses are used to send data to all devices on a network, and in this case, the gateway addresses are being used for this purpose. Since hosts X and Y are restricted to the local network, they are unable to communicate with each other because the gateway addresses are broadcasting data to all devices on the network, rather than specifically routing it between hosts.
17.
A user enters http://www.cisco.com/web1.htm in the address line of a browser. Which statement is true about this transaction?
Correct Answer
A. The “http” portion indicates the protocol that is being used.
Explanation
The "http" portion indicates the protocol that is being used. This is because "http" stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol, which is the protocol used for transmitting and receiving information on the World Wide Web.
18.
The tracert 10.1.3.2 command was issued on computer A. Computer A can ping other addresses on the local subnet. Computer A sent the first ICMP packet toward computer B with a TTL value of 1. A protocol analyzer that was running on computer B showed that the packet never reached its destination. Why did the packet not reach the destination?
Correct Answer
D. The TTL for the packet was decreased to zero by R1.
Explanation
The TTL (Time to Live) value of an ICMP packet determines how many hops the packet can take before it is discarded. In this case, the packet had a TTL value of 1 when it was sent from computer A. As the packet traversed the network, it reached router R1, which decremented the TTL value to zero. When the TTL value reaches zero, the router discards the packet and does not forward it any further. Therefore, the packet did not reach its destination because the TTL was decreased to zero by R1.
19.
A routing issue has occurred in your internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?
Correct Answer
B. Switch
Explanation
To isolate a routing issue in an internetwork, the device that should be examined is a switch. A switch is responsible for creating and maintaining a network by connecting devices together and forwarding data packets between them. If there is a routing issue, it could be due to a misconfiguration or malfunctioning of the switch, which needs to be examined and fixed. Other devices like access points, hosts, hubs, and routers may have their own roles in the network, but they are not directly involved in routing.
20.
Which physical component is used to access and perform the initial configuration on a new unconfigured router?
Correct Answer
B. B
Explanation
The correct answer is B. The physical component used to access and perform the initial configuration on a new unconfigured router is a console cable. A console cable is connected to the router's console port and allows for direct access to the router's command-line interface (CLI) for configuration purposes. This cable is commonly used during the initial setup of a router to configure basic settings such as IP address, hostname, and passwords.
21.
What can the user do from the command prompt, Router(config-line)# ?
Correct Answer
B. Configure one of the pHysical or virtual lines.
Explanation
From the command prompt, "Router(config-line)#", the user can configure one of the physical or virtual lines. This means that the user can make changes to the settings and parameters of a specific line, such as a console line or a virtual terminal line. This allows for customization and control over the line's behavior and functionality.
22.
Which option shows the PDU that contains the Layer 3 source and destination addressing for a packet?
Correct Answer
C. Image 3
23.
Refer to the exhibit. The ping 127.0.0.1 command is issued on the local host. What do the ping results indicate?
Correct Answer
B. The TCP/IP stack on the local host operates properly.
Explanation
The ping results indicate that the TCP/IP stack on the local host is functioning correctly.
24.
Which topology divides the collision domain and provides full media bandwidth to the hosts in the network?
Correct Answer
C. Image 3
Explanation
Image 3 represents a star topology. In a star topology, each host is connected to a central device, such as a switch or a hub. This central device acts as a point of connection and communication for all the hosts in the network. The star topology divides the collision domain because each host has its own dedicated connection to the central device, eliminating the possibility of collisions between hosts. Additionally, the star topology provides full media bandwidth to the hosts as they can communicate directly with the central device without any interference from other hosts.
25.
Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies the network address, range of host addresses, and the broadcast address for the network that contains host A?
Correct Answer
C. Image 3
26.
A technician is setting up a workgroup for six users and wants to allow users to share files without setting up a server. Which application layer protocol will provide for peer- to-peer file sharing in a workgroup?
Correct Answer
B. SMB
Explanation
SMB (Server Message Block) is an application layer protocol that allows for peer-to-peer file sharing in a workgroup. It enables users to share files and resources without the need for a server. SMB is commonly used in Windows operating systems and provides a convenient way for users to access and share files within a network. DNS (Domain Name System) is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses, HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring web pages, and DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used to assign IP addresses to devices on a network.
27.
Which router component will have contents erased when the command erase startup-config is issued?
Correct Answer
D. NVRAM
Explanation
When the command "erase startup-config" is issued, the contents of NVRAM (Non-Volatile Random Access Memory) will be erased. NVRAM is a type of memory that retains its data even when the router is powered off or restarted. It stores the startup configuration file, which contains the router's configuration settings. By erasing the startup-config, all the configuration settings stored in NVRAM will be deleted, and the router will revert to its default factory settings.
28.
Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
Correct Answer
F. Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Explanation
After receiving the SYN message from Host1, Host2 will send a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1. This is known as the SYN-ACK segment, which is Host2's response to the initial SYN message. The ACK flag being set to 1 indicates that Host2 acknowledges the receipt of the SYN message, and the SYN flag being set to 1 indicates that Host2 also wants to establish a TCP session with Host1.
29.
How many host addresses may be assigned when using the 128.107.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
Correct Answer
C. 2046
Explanation
When using a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, the network address 128.107.0.0 allows for a total of 2046 host addresses to be assigned. This is because the subnet mask allows for 11 bits to be used for host addresses, which gives a total of 2048 possible combinations. However, the first and last combinations are reserved for the network address and broadcast address respectively, leaving 2046 available host addresses.
30.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is able to access resources on the local LAN but is unable to access any resources on the Internet. What is the likely cause of this problem?
Correct Answer
D. The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
Explanation
The likely cause of the problem is that the default gateway is on a different subnet from the host. The default gateway is the IP address of the router that connects the local LAN to the Internet. If the default gateway is on a different subnet, it means that the host does not have a direct route to the Internet. As a result, it is unable to access any resources on the Internet.
31.
What is described by the network access layer of the TCP/IP model?
Correct Answer
B. Rules for the handoff from the internet layer to the network access protocols
Explanation
The network access layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for the handoff from the internet layer to the network access protocols. This layer ensures that data is properly transmitted between the internet layer and the physical network. It defines the protocols and procedures for accessing the network, including addressing, framing, and error detection. It also handles tasks such as encapsulating data into packets, adding headers and trailers, and transmitting the packets over the physical network.
32.
Which two factors contribute to the increased throughput when all nodes of a LAN are connected to a switch instead of a hub? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Full-duplex operation
B. Collision-free environment
Explanation
When all nodes of a LAN are connected to a switch instead of a hub, two factors contribute to the increased throughput.
First, full-duplex operation allows for simultaneous transmission and reception of data, effectively doubling the bandwidth available for communication.
Second, a collision-free environment is created because a switch creates separate collision domains for each connected device. This means that each device can transmit and receive data without the risk of collisions, resulting in increased efficiency and throughput.
33.
Which application layer protocol allows administrators to log into a server from remote locations and control a server as though logged in locally?
Correct Answer
E. Telnet
Explanation
Telnet is the correct answer because it is an application layer protocol that allows administrators to remotely log into a server and control it as if they were logged in locally. Telnet provides a virtual terminal connection over a network, enabling remote command-line access to a server. This allows administrators to perform various tasks and manage the server from any location with network connectivity.
34.
A network technician has made a UTP cable that is terminated as T568A on one end and T568B on the opposite end. What type of cable has been constructed?
Correct Answer
C. Crossover
Explanation
The UTP cable that is terminated as T568A on one end and T568B on the opposite end is a crossover cable. Crossover cables are used to connect two devices of the same type, such as two computers or two switches, directly to each other without the need for a hub or a switch. The T568A and T568B are two different wiring standards for Ethernet cables, and by using both standards on the same cable, the technician has created a crossover cable.
35.
Which application belongs to the category of the client/server model?
Correct Answer
A. Using Telnet to access a router
Explanation
Using Telnet to access a router belongs to the category of the client/server model because Telnet is a client/server protocol that allows a user to remotely access and manage a device (in this case, a router) by establishing a connection between a client (the user's computer) and a server (the router). The client (user) sends commands to the server (router) and receives responses, enabling remote configuration and management of the router.
36.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two layers of the OSI model describe the same functions as the transport and internet layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
D. Transport layer
E. Network layer
Explanation
The transport layer of the OSI model is responsible for the reliable delivery of data between end systems. Similarly, the network layer of the OSI model is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. In the TCP/IP model, the transport layer performs the same functions as the OSI transport layer, while the network layer performs the same functions as the OSI network layer. Therefore, the correct answer is the transport layer and the network layer.
37.
What command can be used to troubleshoot domain name resolution issues?
Correct Answer
D. Nslookup
Explanation
Nslookup is a command-line tool used to troubleshoot domain name resolution issues. It allows users to query DNS servers to obtain information about domain names, IP addresses, and other DNS records. By using nslookup, users can verify if a domain name is resolving correctly, check DNS records, and troubleshoot any issues related to domain name resolution.
38.
Refer to the exhibit. For connecting two routers with an Ethernet crossover cable, which interface should be used?
Correct Answer
C. C
Explanation
The correct answer is C because it is the only interface that is labeled as "Ethernet". The other interfaces are labeled as "Serial" and "Console", which are not suitable for connecting two routers with an Ethernet crossover cable.
39.
A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?
Correct Answer
C. Enable secret
Explanation
The most secure password to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch is the "enable secret" password. This type of password encrypts the password using a strong cryptographic algorithm, making it more difficult for unauthorized users to access the privileged mode. The "enable" password, on the other hand, is not as secure as it uses a weak encryption method. The "console" and "VTY" passwords are used for securing console and virtual terminal access, respectively, and are not directly related to the privileged EXEC mode.
40.
Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer(s)
B. 196.1.105.6
C. 132.11.9.99
F. 46.1.1.97
41.
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer(s)
A. The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.
B. This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
Explanation
The two facts that can be determined from the session information displayed are:
1. The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol: This can be inferred from the mention of a three-way handshake, which is a process used in connection-oriented protocols like TCP.
2. This exchange is part of the three-way handshake: The mention of a three-way handshake indicates that this exchange is part of the process of establishing a connection between two devices.
42.
Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?
Correct Answer
D. Instant messaging
Explanation
Instant messaging allows real-time collaboration because it enables individuals to send and receive messages instantly, facilitating immediate communication and interaction between multiple parties. Unlike other communication tools such as e-mail or weblog, instant messaging provides a platform for synchronous communication, where participants can engage in real-time conversations, share files, and collaborate on projects simultaneously. This makes it an effective tool for teams or individuals who need to work together and communicate in real-time.
43.
Which prompt is associated with the privileged exec mode?
Correct Answer
B. R1#
Explanation
The prompt "R1#" is associated with the privileged exec mode. In this mode, the user has access to all the router's commands and can perform administrative tasks such as configuring interfaces, viewing system information, and troubleshooting network issues. The "#" symbol indicates that the user is in the privileged exec mode.
44.
What is the effect of the command copy running-config tftp?
Correct Answer
C. Copies the configuration currently in RAM to a remote machine
Explanation
The command "copy running-config tftp" is used to copy the configuration currently in RAM to a remote machine using TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol). This allows the configuration to be backed up or transferred to another device for various purposes such as configuration management or disaster recovery.
45.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of network design is shown?
Correct Answer
D. Peer-to-peer
Explanation
The given exhibit does not show a centralized server or a dedicated server. Instead, it shows multiple devices connected to each other without a central authority. This type of network design is known as peer-to-peer, where each device can act as both a client and a server, allowing for decentralized communication and resource sharing.
46.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection?
Correct Answer
C. The connection is made through a VTY session on the router
Explanation
The correct answer is "The connection is made through a VTY session on the router." This means that the network administrator is accessing RouterB's Command Line Interface (CLI) remotely using Telnet. VTY (Virtual Terminal) sessions allow remote access to the router's CLI. This connection does not automatically encrypt the data, and it does not involve a Telnet server process running on PC1. There is no mention of a GET request being sent to RouterB to retrieve data during this session.
47.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?
Correct Answer
C. Rollover cable
Explanation
A rollover cable is required for connecting host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. A rollover cable is a special type of serial cable that is used for connecting a computer or terminal to the console port of a networking device, such as a router or switch. It is called a rollover cable because the pinouts on one end of the cable are reversed or "rolled over" compared to the other end. This allows the transmit pins on one end to connect to the receive pins on the other end, enabling communication between the devices.
48.
A technician makes several changes to the running configuration on a router, but the desired results are not achieved. The technician issues the reload command. What action will be taken by the router?
Correct Answer
C. The user will be prompted to save changes before the router restarts.
Explanation
When the technician issues the reload command, the router will prompt the user to save any changes made to the running configuration before it restarts. This allows the user to ensure that any desired changes are saved and not lost during the restart process.
49.
Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer(s)
C. It uses a hierarchical structure.
E. It uniquely identifies each host.
F. A portion of the address is used to identify the network.
Explanation
The three true statements about network layer addressing are:
1. It uses a hierarchical structure: Network layer addressing organizes addresses in a hierarchical manner, with each level representing a different network segment.
2. It uniquely identifies each host: Each host on a network is assigned a unique network layer address, allowing for individual identification.
3. A portion of the address is used to identify the network: Network layer addresses are divided into two parts, with one part used to identify the network and the other part used to identify the host within that network.
50.
Which OSI layer addressing is required to route packets between two networks?
Correct Answer
C. Layer 3
Explanation
Layer 3 addressing, also known as network layer addressing, is required to route packets between two networks. This layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing of data packets across different networks. It assigns unique IP addresses to devices and uses routing protocols to determine the best path for packet transmission. Layer 1 is the physical layer, which deals with the physical transmission of data. Layer 2 is the data link layer, which handles the addressing of devices on the same network. Layer 4 is the transport layer, which manages end-to-end communication and ensures reliable delivery of data.